Search Results

Search found 97790 results on 3912 pages for 'one stuck pixel'.

Page 106/3912 | < Previous Page | 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113  | Next Page >

  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

    Read the article

  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

    Read the article

  • Packing an exe + dll into one executable (not .NET)

    - by Bluebird75
    Hi, Is anybody aware of a program that can pack several DLL and a .EXE into one executable. I am not talking about .NET case here, I am talking about general DLLs, some of which I generate in C++, some of others are external DLL I have no control over. My specific case is a python program packaged with py2exe, where I would like to "hide" the other DLL by packing them. The question is general enough though. The things that had a look at: ILMerge: specific to .NET NETZ: specific to .NET UPX: does DLL compression but not multiple DLL + EXE packing FileJoiner: Almost got it. It can pack executable + anything into one exe but when opened, it will launch the default opener for every file that was packed. So, if the user user dlldepend installed, it will launch it (becaues that's the default dll opener). Maybe that's not possible ? Summary of the answers: DLL opening is managed by the OS, so packing DLL into executable means that at some point, they need to be extracted to a place where the OS can find them. No magic bullet. So, what I want is not possible. Unless... We change something in the OS. Thanks Conrad for pointing me to ThinInstall, which virtualise the application and the OS loading mechanism. With ThinInstall, it is possible to pack everything in one exe (DLL, registry settings, ...).

    Read the article

  • Excel - Combine multiple columns into one column

    - by Akib
    Hey everyone. I'm new to excel and VBA and I'm stuck at this problem. I have multiple lists that are in separate columns in excel. What I need to do is combine these columns of data into one big column. I do not care if there are duplicate entries, however I want it to skip row 1 of each column. ROW1| 1 2 3 ROW2| A D G ROW3| B E H ROW4| C F I should combine into A B C D E F G H I The first row of each column needs to be skipped.

    Read the article

  • Extract multiple values from one column in MySql

    - by Neil
    I've noticed that MySql has an extensive search capacity, allowing both wildcards and regular expressions. However, I'm in somewhat in a bind since I'm trying to extract multiple values from a single string in my select query. For example, if I had the text "<span>Test</span> this <span>query</span>", perhaps using regular expressions I could find and extract values "Test" or "query", but in my case, I have potentially n such strings to extract. And since I can't define n columns in my select statement, that means I'm stuck. Is there anyway I could have a list of values (ideally separated by commas) of any text contained with span tags? In other words, if I ran this query, I would get "Test,query" as the value of spanlist: select <insert logic here> as spanlist from HtmlPages ...

    Read the article

  • MySQL enters another value that the one given by PHP

    - by Tristan
    Hello, The big problem : mysql does not stores the information i told him to via PHP Example (this req is an echo just before the query) : INSERT INTO serveur (GSP_nom , IPserv, port, tickrate, membre, nomPays, finContrat, type, jeux, slot, ipClient, email) VALUES ( 'ckras', '88.191.88.57', '37060', '100' , '', 'Allemagne','20110519', '2', '4','99' ,'82.220.201.183','[email protected]'); But on the MySQL i have : 403 ckras 88.191.88.57 32767 100 Allemagne 20110519 1 2010-04-25 00:51:47 2 4 99 82.220.201.183 [email protected] port : 37060 (right value) //// 32767 (MySQL's drug?) Any help would be appreciated, i'm worse than stuck and i'm ** off PS: *There is no trigger on the mysql as far as i know / there is no controll on the port which means that nowhere i modify the "port" value and this script works for 80% of the time ( it seems that as soon as the users enters a port = 30000 it causes that bug), an user first reported to me this error today and the script was running since 3 months* Thanks

