Search Results

Search found 18096 results on 724 pages for 'let'.

Page 105/724 | < Previous Page | 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112  | Next Page >

• Sharing rails fragments between formats

  - by Julian

  Hi I'm toying with mobile_fu and want to share some fragments between the different views. E.g. views/ item/ view.html.erb view.mobile.rb shared/ _common.erb In both view.html.erb and view.mobile.erb I want to share the same fragment '_common.erb' without having to specify the format (should you ever have to specify the format inside a fragment? It doesn't seem like The Rails Way?). Let's say for arguments's sake it's because it's in a helper or whatever -- the point is that I need to share fragments in a 'well-defined and Railsy way' across formats. Let's take this fairly innocuous snippet <% render :fragment => 'shared/common' %> I've tried 3 file name conventions: _common.html.erb only works for html /item/view/xx fails with 'shared/_common.erb not found') however _common.erb fails for html and works for mobile (maybe mobile_fu is doing something wacky?) -- same error as for .html.erb version above _common.rhtml does work for both I'm thinking that: that rhtml works for both is a legacy hack and I'm loathe to rename all the shared fragments .rhtml to get the behaviour I want. Any feedback gratefully welcome! Including 'you fundamentally don't understand how Rails works please RTFM here: http://....' :)

  Read the article

• Which way to go in Linux 3D programming?

  - by Tek

  I'm looking for some answers for a project I'm thinking of. I've searched and from what I understand (correct me if I'm wrong) the only way the program I want to make will work is through 3D application. Let me explain. I plan to make a studio production program but it's unique in the fact that I want to be able to make it fluid. Let me explain. Imagine Microsoft's Surface program where you're able to touch and drag pictures across the screen. Instead of pictures I want them to be sound samples (wavs,mp3,etc). Of course instead the input will be with the mouse but if I ever do finish the project I would totally add touch screen input compatibility! Anyway, I'm guessing there's "physics" to do with it which is why I'm thinking that even though it'll be a 2D application I'll need to code it in a 3D environment. Assuming that I'm correct in how I want to approach my project, where can I start learning about 3D programming? I actually come from PHP programming which will make C++ easier for me to learn. But I don't even know where to start. If I'm not wrong OpenGL is the most up to date API as far as I know. Anyway, please give me your insights guys. I could really use some guidance here since I could totally be wrong in everything that I wrote :)

  Read the article

• How do I define a monadic function to work on a list in J?

  - by Gregory Higley

  Let's say I have the following J expression: # 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 This counts the number of numbers between 1 and 1000 that are evenly divisible by 3. (Now, before anyone points out that there's an easier way to do this, this question is about the syntax of J, and not mathematics.) Let's say I define a monadic function for this, as follows: f =: monad define # y ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 ) This works great with a single argument, e.g., f 4 250 If I pass a list in, I get a length error: f 1 2 3 |length error: f Now, I completely understand why I get the length error. When you substitute the list 1 2 3 for the y argument of the monad, you get: # 1 2 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 If you know anything about J, it's pretty clear why the length error is occurring. So, I don't need an explanation of that. I want to define the function such that when I pass a list, it returns a list, e.g., f 1 2 3 1000 500 333 How can I either (a) redefine this function to take a list and return a list or (b) get the function to work on a list as-is without being redefined, perhaps using some adverb or other technique?

  Read the article

• JDO architecture: One to many relationship and cascading deleting

  - by user361897

  I’m new to object oriented database designs and I’m trying to understand how I should be structuring my classes in JDO for google app engine, particularly one to many relationships. Let’s say I’m building a structure for a department store where there are many departments, and each department has many products. So I’d want to have a class called Department, with a variable that is a list of a Product class. @PersistenceCapable public class Department { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private String deptID; @Persistent private String departmentName; @Persistent private List<Product>; } @PersistenceCapable public class Product { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private String productID; @Persistent private String productName; } But one Product can be in more than one Department (like a battery could be in electronics and household supplies). So the next question is, how do I not duplicate data in the OOD world and have only one copy of product data in numerous departments? And the next question is, let’s say I delete out a particular product, how do each of the departments know it was deleted?

