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  • .NET XmlSerializer fails with List<T>

    - by Redshirt
    I'm using a singleton class to save all my settings info. It's first utilized by calling Settings.ValidateSettings(@"C:\MyApp"). The problem I'm having is that 'List Contacts' is causing the xmlserializer to fail to write the settings file, or to load said settings. If I comment out the List<T> then I have no problems saving/loading the xml file. What am I doing wrong? // The actual settings to save public class MyAppSettings { public bool FirstLoad { get; set; } public string VehicleFolderName { get; set; } public string ContactFolderName { get; set; } public List<ContactInfo> Contacts { get { if (contacts == null) contacts = new List<ContactInfo>(); return contacts; } set { contacts = value; } } private List<ContactInfo> contacts; } // The class in which the settings are manipulated public static class Settings { public static string SettingPath; private static MyAppSettings instance; public static MyAppSettings Instance { get { if (instance == null) instance = new MyAppSettings(); return instance; } set { instance = value; } } public static void InitializeSettings(string path) { SettingPath = Path.GetFullPath(path + "\\MyApp.xml"); if (File.Exists(SettingPath)) { LoadSettings(); } else { Instance.FirstLoad = true; Instance.VehicleFolderName = "Cars"; Instance.ContactFolderName = "Contacts"; SaveSettingsFile(); } } // load the settings from the xml file private static void LoadSettings() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextReader reader = new StreamReader(SettingPath); Instance = (MyAppSettings)ser.Deserialize(reader); reader.Close(); } // Save the settings to the xml file public static void SaveSettingsFile() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(SettingPath); ser.Serialize(writer, Settings.Instance); writer.Close(); } public static bool ValidateSettings(string initialFolder) { try { Settings.InitializeSettings(initialFolder); } catch (Exception e) { return false; } // Do some validation logic here return true; } } // A utility class to contain each contact detail public class ContactInfo { public string ContactID; public string Name; public string PhoneNumber; public string Details; public bool Active; public int SortOrder; }

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  • Methodology to understanding JQuery plugin & API's developed by third parties

    - by Taoist
    I have a question about third party created JQuery plug ins and API's and the methodology for understanding them. Recently I downloaded the JQuery Masonry/Infinite scroll plug in and I couldn't figure out how to configure it based on the instructions. So I downloaded a fully developed demo, then manually deleted everything that wouldn't break the functionality. The code that was left allowed me to understand the plug in much greater detail than the documentation. I'm now having a similar issue with a plug in called JQuery knob. http://anthonyterrien.com/knob/ If you look at the JQuery Knob readme file it says this is working code: <input type="text" value="75" class="dial"> $(function() { $('.dial') .trigger( 'configure', { "min":10, "max":40, "fgColor":"#FF0000", "skin":"tron", "cursor":true } ); }); But as far as I can tell it isn't at all. The read me also says the Plug in uses Canvas. I am wondering if I am suppose to wrap this code in a canvas context or if this functionality is already part of the plug in. I know this kind of "question" might not fit in here but I'm a bit confused on the assumptions around reading these kinds of documentation and thought I would post the query regardless. Curious to see if this is due to my "newbi" programming experience or if this is something seasoned coders also fight with. Thank you. Edit In response to Tyanna's reply. I modified the code and it still doesn't work. I posted it below. I made sure that I checked the Google Console to insure the basics were taken care of, such as not getting a read-error on the library. <!DOCTYPE html> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>knob</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.7.2/themes/hot-sneaks/jquery-ui.css" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.2/jquery.js" charset="utf-8"></script> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.21/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.knob.js"></script> <div id="button1">test </div> <script> $(function() { $("#button1").click(function () { $('.dial').trigger( 'configure', { "min":10, "max":40, "fgColor":"#FF0000", "skin":"tron", "cursor":true } ); }); }); </script>

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  • Clicking the TableView leads you to the another View

    - by lakesh
    I am a newbie to iPhone development. I have already created an UITableView. I have wired everything up and included the delegate and datasource. However, instead of adding a detail view accessory by using UITableViewCellAccessoryDetailClosureButton, I would like to click the UITableViewCell and it should lead to another view with more details about the UITableViewCell. My view controller looks like this: ViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ViewController : UIViewController<UITableViewDataSource,UITableViewDelegate>{ NSArray *tableItems; NSArray *images; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSArray *tableItems; @property (nonatomic,retain) NSArray *images; @end ViewController.m #import "ViewController.h" #import <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize tableItems,images; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; tableItems = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Item1",@"Item2",@"Item3",nil]; images = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:[UIImage imageNamed:@"clock.png"],[UIImage imageNamed:@"eye.png"],[UIImage imageNamed:@"target.png"],nil]; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Dispose of any resources that can be recreated. } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section{ return tableItems.count; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath{ //Step 1:Check whether if we can reuse a cell UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"cell"]; //If there are no new cells to reuse,create a new one if(cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:(UITableViewCellStyleDefault) reuseIdentifier:@"cell"]; UIView *v = [[UIView alloc] init]; v.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; cell.selectedBackgroundView = v; //changing the radius of the corners //cell.layer.cornerRadius = 10; } //Set the image in the row cell.imageView.image = [images objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Step 3: Set the cell text content cell.textLabel.text = [tableItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Step 4: Return the row return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(UITableViewCell *)cell forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath{ cell.backgroundColor = [ UIColor greenColor]; } @end Need some guidance on this.. Thanks.. Please pardon me if this is a stupid question.

