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  • Moving Javascript object with all bounded events to other variable

    - by Saif Bechan
    Let's say I have an anchor tag, with some events. <a id="clickme" href="/endpoint">clickme</a> <a id="clickme2" href="/endpoint2">clickme2</a> Let's use jquery for simplicity: $('#clickme').on('click', function(){.....}) I also have a variable: var myActiveVar = $('#clickme'); When I want to remove the element an every trace of it I can do this: myActiveVar.off().remove(); Here comes the problem, I want to reuse the variable. Something like this: var oldAcriveVar = myActiveVar; myActiveVar = $('#clickme2'); // Now I want to do some operations // both of the elements are still on // the page, when I'm done: oldActiveVar.off().remove(); Comeplete code: var myActiveVar = $('#clickme'); // Operate on myActiveVar var oldAcriveVar = myActiveVar; myActiveVar = $('#clickme2'); // Operate on myActiveVar which is // the new element. // Old element stays visible oldActiveVar.off().remove(); // Old element and all traces are gone Edit: Maybe the above code will work, but my problem goes beyond. I just gave a simplified example. I am using Backbone events that are bounded to object. They need to be removed when I am done with the object.

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  • Multiple plugin instance loading with MEF

    - by Dave
    In my last application, using MEF to load plugins went just fine, but now I'm running into a new issue. I have a solution for it that I explain at the end of this question, but I'm looking for other ways to do it. Let's say I have an interface called ApplianceInterface. I also have two plugins that inherit from ApplianceInterface, let's call them Blender and Processor. Now, I would like to have multiple Blenders and Processors in my application, but I am not sure how to instantiate them properly. Before, I would simply use the ImportMany attribute and upon calling ComposeParts, my application would load Blender and Processor. For example: [ImportMany(typeof(ApplianceInterface))] private IEnumerable<ApplianceInterface> Appliances { get; set; } and my Blender and Processor plugins would be attributed like this: [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] [Export(typeof(MyInterface)] public class Blender : ApplianceInterface { ... } but what this ends up doing for me is populating Appliances with one Blender and one Processor. I need to be able to create an arbitrary number of Blender and Processor objects. Now, from the documentation I understand that [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] is what allows MEF to create a new instance each time, but is there a similar "magical" way to create a specific number of instances of something using MEF? Up until now, I've relied on [Import] and [ImportMany] to resolve the assemblies. Is my only option to use a global container, and then resolve the export manually using GetExportedValue<? I have tried GetExportedValue< and that implementation does work fine for me, but I was just curious if there is a better, more accepted way to do it.

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  • Sharing rails fragments between formats

    - by Julian
    Hi I'm toying with mobile_fu and want to share some fragments between the different views. E.g. views/ item/ view.html.erb view.mobile.rb shared/ _common.erb In both view.html.erb and view.mobile.erb I want to share the same fragment '_common.erb' without having to specify the format (should you ever have to specify the format inside a fragment? It doesn't seem like The Rails Way?). Let's say for arguments's sake it's because it's in a helper or whatever -- the point is that I need to share fragments in a 'well-defined and Railsy way' across formats. Let's take this fairly innocuous snippet <% render :fragment => 'shared/common' %> I've tried 3 file name conventions: _common.html.erb only works for html /item/view/xx fails with 'shared/_common.erb not found') however _common.erb fails for html and works for mobile (maybe mobile_fu is doing something wacky?) -- same error as for .html.erb version above _common.rhtml does work for both I'm thinking that: that rhtml works for both is a legacy hack and I'm loathe to rename all the shared fragments .rhtml to get the behaviour I want. Any feedback gratefully welcome! Including 'you fundamentally don't understand how Rails works please RTFM here: http://....' :)

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  • Caching queries in Django