  Read the article

• Objective-C Objects Having Each Other as Properties

  - by mwt

  Let's say we have two objects. Furthermore, let's assume that they really have no reason to exist without each other. So we aren't too worried about re-usability. Is there anything wrong with them "knowing about" each other? Meaning, can each one have the other as a property? Is it OK to do something like this in a mythical third class: Foo *f = [[Foo alloc] init]; self.foo = f; [f release]; Bar *b = [[Bar alloc] init]; self.bar = b; [b release]; foo.bar = bar; bar.foo = foo; ...so that they can then call methods on each other? Instead of doing this, I'm usually using messaging, etc., but sometimes this seems like it might be a tidier solution. I hardly ever see it in example code (maybe never), so I've shied away from doing it. Can somebody set me straight on this? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Moving Javascript object with all bounded events to other variable

  - by Saif Bechan

  Let's say I have an anchor tag, with some events. <a id="clickme" href="/endpoint">clickme</a> <a id="clickme2" href="/endpoint2">clickme2</a> Let's use jquery for simplicity: $('#clickme').on('click', function(){.....}) I also have a variable: var myActiveVar = $('#clickme'); When I want to remove the element an every trace of it I can do this: myActiveVar.off().remove(); Here comes the problem, I want to reuse the variable. Something like this: var oldAcriveVar = myActiveVar; myActiveVar = $('#clickme2'); // Now I want to do some operations // both of the elements are still on // the page, when I'm done: oldActiveVar.off().remove(); Comeplete code: var myActiveVar = $('#clickme'); // Operate on myActiveVar var oldAcriveVar = myActiveVar; myActiveVar = $('#clickme2'); // Operate on myActiveVar which is // the new element. // Old element stays visible oldActiveVar.off().remove(); // Old element and all traces are gone Edit: Maybe the above code will work, but my problem goes beyond. I just gave a simplified example. I am using Backbone events that are bounded to object. They need to be removed when I am done with the object.

  Read the article

• WPF bound object update notification

  - by Carlo

  I have a TreeView with a few objects bound to it, let's say something like this: public class House { public List<Room> Rooms { get; set; } public List<Person> People { get; set; } public House() { this.Rooms = new List<Room>(); this.People = new List<Person>(); } public void BuildRoom(string name) { this.Rooms.Add(new Room() { Name = name }); } public void DestroyRoom(string name) { this.Rooms.Remove(new Room() { Name = name }); } public void PersonEnter(string name) { this.People.Add(new Person() { Name = name }); } public void PersonLeave(string name) { this.People.Remove(new Person() { Name = name }); } } public class Room { public string Name { get; set; } } public class Person { public string Name { get; set; } } The TreeView is watching over the House object, whenever a room is built / destroyed or a person enters / leaves, my tree view updates itself to show the new state of the house (I omitted some implementation details for simplicity). What I want is to know the exact moment when this update finishes, so I can do something right there, the thing is that I created an indicator of the selected item, and when something moves, I need to update said indicator's position, that's the reason I need it exactly when the tree view updates. Let me know if you know a solution to this. Also, the code is not perfect (DestroyRoom and PersonLeave), but you get the idea. Thanks!

  Read the article

• JPA + EJB + JSF: how can design complicated query

  - by Harry Pham

  I am using netbean 6.8 btw. Let say that I have 4 different tables: Company, Facility, Project, and Document. So the relationship is this. A company can have multiple facilities. A facility can have multiple projects, and a project can have multiple documents. Company: +companyNum: PK +facilityNum: FK Facility: +facilityNum: PK +projectNum: FK Project: +projectNum: PK +drawingNum: FK So when I create Entity Class From Database in netbean 6.8, I have 4 entity classes that named after the above 4 tables. So if I want to see all the Document in the database, then it is easy. In my SessionBean, I would do this: @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; List<Document> documents = em.createNamedQuery("Document.findAll").getResultList(); However, that is not all what I need. Let say that I want to know all the Document from a particular Company, or all the Document from a particular Project from a particular Facility from a particular Company. I am very new to JPA + EJB + JSF as a whole. Please help me out.

  Read the article

• SQL Binary Microsoft Access - Combining two tables if specific field values are equal

  - by Jordan

  I am new to Microsoft Access and SQL but have a decent programming background and I believe this problem should be relatively simple. I have two tables that I have imported into Access. I will give you a little context. One table is huge and contains generic, global data. The other table is still big but contains specific, regional data. There is only one common field (or column) between the two tables. Let’s call this common field CF. The other fields in both tables are different. I’ll take you through one iteration of what I need to do. I need to take each CF value in the regional, smaller table and find the common CF value in the larger, global table. After finding the match, I need to take the whole “record” or “row” from the global data and copy it over to the corresponding record in the smaller regional table (This should involve creating the new fields). I need to do this for all CF values in the regional, smaller table. I was recommended to use SQL and a binary search, but I am unfamiliar. Let me know if you have any questions. I appreciate the help!