    Read the article

  • Incrementing value by one over a lot of rows

    - by Andy Gee
    Edit: I think the answer to my question lies in the ability to set user defined variables in MySQL through PHP - the answer by Multifarious has pointed me in this direction Currently I have a script to cycle over 10M records, it's very slow and it goes like this: I first get a block of 1000 results in an array similar to this: $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>46732, 'db_id'=>5532); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>12324, 'db_id'=>1234); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>45235, 'db_id'=>8345); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>75543, 'db_id'=>2562); I then cycle through them one by one and update the record $mult = count($matches)*2; foreach($matches as $m) { $rank++; $score = (($m[quality_rank] + $rank)/($mult))*100; $s = "UPDATE `packages_sorted` SET `price_rank` = '".$rank."', `deal_score` = '".$score."' WHERE `db_id` = '".$m[db_id]."' LIMIT 1"; } It seems like this is a very slow way of doing it but I can't find another way to increment the field price_rank by one each time. Can anyone suggest a better method. Note: Although I wouldn't usually store this kind of value in a database I really do need on this occasion for comparison search queries later on in the project. Any help would be kindly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • .net printing multiple reports in one document (architecture question)

    - by LawsonM
    I understand how to print a single document via the PrintDocument class. However, I want to print multiple reports in one document. Each "report" will consist of charts, tables, etc. I want to have two reports per page. I've studied the few examples I can find on how to combine multiple documents into one; however, they always seem to work by creating a collection of objects (e.g. customer or order) that are then iterated over and drawn in the OnPrintPage method. My problem and hence the "architecture" question is that I don't want to cache the objects required to produce the report since they are very large and memory intensive. I'd simply like the resulting "report". One thought I had was to print the report to a metafile, cache that instead in a "MultiplePrintDocument" class and then position those images appropriately two to a page in the OnPrintPage method. I think this would be a lot more efficient and scalable in my case. But I'm not a professional programmer and can't figure out if I'm barking up the wrong tree here. I think the Graphics.BeginContainer and Graphics.Save methods might be relevant, but can't figure out how to implement or if there is a better way. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • In MySql Stored Procedure updating more than one time

    - by Both FM
    In MySql UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=92 AND `ItemID`=28; It successfully update only one row , where inventoryID = 92 and itemID=28 , the following message displayed. 1 row(s) affected when I put this on stored procedure, as follow CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `Sample`(IN itemId INT, IN itemQnty DOUBLE, IN invID INT) BEGIN DECLARE crntQnty DOUBLE; DECLARE nwQnty DOUBLE; SET crntQnty=(SELECT `QuantityOnHand` FROM `item` WHERE id=itemId); SET nwQnty=itemQnty+crntQnty; UPDATE `item` SET `QuantityOnHand`=nwQnty WHERE `Id`=itemId; UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=invID AND `ItemID`=itemId; END$$ calling stored procedures CALL Sample(28,10,92) It update all the status = 1 in inventoryentry against InventoryID (i.e. 92) ignoring ItemID, instead of updating only one row. The following message displayed! 5 row(s) affected Why Stored procedure ignoring itemID in update statement ? or Why Stored procedure updating more than one time? But without Stored procedure it working fine.

    Read the article

  • Modeling many-to-one with constraints?

    - by Greg Beech
    I'm attempting to create a database model for movie classifications, where each movie could have a single classification from each of one of multiple rating systems (e.g. BBFC, MPAA). This is the current design, with all implied PKs and FKs: TABLE Movie ( MovieId INT ) TABLE ClassificationSystem ( ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE Classification ( ClassificationId INT, ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE MovieClassification ( MovieId INT, ClassificationId INT, Advice NVARCHAR(250) -- description of why the classification was given ) The problem is with the MovieClassification table whose constraints would allow multiple classifications from the same system, whereas it should ideally only permit either zero or one classifications from a given system. Is there any reasonable way to restructure this so that a movie having exactly zero or one classifications from any given system is enforced by database constraints, given the following requirements? Do not duplicate information that could be looked up (i.e. duplicating ClassificationSystemId in the MovieClassification table is not a good solution because this could get out of sync with the value in the Classification table) Remain extensible to multiple classification systems (i.e. a new classification system does not require any changes to the table structure)? Note also the Advice column - each mapping of a movie to a classification needs to have a textual description of why that classification was given to that movie. Any design would need to support this.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid notice in php when one of the conditions is not true

    - by user225269
    I've notice that when one of the two conditions in a php if statement is not true. You get an undefined index notice for the statement that is not true. And the result in my case is a distorted web page. For example, this code: <?php session_start(); if (!isset($_SESSION['loginAdmin']) && ($_SESSION['loginAdmin'] != '')) { header ("Location: loginam.php"); } else { include('head2.php'); } if (!isset($_SESSION['login']) && ($_SESSION['login'] != '')) { header ("Location: login.php"); } else { include('head3.php'); } ?> If one of the if statements is not true. The one that is not true will give you a notice that it is undefined. In my case it says that the session 'login' is not defined. If session 'LoginAdmin' is used. What can you recommend that I would do in order to avoid these undefined index notice.