    - by dolma33
    In a django project I only need to cache a few queries, using, because of server limitations, a cache table instead of memcached. One of those queries looks like this: Let's say I have a Parent object, which has a lot of Child objects. I need to store the result of the simple query parent.childs.all(). I have no problem with that, and everything works as expected with some code like key = "%s_children" %(parent.name) value = cache.get(key) if value is None: cache.set(key, parent.children.all(), CACHE_TIMEOUT) value = cache.get(key) But sometimes, just sometimes, the cache.set does nothing, and, after executing cache.set, cache.get(key) keeps returning None. After some test, I've noticed that cache.set is not working when parent.children.all().count() has higher values. That means that if I'm storing inside of key (for example) 600 children objects, it works fine, but it wont work with 1200 children. So my question is: is there a limit to the data that a key could store? How can I override it? Second question: which way is "better", the above code, or the following one? key = "%s_children" %(parent.name) value = cache.get(key) if value is None: value = parent.children.all() cache.set(key, value, CACHE_TIMEOUT) The second version won't cause errors if cache.set doesn't work, so it could be a workaround to my issue, but obviously not a solution. In general, let's forget about my issue, which version would you consider "better"?

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  • Is it possible to customize @synthesized properties?

    - by Dan K.
    I'm probably just being a bit lazy here, but bear with me. Here's my situation. I have a class with two nonatomic, retained properties. Let's say: @property (nonatomic, retain) UITextField *dateField; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDate *date; I synthesize them as expected in the implementation. What I want to happen is that whenever the setter on date is invoked, it also does something to the dateField (i.e. it sets the text property on the dateField to be a nicely formatted version of the date). I realize I can just manually override the setter for date in my implementation by doing the following: - (void) setDate:(NSDate *)newDate { if (date != newDate) { [date release]; date = [newDate retain]; // my code to touch the dateField goes here } } What would be awesome is if I could let Objective C handle the retain/release cycle, but still be able to "register" (for lack of a better term) a custom handler that would be invoked after the retain/release/set happens. My guess is that isn't possible. My google-fu didn't come up with any answer to this, though, so I thought I'd ask.

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  • Meteor: how to update DOM via Javascript without a page refresh?

    - by strack
    UPDATE: It looks like this script may be the catalyst I'm looking for. Will test it and answer/close this question if so. I'm sure I'll find the answer to this eventually, but I'm putting it out there now, in case someone else knows it right off... I am using RaphaelJS to manipulate the DOM (adds a bunch of SVG tags to an identified DIV), and I want to re-render those specific DOM parts, if there's an update to the MongoDB collection. As an example: -Let's say that I have a collection called PiePieces. -When the page is first rendered/ called, let's pretend that the number of pieces in the collection is 4. -I programmatically add a pie piece using console: PiePieces.insert({...}) -I want the page to update like it would for a standard handlebars binding situation, but the problem is, the new entry needs to go through the Raphael script, which performs direct DOM manipulation. So, the logic would go something like this: MongoDB collection update event - Client function call to manipulate DOM - DOM modified/ page updated without a refresh. I've tried implementing this by reading values from the DOM itself, and I can get the updated DOM, but the entire page refreshes and/or I have to manually refresh the page, OR the DOM tree isn't completed yet, and so it's blank until I refresh. Can you point me in the right direction, maybe with a small code snippet/example? (if something similar already exists, just tell me where and I'll go digging) Thanks in advance! (I am LOVING Meteor so far...)

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  • Passing objects across Appdomains

    - by MUSTAQ
    My issue is similar to the one posted in "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/981773/moving-objects-across-appdomains-in-net". In one of my application, I am creating a separate appdomain. I need to create an instance of a class (Note: this class is derived by MarshalByRefObject) in my parent domain and invoke a MethodA in that instance. This instance is created using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap". The problem is that this MethodA takes objects of type class as an argument. These objects are not created in the MethodB where i created the appdomain. It was passed as an argument to the MethodB where i create the appdomain. So is it necessary to create a new instance of these objects using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap" before passing it to the created domain. Not doing this gives me an error in the created domain mentioning that "MyClass object has no attribute foo" during some invocation. Please let me know how to pass the objects across appdomains and execute the method. My statements might be confusing, please let me know for any specific details required.