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  • Rails populate edit form for non-column attributes

    - by Rabbott
    I have the following form: <% form_for(@account, :url => admin_accounts_path) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= render :partial => 'form', :locals => {:f => f} %> <h2>Account Details</h2> <% f.fields_for :customer do |customer_fields| %> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :company %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :company %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :first_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :first_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :last_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :last_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :phone %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :phone %> </p> <% end %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> As well as attr_accessor :customer And I have a before_create method for the account model which does not store the customer_fields, but instead uses them to submit data to an API.. The only thing I store are in the form partial.. The problem I'm running into is that when a validation error gets thrown, the page renders the new action (expected) but none of the non-column attributes within the Account Detail form will show? Any ideas as to how I can change this code around a bit to make this work me?? This same solution may be the help I need for the edit form, I have a getter for the data which it asks the API for, but without place a :value = "asdf" within each text box, it doesn't populate the fields either..

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

    - by El Yobo
    I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

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  • Rendering problem with UITableview

    - by Spider-Paddy
    I have a very strange problem with a UITableview within a navigation controller on the iPhone simulator. Of the cells displayed, only some are correctly rendered. They are all supposed to look the same but the majority are missing the accessory I've set, scrolling the view changes which cell has the accessory so I suspect it's some sort of cell caching happening, although the contents are correct for each cell. I also set an image as the background and that was also only displaying sporadically but I fixed that by changing cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; (which also only rendered a random cell with the background) to cell.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; I now need to fix the problem with the accessory only showing on a random cell. I tried moving the code from cellForRowAtIndex to willDisplayCell but it made no difference. I put in a log command to confirm that it is running through each frame. Basically it's a table view (UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle) that gets its info from a server & is then updated by a delegate method calling reload. Code is: -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(UITableViewCell *)cell forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"%@", [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Setting colours for cell %i", indexPath.row]); // Set cell background // cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; cell.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; cell.textLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; cell.detailTextLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; // detailTableViewAccessory is a view containing an imageview in this view's nib // i.e. nib <- view <- imageview <- image cell.accessoryView = detailTableViewAccessory; } // Called by data fetching object when done -(void)listDataTransferComplete:(ArticleListParser *)articleListParserObject { NSLog(@"Data parsed, reloading detail table"); self.currentTotalResultPages = (((articleListParserObject.currentArticleCount - 1) / 10) + 1); self.detailTableDataSource = [articleListParserObject.returnedArray copy]; // make a local copy of the returned array // Render table again with returned array data (neither of these 2 fixed it) [self.detailTableView performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(reloadData) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; // [self.detailTableView reloadData]; // Re-enable necessary buttons (including table cells) letUserSelectRow = TRUE; [btnByName setEnabled:TRUE]; [btnByPrice setEnabled:TRUE]; // Remove please wait message NSLog(@"Removing please wait view"); [pleaseWaitViewControllerObject.view removeFromSuperview]; } I only included code that I thought was relevant, can supply more if needed. I can't test it on an iPhone yet so I don't know if it's maybe just a simulator anomaly or a bug in my code. I've always gotten good feedback from questions, any ideas?

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  • Why jQuery selector can't work but getElementById works in this scenario?

    - by Stallman
    Here is the HTML: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="jquery-1.7.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="access.js"></script> </head> <body> <button id="trigger"></button> <img id= "testElement" style= "position: absolute; border-color: white; top:340px; left:615px;" width="34px" height= "34px" /> </body> </html> And the access.js file is: $(document).ready( function(){ $('#trigger').click(function(){ $('#testElement').src="success.png"; //THIS WON'T WORK. document.getElementById('testElement').src= "success.png"; //BUT THIS WORKS. }); }); I know that if I use $, the return object is a jQuery object. It's not the same as getElementById. But why the jQuery selector can't work here? I need the jQuery object to make more operations like "append/style"... Thanks. UPDATE Too much correct answers appear at almost the same time... Please give more explanations to let me decide who I should give the credit, thanks!!! Sorry for my poor understanding of your correct answer... I just want more detail. Are all the attribute nodes(src/width/height...) not the property of jQuery object? So does the jQuery selector only select DOM Element Node like ? Thank you! 3. List item

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  • nodejs async.waterfall method

    - by user1513388
    Update 2 Complete code listing var request = require('request'); var cache = require('memory-cache'); var async = require('async'); var server = '172.16.221.190' var user = 'admin' var password ='Passw0rd' var dn ='\\VE\\Policy\\Objects' var jsonpayload = {"Username": user, "Password": password} async.waterfall([ //Get the API Key function(callback){ request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/authorize/', json: jsonpayload, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { callback(null, body.APIKey); }) }, //List the credential objects function(apikey, callback){ var jsonpayload2 = {"ObjectDN": dn, "Recursive": true} request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/Config/enumerate?apikey=' + apikey, json: jsonpayload2, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { var dns = []; for (var i = 0; i < body.Objects.length; i++) { dns.push({'name': body.Objects[i].Name, 'dn': body.Objects[i].DN}) } callback(null, dns, apikey); }) }, function(dns, apikey, callback){ // console.log(dns) var cb = []; for (var i = 0; i < dns.length; i++) { //Retrieve the credential var jsonpayload3 = {"CredentialPath": dns[i].dn, "Pattern": null, "Recursive": false} console.log(dns[i].dn) request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/credentials/retrieve?apikey=' + apikey, json: jsonpayload3, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { // console.log(body) cb.push({'cl': body.Classname}) callback(null, cb, apikey); console.log(cb) }); } } ], function (err, result) { // console.log(result) // result now equals 'done' }); Update: I'm building a small application that needs to make multiple HTTP calls to a an external API and amalgamates the results into a single object or array. e.g. Connect to endpoint and get auth key - pass auth key to step 2 Connect to endpoint using auth key and get JSON results - create an object containing summary results and pass to step 3. Iterate over passed object summary results and call API for each item in the object to get detailed information for each summary line Create a single JSON data structure that contains the summary and detail information. The original question below outlines what I've tried so far! Original Question: Will the async.waterfall method support multiple callbacks? i.e. Iterate over an array thats passed from a previous item in the chain, then invoke multiple http requests each of which would have their own callbacks. e.g, sync.waterfall([ function(dns, key, callback){ var cb = []; for (var i = 0; i < dns.length; i++) { //Retrieve the credential var jsonpayload3 = {"Cred": dns[i].DN, "Pattern": null, "Recursive": false} console.log(dns[i].DN) request.post({uri: 'http://' + vedserver +'/api/cred/retrieve?apikey=' + key, json: jsonpayload3, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { console.log(body) cb.push({'cl': body.Classname}) callback(null, cb, key); }); } }