  Read the article

• How to break out from nested doseqs

  - by fizbin

  Hi, I have a question regarding nested doseq loops. In the start function, once I find an answer I set the atom to true, so that the outer loop validation with :while fails. However it seems that it doesn't break it, and the loops keep on going. What's wrong with it? I am also quite confused with the usage of atoms, refs, agents (Why do they have different names for the update functions when then the mechanism is almost the same?) etc. Is it okay to use an atom in this situation as a flag? Obviously I need a a variable like object to store a state. (def pentagonal-list (map (fn [a] (/ (* a (dec (* 3 a))) 2)) (iterate inc 1))) (def found (atom false)) (defn pentagonal? [a] (let [y (/ (inc (Math/sqrt (inc (* 24 a)))) 6) x (mod (* 10 y) 10)] (if (zero? x) true false))) (defn both-pent? [a b] (let [sum (+ b a) diff (- a b)] (if (and (pentagonal? sum) (pentagonal? diff)) true false))) (defn start [] (doseq [x pentagonal-list :while (false? @found)] (doseq [y pentagonal-list :while (<= y x)] (if (both-pent? x y) (do (reset! found true) (println (- x y)))))))

  Read the article

• Caching queries in Django

  - by dolma33

  In a django project I only need to cache a few queries, using, because of server limitations, a cache table instead of memcached. One of those queries looks like this: Let's say I have a Parent object, which has a lot of Child objects. I need to store the result of the simple query parent.childs.all(). I have no problem with that, and everything works as expected with some code like key = "%s_children" %(parent.name) value = cache.get(key) if value is None: cache.set(key, parent.children.all(), CACHE_TIMEOUT) value = cache.get(key) But sometimes, just sometimes, the cache.set does nothing, and, after executing cache.set, cache.get(key) keeps returning None. After some test, I've noticed that cache.set is not working when parent.children.all().count() has higher values. That means that if I'm storing inside of key (for example) 600 children objects, it works fine, but it wont work with 1200 children. So my question is: is there a limit to the data that a key could store? How can I override it? Second question: which way is "better", the above code, or the following one? key = "%s_children" %(parent.name) value = cache.get(key) if value is None: value = parent.children.all() cache.set(key, value, CACHE_TIMEOUT) The second version won't cause errors if cache.set doesn't work, so it could be a workaround to my issue, but obviously not a solution. In general, let's forget about my issue, which version would you consider "better"?

  Read the article

• Determine if a Range contains a value

  - by Brad Dwyer

  I'm trying to figure out a way to determine if a value falls within a Range in Swift. Basically what I'm trying to do is adapt one of the examples switch statement examples to do something like this: let point = (1, -1) switch point { case let (x, y) where (0..5).contains(x): println("(\(x), \(y)) has an x val between 0 and 5.") default: println("This point has an x val outside 0 and 5.") } As far as I can tell, there isn't any built in way to do what my imaginary .contains method above does. So I tried to extend the Range class. I ended up running into issues with generics though. I can't extend Range<Int> so I had to try to extend Range itself. The closest I got was this but it doesn't work since >= and <= aren't defined for ForwardIndex extension Range { func contains(val:ForwardIndex) -> Bool { return val >= self.startIndex && val <= self.endIndex } } How would I go about adding a .contains method to Range? Or is there a better way to determine whether a value falls within a range? Edit2: This seems to work to extend Range extension Range { func contains(val:T) -> Bool { for x in self { if(x == val) { return true } } return false } } var a = 0..5 a.contains(3) // true a.contains(6) // false a.contains(-5) // false I am very interested in the ~= operator mentioned below though; looking into that now.

  Read the article

• Ensure that my C# desktop application is making requests to my ASP .NET MVC action?