    Read the article

  • Data confusion - Selecting data in one DataGridView based on selection in another

    - by Logan Young
    This probably isn't the best way to do what I want, but I can't think of anything else to try... NB: I'm using Visual Basic.NET My form has 2 DataGridView controls. One of these is bound to a DataSet, the other isn't visible - at least not until the user selects a uniqueidentifier cell in the 1st grid. When the user makes this selection, the 2nd grid will become visible and display the row from another with the same id as the one selected in the 1st grid. So, basically, I want to dynamically display data in one grid based on user selection in another grid. My code looks like this so far... Private Sub RulesGrid_CellClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles RulesGrid.CellClick Try FlagsGrid.Visible = True ''// MsgBox(RulesGrid.CurrentCell.Value.ToString()) Dim sql As String = "SELECT * FROM ctblMKA_Status_Flags " + _ "WHERE intStatusID = '" & RulesGrid.CurrentCell.Value & "'" DSFlags = GetDS(sql) DSFlags.DataSetName = "FlagsDataSet" FlagsGrid.DataSource = DSFlags ProgressBar.Visible = False Catch ex As Exception MsgBox(ex.ToString) End Try End Sub I feel like I'm missing something here... Any ideas anyone?

    Read the article

  • Overlaying one div over another, but not knowing the size of the div

    - by andyuk
    I'm trying to lay one div over another. This is really simple if you know the dimensions of the div. Solved here: How to overlay one div over another div So, here is my HTML: <div class="container"> <div class="overlay"></div> <div class="content"></div> </div> In my case, I don't know the exact dimensions of the "content" or "container" div. This is because I don't have control over any of the content in the div (we are making our app extensible for 3rd party developers). See my example on jsFiddle The overlay should cover the content entirely. Width 100% and Height 100%. However, this does not work because in my example I positioned the overlay absolutely. One solution is to use JavaScript to get the size of the content div and then set the size of the overlay. I don't like this solution much since if image sizes are not specified, you need to wait until images are loaded and recalculate the size of the div. Is there any way of solving this problem in CSS? 

    Read the article

  • On counting pairs of words that differ by one letter

    - by Quintofron
    Let us consider n words, each of length k. Those words consist of letters over an alphabet (whose cardinality is n) with defined order. The task is to derive an O(nk) algorithm to count the number of pairs of words that differ by one position (no matter which one exactly, as long as it's only a single position). For instance, in the following set of words (n = 5, k = 4): abcd, abdd, adcb, adcd, aecd there are 5 such pairs: (abcd, abdd), (abcd, adcd), (abcd, aecd), (adcb, adcd), (adcd, aecd). So far I've managed to find an algorithm that solves a slightly easier problem: counting the number of pairs of words that differ by one GIVEN position (i-th). In order to do this I swap the letter at the ith position with the last letter within each word, perform a Radix sort (ignoring the last position in each word - formerly the ith position), linearly detect words whose letters at the first 1 to k-1 positions are the same, eventually count the number of occurrences of each letter at the last (originally ith) position within each set of duplicates and calculate the desired pairs (the last part is simple). However, the algorithm above doesn't seem to be applicable to the main problem (under the O(nk) constraint) - at least not without some modifications. Any idea how to solve this?