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  • Techniques for querying a set of object in-memory in a Java application

    - by Edd Grant
    Hi All, We have a system which performs a 'coarse search' by invoking an interface on another system which returns a set of Java objects. Once we have received the search results I need to be able to further filter the resulting Java objects based on certain criteria describing the state of the attributes (e.g. from the initial objects return all objects where x.y z && a.b == c). The criteria used to filter the set of objects each time is partially user configurable, by this I mean that users will be able to select the values and ranges to match on but the attributes they can pick from will be a fixed set. The data sets are likely to contain <= 10,000 objects for each search. The search will be executed manually by the application user base probably no more than 2000 times a day (approx). It's probably worth mentioning that all the objects in the result set are known domain object classes which have Hibernate and JPA annotations describing their structure and relationship. Off the top of my head I can think of 3 ways of doing this: For each search persist the initial result set objects in our database, then use Hibernate to re-query them using the finer grained criteria. Use an in-memory Database (such as hsqldb?) to query and refine the initial result set. Write some custom code which iterates the initial result set and pulls out the desired records. Option 1 seems to involve a lot of toing and froing across a network to a physical Database (Oracle 10g) which might result in a lot of network and disk activity. It would also require the results from each search to be isolated from other result sets to ensure that different searches don't interfere with each other. Option 2 seems like a good idea in principle as it would allow me to do the finer query in memory and would not require the persistence of result data which would only be discarded after the search was complete. Gut feeling is that this could be pretty performant too but might result in larger memory overheads (which is fine as we can be pretty flexible on the amount of memory our JVM gets). Option 3 could be very performant but is something I would like to avoid as any code we write would require such careful testing that the time taken to acheive something flexible and robust enough would probably be prohibitive. I don't have time to prototype all 3 ideas so I am looking for comments people may have on the 3 options above, plus any further ideas I have not considered, to help me decide which idea might be most suitable. I'm currently leaning toward option 2 (in memory database) so would be keen to hear from people with experience of querying POJOs in memory too. Hopefully I have described the situation in enough detail but don't hesitate to ask if any further information is required to better understand the scenario. Cheers, Edd

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

    - by steve.tse
    I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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  • why is that we always get an extra column show in datagrid

    - by prince23
    hi, i have four columns specfied but why is that i always see one extra column shown in the output this is my xaml code <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White" Height="492" Width="453"> <sdk:DataGrid MinHeight="100" x:Name="dgCounty" AutoGenerateColumns="False" VerticalAlignment="Top" Grid.Row="1" IsReadOnly="True" Margin="5,5,5,0" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgCounty_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" SelectionMode="Extended" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="myButton" Width="24" Height="24" Click="Details_Click"> <Image x:Name="img" Source="Images/detail.JPG" Stretch="None"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="ID"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeID}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Name"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeFName}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="MailID"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeMailID}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> is there any setting that we need to do to remove that extra column? thanks in advance for the help.

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  • Using PHP5s SOAP Client to send data to an ASP/.NET based SOAP server.

    - by user325143
    I am trying to write a snippet of PHP to connect to a third party's API via SOAP to enter some data into their database. The API requires me to pass several mandatory fields for every call (username, password, companyid, entitytype) in addition to the mandatory data fields. It also requires me to call the "ValidateEntity" funciton before calling the "CreateEntity" function. Documentation can be found here: http://wiki.agemni.com/Getting_Started/APIs/Database_API I have never worked with SOAP before, so I am very new to this. Here is what I have so far: error_reporting(E_ALL); ini_set('display_errors', '1'); $client = new SoapClient("http://agemni.com/AgemniWebservices/service1.asmx?WSDL", array('trace'=> true)); $options = array( 'username' => "myuser", 'password' => "mypassword", 'companyid' => myID, 'entitytype' => 2 ); $params = array( 'fname' => "John", 'lname' => "Doe", 'phone' => "859-333-3333", 'zip' => "40332", 'area id' => "12345", 'lead id' => "28222", 'contactdate' => "4/10/2010" ); $validate = $client->__soapCall("ValidateEntity", array($params), array($options)); $client->__soapCall("CreateEntity", array($params), array($options)); echo "<pre>"; var_dump($client-> __getLastRequestHeaders()); var_dump($client-> __getLastRequest()); var_dump($client-> __getLastResponseHeaders()); var_dump($client-> __getLastResponse()); var_dump($result); echo "</pre>"; Upon executing this code, I get the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught SoapFault exception: [Client] SOAP-ERROR: Encoding: object hasn't 'objecttype' property in /www/tmp/index-soap.php:24 Stack trace: #0 /www/tmp/index-soap.php(24): SoapClient->__soapCall('ValidateEntity', Array) #1 {main} thrown in /www/stealth/tmp/index-soap.php on line 24 I guess my question is.. am I even going about doing this the right way? I know this is a very broad question, but I appreciate any advice you can give me about making this work. Please let me know if you require more detail. Thanks!