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  • JDO architecture: One to many relationship and cascading deleting

    - by user361897
    I’m new to object oriented database designs and I’m trying to understand how I should be structuring my classes in JDO for google app engine, particularly one to many relationships. Let’s say I’m building a structure for a department store where there are many departments, and each department has many products. So I’d want to have a class called Department, with a variable that is a list of a Product class. @PersistenceCapable public class Department { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private String deptID; @Persistent private String departmentName; @Persistent private List<Product>; } @PersistenceCapable public class Product { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private String productID; @Persistent private String productName; } But one Product can be in more than one Department (like a battery could be in electronics and household supplies). So the next question is, how do I not duplicate data in the OOD world and have only one copy of product data in numerous departments? And the next question is, let’s say I delete out a particular product, how do each of the departments know it was deleted?

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  • [C#] How to receive uncrackable data or so ? ;P

    - by Prix
    Hi, I am working on an C# application to communicate with my website and retrieve some information from it, using SSL which is working just fine. Now what i want/need is a way to receive encrypted or codified or obfuscated data that if some one cracks my application they will not be able to decrypt the data because it needs something from the server (api, website) but yet the application needs to decrypt it in order to use it... initally i was thinking of an inside RSA pair or keys, to send and receive the encrypt data but let's consider that someone has cracked the application, they could just replace those keys for keys they have made, so i was looking into some methods but havent found or been able to think of any way to harder this... I was learning about RSA, encryption and such and started developing this as a self learning and got involved with it and now i am trying to figure out a way to receive data like that... I have considered obfuscating and compiling my code with packers and etc but this is not about packing it etc... i am more interested in knowing a better way to secure what i described i know it may or is impossible but yet i am looking forward to some approch. I would appreciate advices, suggestions and C# code samples, if you need more information or anything please let me know.

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  • Objective-C Objects Having Each Other as Properties

    - by mwt
    Let's say we have two objects. Furthermore, let's assume that they really have no reason to exist without each other. So we aren't too worried about re-usability. Is there anything wrong with them "knowing about" each other? Meaning, can each one have the other as a property? Is it OK to do something like this in a mythical third class: Foo *f = [[Foo alloc] init]; self.foo = f; [f release]; Bar *b = [[Bar alloc] init]; self.bar = b; [b release]; foo.bar = bar; bar.foo = foo; ...so that they can then call methods on each other? Instead of doing this, I'm usually using messaging, etc., but sometimes this seems like it might be a tidier solution. I hardly ever see it in example code (maybe never), so I've shied away from doing it. Can somebody set me straight on this? Thanks.

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  • Which way to go in Linux 3D programming?

    - by Tek
    I'm looking for some answers for a project I'm thinking of. I've searched and from what I understand (correct me if I'm wrong) the only way the program I want to make will work is through 3D application. Let me explain. I plan to make a studio production program but it's unique in the fact that I want to be able to make it fluid. Let me explain. Imagine Microsoft's Surface program where you're able to touch and drag pictures across the screen. Instead of pictures I want them to be sound samples (wavs,mp3,etc). Of course instead the input will be with the mouse but if I ever do finish the project I would totally add touch screen input compatibility! Anyway, I'm guessing there's "physics" to do with it which is why I'm thinking that even though it'll be a 2D application I'll need to code it in a 3D environment. Assuming that I'm correct in how I want to approach my project, where can I start learning about 3D programming? I actually come from PHP programming which will make C++ easier for me to learn. But I don't even know where to start. If I'm not wrong OpenGL is the most up to date API as far as I know. Anyway, please give me your insights guys. I could really use some guidance here since I could totally be wrong in everything that I wrote :)

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  • Algorithm to determine indices i..j of array A containing all the elements of another array B