  - by Mathias Lykkegaard Lorenzen

  I've seen questions that are almost identical to this one, except minor but important differences that I would like to get detailed. Let's say that I have a controller and an action method in MVC which therefore accepts requests on the following URL: http://example.com/api/myapimethod?data=some-data-here. This URL is then being called regularly by 1000 clients or more spread out in the public. The reason for this is crowdsourcing. The clients around the globe help feed a global cache on my server, which makes it faster for the rest of the clients to fetch the data. Now, if I'm sneaky (and I am), I can go into Fiddler, Ethereal, Wireshark or any other packet sniffing tool and figure out which requests the program is making. By figuring that out, I can also replicate them, and fill the service with false corrupted data. What is the best approach to ensuring that the data received in my ASP .NET MVC action method is actually from the desktop client application, and not some falsely generated data that the user invented? Since it is all based on crowdsourcing, would it be a good idea for my users to be able to "vote" if some data is falsified, and then let an automatic cleanup commence if there are enough votes? I do not have access to a tool like SmartAssembly, so unfortunately my .NET program is fully decompilable. I realize this might be impossible to accomplish in an error-proof manner, but I would like to know where my best chances are.

  Read the article

• XCode Obj-C: Make new NSArray from one key each out of an Array of Dictionaries

  - by user323772

  This actually could be a multipart question. But here's the first part ... I have an array (actually in a plist) of dictionaries. Each dictionary has 3 keys in it: (title), (points), and (description). I am trying to make a NEW array with the values of the key "title" from each dictionary in that first array. Let me explain WHY I am doing this and maybe that will provide a better all around explanation. I am trying to let people pick from a pre-determined list. Heck, if this was a web page it would be very simple since all I really care about are the "points" and the "Title". On a web site I could simply do a drop down combo-box with the "points" being the value and the title being the text for each row. But this is not a web page. So what I am trying to do here is pop out a modal picker when they click the text field. The modal picker shows the alphabetical ordered "titles" from our new array. And whichever one they select, it closes the modal view and assigns that "title" text to the UITextField which cannot be edited by the user. I have some code to get my modal picker to pop out. But I need to feed it an array of just the "titles" of each dictionary in my real array. Thanks in advance (and yes I am a newbie)

  Read the article

• How to parse a string (by a "new" markup) with R ?

  - by Tal Galili

  Hi all, I want to use R to do string parsing that (I think) is like a simplistic HTML parsing. For example, let's say we have the following two variables: Seq <- "GCCTCGATAGCTCAGTTGGGAGAGCGTACGACTGAAGATCGTAAGGtCACCAGTTCGATCCTGGTTCGGGGCA" Str <- ">>>>>>>..>>>>........<<<<.>>>>>.......<<<<<.....>>>>>.......<<<<<<<<<<<<." Say that I want to parse "Seq" According to "Str", by using the legend here Seq: GCCTCGATAGCTCAGTTGGGAGAGCGTACGACTGAAGATCGTAAGGtCACCAGTTCGATCCTGGTTCGGGGCA Str: >>>>>>>..>>>>........<<<<.>>>>>.......<<<<<.....>>>>>.......<<<<<<<<<<<<. | | | | | | | || | +-----+ +--------------+ +---------------+ +---------------++-----+ | Stem 1 Stem 2 Stem 3 | | | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ Stem 0 Assume that we always have 4 stems (0 to 3), but that the length of letters before and after each of them can very. The output should be something like the following list structure: list( "Stem 0 opening" = "GCCTCGA", "before Stem 1" = "TA", "Stem 1" = list(opening = "GCTC", inside = "AGTTGGGA", closing = "GAGC" ), "between Stem 1 and 2" = "G", "Stem 2" = list(opening = "TACGA", inside = "CTGAAGA", closing = "TCGTA" ), "between Stem 2 and 3" = "AGGtC", "Stem 3" = list(opening = "ACCAG", inside = "TTCGATC", closing = "CTGGT" ), "After Stem 3" = "", "Stem 0 closing" = "TCGGGGC" ) I don't have any experience with programming a parser, and would like advices as to what strategy to use when programming something like this (and any recommended R commands to use). What I was thinking of is to first get rid of the "Stem 0", then go through the inner string with a recursive function (let's call it "seperate.stem") that each time will split the string into: 1. before stem 2. opening stem 3. inside stem 4. closing stem 5. after stem Where the "after stem" will then be recursively entered into the same function ("seperate.stem") The thing is that I am not sure how to try and do this coding without using a loop. Any advices will be most welcomed.