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  • Should an object be fully complete before injected as a dependency?

    - by Hans
    This is an extension of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3027082/understanding-how-to-inject-object-dependencies. Since it is a bit different, I wanted to separate them, to make it, hopefully, easier to answer. Also, this is not a real system, just a simplified example that I thought we'd all be familiar with. TIA. : DB threads: thread_id, thread_name, etc posts: post_id, thread_id, post_name, post_contents, post_date, post_user_id, etc Overview Basically I'm looking at the most maintainable way to load $post_id and have it cascade and load the other things I want to know about and I'm trying to keep the controller skinny. BUT: I'm ending up with too many dependencies to inject I'm passing in initialized but empty objects I want to limit how many parameters I am passing around I could inject $post(-many) into $thread(one<-), but on that page I'm not looking at a thread, I'm looking at a post I could combine/inject them into a new object Detail If I am injecting an object into another, is it best to have it fully created first? I'm trying to limit how many parameters I have to pass in to a page, but I end up with a circle. // 1, empty object injected via constructor $thread = new Thread; $post = new Post($thread); // $thread is just an empty object $post->load($post_id); // I could now do something like $post->get('thread_id') to get everything I want in $post // 2, complete object injected via constructor $thread = new Thread; $thread->load($thread_id); // this page would have to have passed in a $thread_id, too $post = new Post($thread); // thread is a complete object, with the data I need, like thread name $post->load($post_id); // 3, inject $post into $thread, but this makes less sense to me, since I'm looking at a post page, not a thread page $post = new Post(); $post->load($post_id); $thread = new Thread($post); $thread->load(); // would load based on the $post->get('post_id') and combine. Now I have all the data I want, but it's non-intuitive to be heirarchially Thread->Post instead of Post-with-thread-info // Or, I could inject $post into $thread, but if I'm on a post page, // having an object with a top level of Thread instead of // Post-which-contains-thread-info, makes less sense to me. // to go with example 1 class post { public function __construct(&$thread) { $this->thread=$thread; } public function load($id) { // ... here I would load all the post data based on $id // now include the thread data $this->thread->load($this->get('thread_id')); return $this; } } // I don't want to do $thread = new Thread; $post = new Post; $post->load($post_id); $thread->load($post->get('post_id')); Or, I could create a new object and inject both $post and $thread into it, but then I have object with an increasing number of dependencies.

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  • Submitting form in php file accessed by Ajax?

    - by dronnoc
    Hi people, I am trying to figure out how to submit a form in a page being accessed by Ajax? here are some code snippets to help demonstrate what i am trying to say. HTML BODY - THIS IS WHAT THE USER WILL SEE. <html> <head> <script language="javascript" src="linktoajaxfile.js"> </head> <body onLoad="gotoPage(0)"> <div id="fillThis"> </div> </body> </html> AJAX FILE var xmlhttp function gotoPage(phase) { xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlhttp==null) { alert ("Your browser does not support AJAX!"); return; } var url="pageofstuffce.php"; url=url+"?stg="+phase; url=url+"&sid="+Math.random(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); } function stateChanged() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4) { document.getElementById("fillThis").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } function GetXmlHttpObject() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari return new XMLHttpRequest(); } if (window.ActiveXObject) { // code for IE6, IE5 return new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } return null; } PAGE OF DATA <?php $stage = $_GET['stg']; if($stage == 0) { echo '<a onClick="gotoPage(1)">click me</a>'; } elseif($stage == 1) { <form> <input type="text" name="name"> <input type="submit" name="submit"> </form> } elseif(somehow can reach here) { show data from form. } ?> Can anyone perhaps help me get past the form and display the data in the same page? Also, i have looked around, and i don't think anything around has what i need... correct me if i'm wrong though :) Thanks in advance, and i hope i didn't put in too much detail :) Dronnoc EDIT Forgot to mention what I've tried; I have tried submitting the form to itself (same file) and that destroyed the ajax link, and opened the page. i have also tried just having the button move the page onto another step, but the $_POST variable is empty... i am at a loss, so does anyone else have any ideas?

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  • My store returns no code id and breaks 404 error. Magento

    - by numerical25
    I know what the issue is but I dont know how to fix it. I just migrated my magento store locally and I guess possibly some data may have been lost when transferring the DB. the DB is very large. Anyhow, when I login to my admin page, I get a 404 error, page was not found. I debugged the issue and got down to the wire. The exception is thrown in Mage/Core/Model/App.php. Line 759 to be exacted. The following is a snippet. Mage/Core/Model/App.php if (empty($this->_stores[$id])) { $store = Mage::getModel('core/store'); /* @var $store Mage_Core_Model_Store */ if (is_numeric($id)) { $store->load($id); // THIS ID IS FROM Mage_Core_Model_App::ADMIN_STORE_ID and its empty which causes the error } elseif (is_string($id)) { $store->load($id, 'code'); } if (!$store->getCode()) { // RETURNS FALSE HERE BECAUSE NO ID Specified $this->throwStoreException(); } $this->_stores[$store->getStoreId()] = $store; $this->_stores[$store->getCode()] = $store; } The store returns null because $id is null so it therefore does not load any model which explains why it returns false when calling getCode() [EDIT] If you want clarification, please ask for more before voting my post down. Remember I am still trying to get help not get neglected. I am using Version 1.4.1.1. When I type in the URL for admin, I get a 404 page. I walked through the code thouroughly and found that the Model MAGE_CORE_MODEL_STORE::getCode(); Returns Null which triggers the exception. and ends the script. I do not have any other detail. I further troubleshooted the issue by checking the database and that is what the screen shot is. Showing that there is infact data in the Code Colunn. So my question is why is the Model returning a empty column when the column clearly has a value. What can I do to further troubleshoot and figure out why its not working [EDIT UPDATE NEW] I did some research. the reason its returning NULL is because the store ID is null being passed Mage::getStoreConfigFlag('web/secure/use_in_adminhtml', Mage_Core_Model_App::ADMIN_STORE_ID); // THIS IS THE ID being specified Mage_Core_Model_App::ADMIN_STORE_ID has no value in it, so this method throws the exception. Not sure why how to fix this.