    - by Skylark
    I came across this question on an interview questions thread. Here is the question: Given two integer arrays A [1..n] and B[1..m], find the smallest window in A that contains all elements of B. In other words, find a pair < i , j such that A[i..j] contains B[1..m]. If A doesn't contain all the elements of B, then i,j can be returned as -1. The integers in A need not be in the same order as they are in B. If there are more than one smallest window (different, but have the same size), then its enough to return one of them. Example: A[1,2,5,11,2,6,8,24,101,17,8] and B[5,2,11,8,17]. The algorithm should return i = 2 (index of 5 in A) and j = 9 (index of 17 in A). Now I can think of two variations. Let's suppose that B has duplicates. This variation doesn't consider the number of times each element occurs in B. It just checks for all the unique elements that occur in B and finds the smallest corresponding window in A that satisfies the above problem. For example, if A[1,2,4,5,7] and B[2,2,5], this variation doesn't bother about there being two 2's in B and just checks A for the unique integers in B namely 2 and 5 and hence returns i=1, j=3. This variation accounts for duplicates in B. If there are two 2's in B, then it expects to see at least two 2's in A as well. If not, it returns -1,-1. When you answer, please do let me know which variation you are answering. Pseudocode should do. Please mention space and time complexity if it is tricky to calculate it. Mention if your solution assumes array indices to start at 1 or 0 too. Thanks in advance.

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  • JPA + EJB + JSF: how can design complicated query

    - by Harry Pham
    I am using netbean 6.8 btw. Let say that I have 4 different tables: Company, Facility, Project, and Document. So the relationship is this. A company can have multiple facilities. A facility can have multiple projects, and a project can have multiple documents. Company: +companyNum: PK +facilityNum: FK Facility: +facilityNum: PK +projectNum: FK Project: +projectNum: PK +drawingNum: FK So when I create Entity Class From Database in netbean 6.8, I have 4 entity classes that named after the above 4 tables. So if I want to see all the Document in the database, then it is easy. In my SessionBean, I would do this: @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; List<Document> documents = em.createNamedQuery("Document.findAll").getResultList(); However, that is not all what I need. Let say that I want to know all the Document from a particular Company, or all the Document from a particular Project from a particular Facility from a particular Company. I am very new to JPA + EJB + JSF as a whole. Please help me out.

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  • How do I check if a scalar has a compiled regex in it with Perl?

    - by Robert P
    Let's say I have a subroutine/method that a user can call to test some data that (as an example) might look like this: sub test_output { my ($self, $test) = @_; my $output = $self->long_process_to_get_data(); if ($output =~ /\Q$test/) { $self->assert_something(); } else { $self->do_something_else(); } } Normally, $test is a string, which we're looking for anywhere in the output. This was an interface put together to make calling it very easy. However, we've found that sometimes, a straight string is problematic - for example, a large, possibly varying number of spaces...a pattern, if you will. Thus, I'd like to let them pass in a regex as an option. I could just do: $output =~ $test if I could assume that it's always a regex, but ah, but the backwards compatibility! If they pass in a string, it still needs to test it like a raw string. So in that case, I'll need to test to see if $test is a regex. Is there any good facility for detecting whether or not a scalar has a compiled regex in it?

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  • Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

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  • How do I define a monadic function to work on a list in J?

    - by Gregory Higley
    Let's say I have the following J expression: # 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 This counts the number of numbers between 1 and 1000 that are evenly divisible by 3. (Now, before anyone points out that there's an easier way to do this, this question is about the syntax of J, and not mathematics.) Let's say I define a monadic function for this, as follows: f =: monad define # y ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 ) This works great with a single argument, e.g., f 4 250 If I pass a list in, I get a length error: f 1 2 3 |length error: f Now, I completely understand why I get the length error. When you substitute the list 1 2 3 for the y argument of the monad, you get: # 1 2 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 If you know anything about J, it's pretty clear why the length error is occurring. So, I don't need an explanation of that. I want to define the function such that when I pass a list, it returns a list, e.g., f 1 2 3 1000 500 333 How can I either (a) redefine this function to take a list and return a list or (b) get the function to work on a list as-is without being redefined, perhaps using some adverb or other technique?

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  • JavaScript library not working in IE, can't see error information.