  Read the article

• merging two tables, while applying aggregates on the duplicates (max,min and sum)

  - by cloudraven

  I have a table (let's call it log) with a few millions of records. Among the fields I have Id, Count, FirstHit, LastHit. Id - The record id Count - number of times this Id has been reported FirstHit - earliest timestamp with which this Id was reported LastHit - latest timestamp with which this Id was reported This table only has one record for any given Id Everyday I get into another table (let's call it feed) with around half a million records with these fields among many others: Id Timestamp - Entry date and time. This table can have many records for the same id What I want to do is to update log in the following way. Count - log count value, plus the count() of records for that id found in feed FirstHit - the earliest of the current value in log or the minimum value in feed for that id LastHit - the latest of the current value in log or the maximum value in feed for that id. It should be noticed that many of the ids in feed are already in log. The simple thing that worked is to create a temporary table and insert into it the union of both as in Select Id, Min(Timestamp) As FirstHit, MAX(Timestamp) as LastHit, Count(*) as Count FROM feed GROUP BY Id UNION ALL Select Id, FirstHit,LastHit,Count FROM log; From that temporary table I do a select that aggregates Min(firsthit), max(lasthit) and sum(Count) Select Id, Min(FirstHit),Max(LastHit),Sum(Count) FROM @temp GROUP BY Id; and that gives me the end result. I could then delete everything from log and replace it with everything with temp, or craft an update for the common records and insert the new ones. However, I think both are highly inefficient. Is there a more efficient way of doing this. Perhaps doing the update in place in the log table?

  Read the article

• What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

  - by Nischal

  We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

  Read the article

• Should I learn two (or more) programming languages in parallel?

  - by c_maker

  I found entries on this site about learning a new programming language, however, I have not come across anything that talks about the advantages and disadvantages of learning two languages at the same time. Let's say my goal is to learn two new languages in a year. I understand that the definition of learning a new language is different for everyone and you can probably never know everything about a language. I believe in most cases the following things are enough to include the language in your resume and say that you are proficient in it (list is not in any particular order): Know its syntax so you can write a simple program in it Compare its underlying concepts with concepts of other languages Know best practices Know what libraries are available Know in what situations to use it Understand the flow of a more complex program At least know most of what you do not know I would probably look for a good book and pick an open source project for both of these languages to start with. My questions: Is it best to spend 5 months learning language#1 then 5 months learning language#2, or should you mix the two. Mixing them I mean you work on them in parallel. Should you pick two languages that are similar or different? Are there any advantages/disadvantages of let's say learning Lisp in tandem with Ruby? Is it a good idea to pick two languages with similar syntax or would it be too confusing? Please tell me what your experiences are regarding this. Does it make a difference if you are a beginner or a senior programmer?

  Read the article

• Meteor: how to update DOM via Javascript without a page refresh?

  - by strack

  UPDATE: It looks like this script may be the catalyst I'm looking for. Will test it and answer/close this question if so. I'm sure I'll find the answer to this eventually, but I'm putting it out there now, in case someone else knows it right off... I am using RaphaelJS to manipulate the DOM (adds a bunch of SVG tags to an identified DIV), and I want to re-render those specific DOM parts, if there's an update to the MongoDB collection. As an example: -Let's say that I have a collection called PiePieces. -When the page is first rendered/ called, let's pretend that the number of pieces in the collection is 4. -I programmatically add a pie piece using console: PiePieces.insert({...}) -I want the page to update like it would for a standard handlebars binding situation, but the problem is, the new entry needs to go through the Raphael script, which performs direct DOM manipulation. So, the logic would go something like this: MongoDB collection update event - Client function call to manipulate DOM - DOM modified/ page updated without a refresh. I've tried implementing this by reading values from the DOM itself, and I can get the updated DOM, but the entire page refreshes and/or I have to manually refresh the page, OR the DOM tree isn't completed yet, and so it's blank until I refresh. Can you point me in the right direction, maybe with a small code snippet/example? (if something similar already exists, just tell me where and I'll go digging) Thanks in advance! (I am LOVING Meteor so far...)

  Read the article

• C++: Vector of objects vs. vector of pointers to new objects?

  - by metamemetics

  Hello, I am seeking to improve my C++ skills by writing a sample software renderer. It takes objects consisting of points in a 3d space and maps them to a 2d viewport and draws circles of varying size for each point in view. Which is better: class World{ vector<ObjectBaseClass> object_list; public: void generate(){ object_list.clear(); object_list.push_back(DerivedClass1()); object_list.push_back(DerivedClass2()); or... class World{ vector<ObjectBaseClass*> object_list; public: void generate(){ object_list.clear(); object_list.push_back(new DerivedClass1()); object_list.push_back(new DerivedClass2()); ?? Would be using pointers in the 2nd example to create new objects defeat the point of using vectors, because vectors automatically call the DerivedClass destructors in the first example but not in the 2nd? Are pointers to new objects necessary when using vectors because they handle memory management themselves as long as you use their access methods? Now let's say I have another method in world: void drawfrom(Viewport& view){ for (unsigned int i=0;i<object_list.size();++i){ object_list.at(i).draw(view); } } When called this will run the draw method for every object in the world list. Let's say I want derived classes to be able to have their own versions of draw(). Would the list need to be of pointers then in order to use the method selector (-) ?