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  • Mixing C and C++, raw pointers and (boost) shared pointers

    - by oompahloompah
    I am working in C++ with some legacy C code. I have a data structure that (during initialisation), makes a copy of the structure pointed to a ptr passed to its initialisation pointer. Here is a simplification of what I am trying to do - hopefully, no important detail has been lost in the "simplification": /* C code */ typedef struct MyData { double * elems; unsigned int len; }; int NEW_mydata(MyData* data, unsigned int len) { // no error checking data->elems = (double *)calloc(len, sizeof(double)); return 0; } typedef struct Foo { MyData data data_; }; void InitFoo(Foo * foo, const MyData * the_data) { //alloc mem etc ... then assign the STRUCTURE foo.data_ = *thedata ; } C++ code ------------- typedef boost::shared_ptr<MyData> MyDataPtr; typedef std::map<std::string, MyDataPtr> Datamap; class FooWrapper { public: FooWrapper(const std::string& key) { MyDataPtr mdp = dmap[key]; InitFoo(&m_foo, const_cast<MyData*>((*mdp.get()))); } ~FooWrapper(); double get_element(unsigned int index ) const { return m_foo.elems[index]; } private: // non copyable, non-assignable FooWrapper(const FooWrapper&); FooWrapper& operator= (const FooWrapper&); Foo m_foo; }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { MyData data1, data2; Datamap dmap; NEW_mydata(&data1, 10); data1->elems[0] = static_cast<double>(22/7); NEW_mydata(&data2, 42); data2->elems[0] = static_cast<double>(13/21); boost::shared_ptr d1(&data1), d2(&data2); dmap["data1"] = d1; dmap["data2"] = d2; FooWrapper fw("data1"); //expect 22/7, get something else (random number?) double ret fw.get_element(0); } Essentially, what I want to know is this: Is there any reason why the data retrieved from the map is different from the one stored in the map?

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  • XNA 4.0 draw a cube with DrawUserIndexedPrimitives method [on hold]

    - by Leggy7
    EDIT Since I read what Mark H suggested (thanks a lot, I found it very useful) I think my question can become clearer structured this way: Using XNA 4.0, I'm trying to draw a cube. Im using this method: GraphicsDevice.DrawUserIndexedPrimitives<VertexPositionColor>( PrimitiveType.LineList, primitiveList, 0, // vertex buffer offset to add to each element of the index buffer 8, // number of vertices in pointList lineListIndices, // the index buffer 0, // first index element to read 7 // number of primitives to draw ); I got the code sample from this page which simply draw a serie of triangles. I want to modify this code in order to draw a cube. I was able to slitghly move the camera so I can have the perception of solidity, I set the vertex array to contain the 8 points defining a cube. But I can't fully understand how many primitives I have to draw (last parameter) for each of PrimitiveType. So, I wasn't able to draw the cube (just some of the edges in a non-defined order). More in detail: to build the vertex index list, the sample used // Initialize an array of indices of type short. lineListIndices = new short[(points * 2) - 2]; // Populate the array with references to indices in the vertex buffer for (int i = 0; i < points - 1; i++) { lineListIndices[i * 2] = (short)(i); lineListIndices[(i * 2) + 1] = (short)(i + 1); } I'm ashamed to say I cannot do the same in the case of a cube. what has to be the size of the lineListIndices? how should I populate it? In which order? And how do these things change when I use a different PrimitiveType? In the code sample there are also another couple of calls which I cannot fully understand, which are: // Initialize the vertex buffer, allocating memory for each vertex. vertexBuffer = new VertexBuffer(graphics.GraphicsDevice, vertexDeclaration, points, BufferUsage.None); // Set the vertex buffer data to the array of vertices. vertexBuffer.SetData<VertexPositionColor>(pointList); and vertexDeclaration = new VertexDeclaration(new VertexElement[] { new VertexElement(0, VertexElementFormat.Vector3, VertexElementUsage.Position, 0), new VertexElement(12, VertexElementFormat.Color, VertexElementUsage.Color, 0) } ); that is, for VertexBuffer and VertexDeclaration I could not find and significant (monkey-like) guide. I reported them too because I think they could be involded in understanding things. I think I also have to understand something related to the order the vertexes are stored in the array. But actually I have no clue of what I should learn to have this function drawing a cube. So, if anybody could point me to the right direction, it wil be appreciated. Hope to have made myself clear this time

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  • Redmine with Apache 2 + Passenger nightmare --- site is up and available, but Redmine doesn't execute