    - by Wolfy87
    Hi there. I have been writing a JavaScript library for a few weeks now and it works brilliantly in Firefox, Chrome and Safari. I had not tested it in IE until recently. I do not own a Windows box so after testing it on my friends and realising it wasnt working I started going over my code for things that could be causing it to break. So far I have found nothing. I could not find any descriptions of the errors in the browser while I was there either. So I wondered if anyone could run my test script in an IE browser (6, 7 or 8) and let me know any information they can find as to why it crashed. Please ignore any information saying it works in IE6, I put that up there after testing it through http://ipinfo.info/netrenderer/ I just assumed it was working because I could set transparency and size via my script and see it run in this tool. Here is the link to my GitHub repository: https://github.com/Wolfy87/Spark If you download it and run spark.html it will attempt to run all of my functions from the library. So if anyone could be kind enough to run it in IE and either let me know what errors they are getting and possibly how to fix them then I will be extreamly grateful. Thank you in advance. EDIT: Here is it's website http://sparkjs.co.uk/

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  • Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

    - by Dan Tao
    I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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  • R Random Data Sets within loops

    - by jugossery
    Here is what I want to do: I have a time series data frame with let us say 100 time-series of length 600 - each in one column of the data frame. I want to pick up 4 of the time-series randomly and then assign them random weights that sum up to one (ie 0.1, 0.5, 0.3, 0.1). Using those I want to compute the mean of the sum of the 4 weighted time series variables (e.g. convex combination). I want to do this let us say 100k times and store each result in the form ts1.name, ts2.name, ts3.name, ts4.name, weight1, weight2, weight3, weight4, mean so that I get a 9*100k df. I tried some things already but R is very bad with loops and I know vector oriented solutions are better because of R design. Thanks Here is what I did and I know it is horrible The df is in the form v1,v2,v2.....v100 1,5,6,.......9 2,4,6,.......10 3,5,8,.......6 2,2,8,.......2 etc e=NULL for (x in 1:100000) { s=sample(1:100,4)#pick 4 variables randomly a=sample(seq(0,1,0.01),1) b=sample(seq(0,1-a,0.01),1) c=sample(seq(0,(1-a-b),0.01),1) d=1-a-b-c e=c(a,b,c,d)#4 random weights average=mean(timeseries.df[,s]%*%t(e)) e=rbind(e,s,average)#in the end i get the 9*100k df } The procedure runs way to slow. EDIT: Thanks for the help i had,i am not used to think R and i am not very used to translate every problem into a matrix algebra equation which is what you need in R. Then the problem becomes a little bit complex if i want to calculate the standard deviation. i need the covariance matrix and i am not sure i can if/how i can pick random elements for each sample from the original timeseries.df covariance matrix then compute the sample variance (t(sampleweights)%*%sample_cov.mat%*%sampleweights) to get in the end the ts.weighted_standard_dev matrix Last question what is the best way to proceed if i want to bootstrap the original df x times and then apply the same computations to test the robustness of my datas thanks

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  • Grouping by date, with 0 when count() yields no lines

    - by SCO
    I'm using Postgresql 9 and I'm fighting with counting and grouping when no lines are counted. Let's assume the following schema : create table views { date_event timestamp with time zone ; event_id integer; } Let's imagine the following content : 2012-01-01 00:00:05 2 2012-01-01 01:00:05 5 2012-01-01 03:00:05 8 2012-01-01 03:00:15 20 I want to group by hour, and count the number of lines. I wish I could retrieve the following : 2012-01-01 00:00:00 1 2012-01-01 01:00:00 1 2012-01-01 02:00:00 0 2012-01-01 03:00:00 2 2012-01-01 04:00:00 0 2012-01-01 05:00:00 0 . . 2012-01-07 23:00:00 0 I mean that for each time range slot, I count the number of lines in my table whose date correspond, otherwise, I return a line with a count at zero. The following will definitely not work (will yeld only lines with counted lines 0). SELECT extract ( hour from date_event ),count(*) FROM views where date_event > '2012-01-01' and date_event <'2012-01-07' GROUP BY extract ( hour from date_event ); Please note I might also need to group by minute, or by hour, or by day, or by month, or by year (multiple queries is possible of course). I can only use plain old sql, and since my views table can be very big (100M records), I try to keep performance in mind. How can this be achieved ? Thank you !