  Read the article

• Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

  - by Robert Vella

  Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

  Read the article

• Dojo: Setting a CheckBox label programmatically

  - by Mitchell Flaherty

  Let me preface by saying that I saw this other question on the subject of CheckBox labels that was asked and answered well over a year ago. I was confused by the answers and am hoping that someone can clarify or that there has been new dojo functionality introduced since then that allows me to do this without resorting to HTML. So without further ado, I would like to know how to programmatically create labels for check boxes. I have a check box like so: this.pubBoxId = new dijit.form.CheckBox({ label: "IdChannel", checked: false, channel: that.idChannel }, that.name + "_PBI"); As you can see I've tried to edit the "label" field, but the label never actually shows up on the page. I have multiple CheckBoxes that I am adding to a ContentPane and simply want a label to the left or right of the check box. Is there any way I can do this without having to write separate HTML? Also, making a separate ContentPane for each individual label would be a big pain because of how many CheckBoxes I plan to have. Thank you for reading, and let me know if further clarification is needed!

  Read the article

• Haskell: How to compose `not` with a function of arbitrary arity?

  - by Hynek -Pichi- Vychodil

  When I have some function of type like f :: (Ord a) => a -> a -> Bool f a b = a > b I should like make function which wrap this function with not. e.g. make function like this g :: (Ord a) => a -> a -> Bool g a b = not $ f a b I can make combinator like n f = (\a -> \b -> not $ f a b) But I don't know how. *Main> let n f = (\a -> \b -> not $ f a b) n :: (t -> t1 -> Bool) -> t -> t1 -> Bool Main> :t n f n f :: (Ord t) => t -> t -> Bool *Main> let g = n f g :: () -> () -> Bool What am I doing wrong? And bonus question how I can do this for function with more and lest parameters e.g. t -> Bool t -> t1 -> Bool t -> t1 -> t2 -> Bool t -> t1 -> t2 -> t3 -> Bool

  Read the article

• Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

  - by Dan Tao

  I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

  Read the article

• R Random Data Sets within loops

  - by jugossery

  Here is what I want to do: I have a time series data frame with let us say 100 time-series of length 600 - each in one column of the data frame. I want to pick up 4 of the time-series randomly and then assign them random weights that sum up to one (ie 0.1, 0.5, 0.3, 0.1). Using those I want to compute the mean of the sum of the 4 weighted time series variables (e.g. convex combination). I want to do this let us say 100k times and store each result in the form ts1.name, ts2.name, ts3.name, ts4.name, weight1, weight2, weight3, weight4, mean so that I get a 9*100k df. I tried some things already but R is very bad with loops and I know vector oriented solutions are better because of R design. Thanks Here is what I did and I know it is horrible The df is in the form v1,v2,v2.....v100 1,5,6,.......9 2,4,6,.......10 3,5,8,.......6 2,2,8,.......2 etc e=NULL for (x in 1:100000) { s=sample(1:100,4)#pick 4 variables randomly a=sample(seq(0,1,0.01),1) b=sample(seq(0,1-a,0.01),1) c=sample(seq(0,(1-a-b),0.01),1) d=1-a-b-c e=c(a,b,c,d)#4 random weights average=mean(timeseries.df[,s]%*%t(e)) e=rbind(e,s,average)#in the end i get the 9*100k df } The procedure runs way to slow. EDIT: Thanks for the help i had,i am not used to think R and i am not very used to translate every problem into a matrix algebra equation which is what you need in R. Then the problem becomes a little bit complex if i want to calculate the standard deviation. i need the covariance matrix and i am not sure i can if/how i can pick random elements for each sample from the original timeseries.df covariance matrix then compute the sample variance (t(sampleweights)%*%sample_cov.mat%*%sampleweights) to get in the end the ts.weighted_standard_dev matrix Last question what is the best way to proceed if i want to bootstrap the original df x times and then apply the same computations to test the robustness of my datas thanks

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112  | Next Page >