    - by CptSupermrkt
    I was determined to figure this out myself, but I've been at it for a total of more than 10 hours, and I just can't figure this out. First, let me detail my environment (which I cannot change): Server version: Apache/2.2.15 (Unix) Ruby version: ruby 1.9.3p448 Rails version: Rails 4.0.1 Passenger version: Phusion Passenger version 4.0.5 Redmine version: 2.3.3 I have followed the Redmine instructions all the way through the test webserver to check that installation was successful with this command: ruby script/rails server webrick -e production The roadblock which I cannot overcome is getting Apache and Passenger to interpret and properly serve Redmine. I have searched pretty much every possible link within the first 10 pages or so of Google results. Everywhere I go I come across conflicting/contradicting/outdated information. We have a "weird" setup with Apache (which I inherited and cannot change). Redmine needs to be served through SSL, but Apache already has another website it's serving through SSL called Twiki. By "weird", what I mean is that our file structure is entirely different from all the tutorials out there on this version of Apache which have directories like "available-sites" and such. Here are the abbreviated versions of some of our config files: /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf (the global configuration file --- note that NO VirtualHost is defined here): ServerRoot "/etc/httpd" ... LoadModule passenger_module /usr/local/pkg/ruby/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/passenger-4.0.5/libout/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /usr/local/pkg/ruby/1.9.3-p448/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/passenger-4.0.5 PassengerDefaultRuby /usr/local/pkg/ruby/1.9.3-p448/bin/ruby Include conf.d/*.conf ... User apache Group apache ... DocumentRoot "/var/www/html" So just to clarify, the above httpd.conf file does NOT have a VirtualHost section. /etc/httpd/conf.d/ssl.conf (defines the VirtualHost for ssl): Listen 443 <VirtualHost _default_:443> SSLEngine on ... SSLCertificateFile /etc/pki/tls/certs/localhost.crt </VirtualHost> /etc/httpd/conf.d/twiki.conf (this works just fine --- note this does NOT define a VirtualHost): ScriptAlias /twiki/bin/ "/var/www/twiki/bin/" Alias /twiki/ "/var/www/twiki/" <Directory "/var/www/twiki/bin"> AllowOverride None Order Deny,Allow Deny from all AuthType Basic AuthName "our team" AuthBasicProvider ldap ...a lot of ldap and authorization stuff Options ExecCGI FollowSymLinks SetHandler cgi-script </Directory> /etc/httpd/conf.d/redmine.conf: Alias /redmine/ "/var/www/redmine/public/" <Directory "/var/www/redmine/public"> Options Indexes ExecCGI FollowSymLinks Order allow,deny Allow from all AllowOverride all </Directory> The amazing thing is that this doesn't completely NOT work: I can successfully open up https://someserver/redmine/ with SSL and the https://someserver/twiki/ site remains unaffected. This tells me that it IS possible to have two separate sites up with one SSL configuration, so I don't think that's the problem. The problem is is that it opens up to the file index. I can navigate around my Redmine file structure, but no code ever gets executed. For example, there is a file included with Redmine called dispatch.fcgi in the public folder. https://someserver/redmine/dispatch.fcgi opens, but just as plain text code in the browser. As I understand it, in the case of using Passenger, CGI and FastCGI stuff is irrelevant/unused.

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  • Unable to connect to OpenVPN server

    - by Incognito
    I'm trying to get a working setup of OpenVPN on my VM and authenticate into it from a client. I'm not sure but it looks to me like it's socket related, as it's not set to LISTEN, and localhost seems wrong. I've never set up VPN before. # netstat -tulpn | grep vpn Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name udp 0 0 127.0.0.1:1194 0.0.0.0:* 24059/openvpn I don't think this is set up correctly. Here's some detail into what I've done. I have a VPS from MediaTemple: These are my interfaces before starting openvpn: lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:39482 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:39482 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:3237452 (3.2 MB) TX bytes:3237452 (3.2 MB) venet0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:127.0.0.1 P-t-P:127.0.0.1 Bcast:0.0.0.0 Mask:255.255.255.255 UP BROADCAST POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:4885284 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:4679884 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:835278537 (835.2 MB) TX bytes:1989289617 (1.9 GB) venet0:0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:205.[redacted] P-t-P:205.186.148.82 Bcast:0.0.0.0 Mask:255.255.255.255 UP BROADCAST POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MTU:1500 Metric:1 I've followed this guide on setting up a basic server and getting a .p12 file, however, I was receiving an error that stated /dev/net/tun was missing, so I created it mkdir -p /dev/net mknod /dev/net/tun c 10 200 chmod 600 /dev/net/tun This resolved the error preventing the service from launching, however, I am unable to connect. On the server I've set up the myserver.conf file (as per the tutorial) to indicate local 127.0.0.1 (I've also attempted with the public IP address, perhaps I don't understand what they mean by local IP?). The server launches without error, this is what the log looks like when it starts: Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 OpenVPN 2.1.3 x86_64-pc-linux-gnu [SSL] [LZO2] [EPOLL] [PKCS11] [MH] [PF_INET6] [eurephia] built on Mar 11 2011 Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 IMPORTANT: OpenVPN's default port number is now 1194, based on an official port number assignment by IANA. OpenVPN 2.0-beta16 and earlier used 5000 as the default port. Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 NOTE: the current --script-security setting may allow this configuration to call user-defined scripts Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 /usr/bin/openssl-vulnkey -q -b 1024 -m <modulus omitted> Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 TUN/TAP device tun0 opened Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 /sbin/ifconfig tun0 10.8.0.1 pointopoint 10.8.0.2 mtu 1500 Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 GID set to openvpn Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 UID set to openvpn Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 UDPv4 link local (bound): [AF_INET]127.0.0.1:1194 Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 UDPv4 link remote: [undef] Sun Apr 1 17:21:27 2012 Initialization Sequence Completed This creates a tun0 interface that looks like this: tun0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:10.8.0.1 P-t-P:10.8.0.2 Mask:255.255.255.255 UP POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:100 RX bytes:0 (0.0 B) TX bytes:0 (0.0 B) And the netstat command still indicates the state is not set to LISTEN. On the client-side I've installed the p12 certs onto two devices (one is an android tablet, the other is an Ubuntu desktop). I don't see port 1194 as open either. Both clients install the cert files and then ask me for the L2TP secret (which was set on the file), but then they oddly ask me for a username and a password, which I don't know where I could possibly get those from. I attempted all of my logins, and some whacky guesses that were frantically pulling at straws. If there's any more information I could provide let me know.