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  • How to break out from nested doseqs

    - by fizbin
    Hi, I have a question regarding nested doseq loops. In the start function, once I find an answer I set the atom to true, so that the outer loop validation with :while fails. However it seems that it doesn't break it, and the loops keep on going. What's wrong with it? I am also quite confused with the usage of atoms, refs, agents (Why do they have different names for the update functions when then the mechanism is almost the same?) etc. Is it okay to use an atom in this situation as a flag? Obviously I need a a variable like object to store a state. (def pentagonal-list (map (fn [a] (/ (* a (dec (* 3 a))) 2)) (iterate inc 1))) (def found (atom false)) (defn pentagonal? [a] (let [y (/ (inc (Math/sqrt (inc (* 24 a)))) 6) x (mod (* 10 y) 10)] (if (zero? x) true false))) (defn both-pent? [a b] (let [sum (+ b a) diff (- a b)] (if (and (pentagonal? sum) (pentagonal? diff)) true false))) (defn start [] (doseq [x pentagonal-list :while (false? @found)] (doseq [y pentagonal-list :while (<= y x)] (if (both-pent? x y) (do (reset! found true) (println (- x y)))))))

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  • How can you pass an object from the form_for helper to a method?

    - by Alex
    So let's say I have a form which is being sent somewhere strange (and by strange we mean, NOT the default route: <% form_for @form_object, :url => {:controller => 'application', :action => 'form_action_thing'} do |f| %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= submit_tag 'Login' %> <% end %> Now let's say that we have the method that accepts it. def form_action_thing User.find(????? :email ?????) end My questions are thus: How does can I make the object @form_object available to the receiving method (in this case, form_action_tag)? I've tried params[:form_object], and I've scoured this site and the API, which I have to post below because SO doesn't believe I'm not a spammer (I'm a new member), as well as Googled as many permutations of this idea as I could think of. Nothing. Sorry if I missed something, i'm really trying. How do I address the object, once I've made it accessible to the method? Not params[:form_object], I'm guessing.

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  • Reading and writing to files simultaneously?

    - by vipersnake005
    Moved the question here. Suppose, I want to store 1,000,000,000 integers and cannot use my memory. I would use a file(which can easily handle so much data ). How can I let it read and write and the same time. Using fstream file("file.txt', ios::out | ios::in ); doesn't create a file, in the first place. But supposing the file exists, I am unable to use to do reading and writing simultaneously. WHat I mean is this : Let the contents of the file be 111111 Then if I run : - #include <fstream> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { fstream file("file.txt",ios:in|ios::out); char x; while( file>>x) { file<<'0'; } return 0; } Shouldn't the file's contents now be 101010 ? Read one character and then overwrite the next one with 0 ? Or incase the entire contents were read at once into some buffer, should there not be atleast one 0 in the file ? 1111110 ? But the contents remain unaltered. Please explain. Thank you.

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  • Effective simulation of compound poisson process in Matlab

    - by Henrik
    I need to simulate a huge bunch of compound poisson processes in Matlab on a very fine grid so I am looking to do it most effectively. I need to do a lot of simulations on the same random numbers but with parameters changing so it is practical to draw the uniforms and normals beforehand even though it means i have to draw a lot more than i will probably need and won't matter much because it will only need to be done once compared to in the order 500*n repl times the actual compound process generation. My method is the following: Let T be for how long i need to simulate and N the grid points, then my grid is: t=linspace(1,T,N); Let nrepl be the number of processes i need then I simulate P=poissrnd(lambda,nrepl,1); % Number of jumps for each replication U=(T-1)*rand(10000,nrepl)+1; % Set of uniforms on (1,T) for jump times N=randn(10000,nrepl); % Set of normals for jump size Then for replication j: Poiss=P(j); % Jumps for replication Uni=U(1:Poiss,j);% Jump times Norm=mu+sigma*N(1:Poiss,j);% Jump sizes Then this I guess is where I need your advice, I use this one-liner but it seems very slow: CPP_norm=sum(bsxfun(@times,bsxfun(@gt,t,Uni),Norm),1); In the inner for each jump it creates a series of same length as t with 0 until jump and then 1 after, multiplying this will create a grid with zeroes until jump has arrived and then the jump size and finally adding all these will produce the entire jump process on the grid. How can this be done more effectively? Thank you very much.

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  • What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

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