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  • How to recover data files from xampp-windows to xampp-linux after crash?

    - by David Buehler
    My Windows box died after I developed a database in xampp on it; fortunately I have a backup of the entire F:/TestWeb/Xampp partition. Unfortunately, I did not do an Export (nor dump) of the "Lws2" database before the crash. I have replaced the defunct machine with one running Mint7 (based on Ubuntu 9.04 "Jaunty Jackalope") and installed xampp-linux into the /opt partition, so the new xampp now runs fine in /opt/lampp, and says all the elements are secured by passwords (which I just assigned during this installation.) I assumed that Xamp-Windows installed in November would migrate easily to xampp-linux installed iin February -- a bad assumption. It apparently would have been simple if I had known enough to do an Export or a Dump before the crash, but.... The backup was done to a Network Attached Storage drive, which is formatted as "vfat" so the backup does not carry with it any valid ownership permissions from MySql on NTFS. I now see from my backup that the old data resided in \TestWeb\Xampp\Mysql\Data\Lws2\ and consists of 7 ".frm" files which define my tables. The actual data -- I suppose a ".sql" file or files -- has disappeared, and I am resigning myself to two days of retyping it. But I do not wish to do the table layouts all over again. So I copied Data tree to /opt/lampp/Data -- PhpMyAdmin does not see it. So I copied Lws2 tree to /opt/lampp/Lws2 -- PhpMyAdmin does not see it. So I copied Data tree to /opt/lampp/var/mysql/Data -- PhpMyAdmin does not see it. So I copied Lws2 tree to /opt/lampp/var/mysql/Lws2 -- PhpMyAdmin does not see it. So I adjusted all the permissions to stop saying owner "nobody" to owner "root" and gave full permissions to all groups and to all others, with permissions percolating down, in all 4 trees. You guessed it -- PhpMyAdmin does not see any database named Lws2, only its 4 default ones. I double-checked the permissions and rebooted Linux and repeated the tests. At some point in that process I did see PhpMyAdmin showing "lws2(7)" but when I clicked on it I saw a "no table found" message. I have not been able to recreate that experience. Apparently there are some setup files for MySql and for PhpMyAdmin which need to be set up by running a wizard or two or by editing the files directly. I grepped the TestWeb tree and found an old "ldir = "C:TestWeb\Xampp\MySql\" and a "DataDir = C:TestWeb\Xampp\MySql\" in a .php file and in a .bat file, but I cannot find the corresponding config file names on the /opt partition/ -- so it looks as if these wizards have not been run to create them. What config files files does Linux use to setup MySql config files for PhpMyAdmin? What wizards do I need to run to point the MySql engine and the PhpMyAdmin at the folder /opt/lampp/data/ with its lws2 folder inside it? Or which files do I need to edit, with a sample of what it normally says under Linux? Incidentally, I remember I converted from MyISAM with its .MYD and .MYI files to InnoDB after entering only a small amount of the data -- and I do not know what file types to look for -- perhaps my data is still there but under another guise or in another place? Is it something as simple as linux needing to see "/data/" instead of /Data? I will check that out while waiting for a response. If anyone can point me to documentation that discusses this level of detail -- I will read it avidly! In any case, thanks for any clarification you can give on this thorny problem. wizdum

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  • All PHP sites stopped working on IIS7, internal server error 500

    - by TimothyP
    I installed multiple drupal 7 sites using the Web Platform Installer on Windows Server 2008. Until know they worked without any problems, but recently internal server error 500 started to show up (once every so many requests), now it happens for all requests to any of the php sites. There's not much detail to go on, and nothing changed between the time when it was working and now (well nothing I know of anyway) The log file is flooded with messages such as [09-Aug-2011 09:08:04] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:08:16] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:08:16] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:08:20] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:08:22] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:08:51] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:09:56] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:09:57] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:12:13] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:15:09] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:15:09] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:21:28] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 [09-Aug-2011 09:21:28] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 I have tried increasing the memory limit in php.ini as such: memory_limit = 512MB But that doesn't seem to solve the problem either. This is in the global php configuration in IIS When I looked at the sites one by one, I noticed that PHP seemed to have been disabled. PHP is not enabled. Register new PHP version to enable PHP via FastCGI So I tried to register the php version again C:\Program Files\PHP\v5.3\php-cgi.exe But when I try to apply the changes I get There was an error while performing this operation Details: Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object There doesn't seem to be any other information than that. I have no idea why all of a sudden php isn't available for the sites anymore. PS: I have rebooted IIS, the server, etc... This server is hosted on amazon S3, so I gave the server some more power Update These seem to be two different issues I used memory_limit=128MB instead of memory_limit=128M Notice the "M" instead of "MB" A memory_limit of 128M was not enough, had to increase it to 512M The first issue caused internal server errors for every request. Increasing to 512MB seemed to have solved the problem for a little while, but after a while the server errors return. Note that the PHP manager inside of IIS still shows there is no PHP available for the sites (the global config does see it as available) So the problem remains unsolved

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  • synchronization of file locations between two machines

    - by intuited
    Although similar threads have been asked on this site and its siblings before, I've not managed to glean the answer to this persistent question. Any help is much appreciated. The situation: I've got two laptops; both contain a ton of music. Sometimes I move these music files to different locations, or change the metadata in them, or convert them to a different format. I might do any of these things on either machine. I rarely do all of them at once — ie it's unlikely that I'll convert a file's format and move it to a different location all in one go. I'd like to be able to synchronize these changes without having to sift through everything that was renamed or moved. I'm familiar with rsync but I find it inadequate, because although it can compute checksums, it doesn't have any way to store them. So if a file differs, it can't figure out which side it changed on. This also means that it can't attempt to match a missing file to a new one with the same checksum (ie a move) if the filesize and date are the same, it , so it takes an epoch to do a sync on a large repository. I would like to only check the checksum if the files even if you turn on checksumming, it still doesn't use it intelligently: ie it checksums files even if the sizes differ. IIRC. it's not able to use file metadata as a means of file comparison. this is sort of a wishlist item but it seems doable. I've also looked into rsnapshot, but its requirement to create a full backup is impractical in this situation. I don't need a backup, I just need a record of what file with each hash was where when. Unison seems like it might be able to do something vaguely along these lines, but I'm loathe to spend hours wading through its details only to discover that it's sadly lacking. Plus, it's fun asking questions on here. What I'd like is a tool that does something along these lines: keeps track of file checksums or of actual renames, possibly using inotify to greatly reduce resource consumption/latency stores a database containing this info, along with other pertinencies like the file format and metadata, the actual inode, the filename history, etc. uses this info to provide more-intelligent synchronization with a counterpart on the other side. So for example: if a file has been converted from flac to ogg, but kept the same base filename, or the same metadata, it should be able to send the new version over, and the other side should delete the original. Probably it should actually sequester it somewhere in case they or you screwed up, but that's a detail. And then when the transaction is done, the state is logged so that the next time the two interact they can work out their differences. Maybe all this metadata stuff is a fancy pipe dream. I would actually be pretty happy if there was something out there that could just use checksums in an intelligent way. This would be sort of like having the intelligence of something like git, minus the need to duplicate data in an index/backup/etc (and branching, and checkouts, and all the other great stuff that RCSs do. basically just fast forward commit pushes are all I want, with maybe the option to roll back.) So is there something out there that can do this? If not, can someone suggest a good way to start making it?

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  • php-fpm + persistent sockets = 502 bad gateway

    - by leeoniya
    Put on your reading glasses - this will be a long-ish one. First, what I'm doing. I'm building a web-app interface for some particularly slow tcp devices. Opening a socket to them takes 200ms and an fwrite/fread cycle takes another 300ms. To reduce the need for both of these actions on each request, I'm opening a persistent tcp socket which reduces the response time by the aforementioned 200ms. I was hoping PHP-FPM would share the persistent connections between requests from different clients (and indeed it does!), but there are some issues which I havent been able to resolve after 2 days of interneting, reading logs and modifying settings. I have somewhat narrowed it down though. Setup: Ubuntu 13.04 x64 Server (fully updated) on Linode PHP 5.5.0-6~raring+1 (fpm-fcgi) nginx/1.5.2 Relevent config: nginx worker_processes 4; php-fpm/pool.d pm = dynamic pm.max_children = 2 pm.start_servers = 2 pm.min_spare_servers = 2 Let's go from coarse to fine detail of what happens. After a fresh start I have 4x nginx processes and 2x php5-fpm processes waiting to handle requests. Then I send requests every couple seconds to the script. The first take a while to open the socket connection and returns with the data in about 500ms, the second returns data in 300ms (yay it's re-using the socket), the third also succeeds in about 300ms, the fourth request = 502 Bad Gateway, same with the 5th. Sixth request once again returns data, except now it took 500ms again. The process repeats for several cycles after which every 4 requests result in 2x 502 Bad Gateways and 2x 500ms Data responses. If I double all the fpm pool values and have 4x php-fpm processes running, the cycles settles in with 4x successful 500ms responses followed by 4x Bad Gateway errors. If I don't use persistent sockets, this issue goes away but then every request is 500ms. What I suspect is happening is the persistent socket keeps each php-fpm process from idling and ties it up, so the next one gets chosen until none are left and as they error out, maybe they are restarted and become available on the next round-robin loop ut the socket dies with the process. I haven't yet checked the 'slowlog', but the nginx error log shows lots of this: *188 recv() failed (104: Connection reset by peer) while reading response header from upstream, client:... All the suggestions on the internet regarding fixing nginx/php-fpm/502 bad gateway relate to high load or fcgi_pass misconfiguration. This is not the case here. Increasing buffers/sizes, changing timeouts, switching from unix socket to tcp socket for fcgi_pass, upping connection limits on the system....none of this stuff applies here. I've had some other success with setting pm = ondemand rather than dynamic, but as soon as the initial fpm-process gets killed off after idling, the persistent socket is gone for all subsequent php-fpm spawns. For the php script, I'm using stream_socket_client() with a STREAM_CLIENT_PERSISTENT flag. A while/stream_select() loop to detect socket data and fread($sock, 4096) to grab the data. I don't call fclose() obviously. If anyone has some additional questions or advice on how to get a persistent socket without tying up the php-fpm processes beyond the request completion, or maybe some other things to try, I'd appreciate it. some useful links: Nginx + php-fpm - recv() error Nginx + php-fpm "504 Gateway Time-out" error with almost zero load (on a test-server) Nginx + PHP-FPM "error 104 Connection reset by peer" causes occasional duplicate posts http://www.linuxquestions.org/questions/programming-9/php-pfsockopen-552084/ http://stackoverflow.com/questions/14268018/concurrent-use-of-a-persistent-php-socket http://devzone.zend.com/303/extension-writing-part-i-introduction-to-php-and-zend/#Heading3 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/242316/how-to-keep-a-php-stream-socket-alive http://php.net/manual/en/install.fpm.configuration.php https://www.google.com/search?q=recv%28%29+failed+%28104:+Connection+reset+by+peer%29+while+reading+response+header+from+upstream+%22502%22&ei=mC1XUrm7F4WQyAHbv4H4AQ&start=10&sa=N&biw=1920&bih=953&dpr=1

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