    Read the article

  • Multiple Foreign keys to a single table and single key pointing to more than one table

    - by user1216775
    I need some suggestions from the database design experts here. I have around six foreign keys into a single table (defect) which all point to primary key in user table. It is like: defect (.....,assigned_to,created_by,updated_by,closed_by...) If I want to get information about the defect I can make six joins. Do we have any better way to do it? Another one is I have a states table which can store one of the user-defined set of values. I have defect table and task table and I want both of these tables to share the common state table (New, In Progress etc.). So I created: task (.....,state_id,type_id,.....) defect(.....,state_id,type_id,...) state(state_id,state_name,...) importance(imp_id,imp_name,...) There are many such common attributes along with state like importance(normal, urgent etc), priority etc. And for all of them I want to use same table. I am keeping one flag in each of the tables to differentiate task and defect. What is the best solution in such a case? If somebody is using this application in health domain, they would like to assign different types, states, importances for their defect or tasks. Moreover when a user selects any project I want to display all the types,states etc under configuration parameters section.

    Read the article

  • binding list variable one after another

    - by prince23
    hi, this is my class public class Users { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } public string Gender { get; set; } public string Country { get; set; } } i am defing an list variable List<Users> myList = new List<Users> i have four functions each one returing a string array {of data content like, names, age, gender, country} **functions names** FunNames(); FunAge(); Fungender(); Funcountry(); now i need to bind these these return values of all these functions into list one by one like. myList =FunNames(); myList =FunAge(); myList Fungender(); ..... hope my Question is clear. any help would be great thank you.

    Read the article

  • Update all but one result?

    - by Jack M.
    I'm trying to update a table to remove all but the first instance of a group. Basically, I have a table with vehicle data related to an insurance policy. Each policy should only have one power_unit. Everything else should be a towed unit. Unfortunately, a bug has been duplicating power units, and now I need to clean this up. There are ~10k records in the database, and ~4k of them have doubled up power units. The important bits of my table (call it test1 for now) are: +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(10) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | policy_id | int(10) | NO | | NULL | | | power_unit | int(1) | NO | | 0 | | +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ And some sample data: +----+-----------+------------+ | id | policy_id | power_unit | +----+-----------+------------+ | 1 | 1 | 1 | | 2 | 1 | 1 | | 3 | 1 | 1 | | 4 | 2 | 1 | | 5 | 2 | 1 | | 6 | 2 | 1 | | 7 | 4 | 1 | | 8 | 4 | 1 | | 9 | 4 | 1 | | 10 | 5 | 1 | | 11 | 5 | 1 | | 12 | 6 | 1 | +----+-----------+------------+ Basically I'd like to end up where policy_id 1 has only one power_unit=1. Same for policy_id 2, 3, 4, etc. For policy_id 6, nothing should change (there is only one entry, and it is a power_unit already). I don't know if this is possible, but it was an intriguing problem for me, so I thought you guys might find it the same.

    Read the article

  • Manage the scrolling of just one element in a ScrollView

    - by morgan1189
    So, I have a ScrollView which has cards on it. ScrollView must be paging enabled. The goal is that the user must be able to scroll it, even if it has only one card. Since i am having the frame of ScrollView of exactly the same width and height as a picture of a card, i decided to increase the width of a ScrollView.contentSize and add one point to it. It turns out to be working fine, but it glitches a bit - when i drag the card to the left, and then grab it again it moves to right a little bit (i guess, for the value of that one point). If i increase the contentSize, the shift increases too (for example, if the content size is increased by ten, the shift value is ten points too). It really irritates me a lot and I want to get rid of it. Any advice on how to do that? Help is much appreciated. UPD: I tried to manually re-center the card in the scrollViewDidEndDecelerating but that didn't help. My guess for now is that the problem can be solved by setting the content offset to the right value (because now it's (0,0)), but I can't figure out how to do it.

    Read the article

  • Where should I place my reaction code in Per-Pixel Collision Detection?

    - by CJ Cohorst
    I have this collision detection code: public bool PerPixelCollision(Player player, Game1 dog) { Matrix atob = player.Transform * Matrix.Invert(dog.Transform); Vector2 stepX = Vector2.TransformNormal(Vector2.UnitX, atob); Vector2 stepY = Vector2.TransformNormal(Vector2.UnitY, atob); Vector2 iBPos = Vector2.Transform(Vector2.Zero, atob); for(int deltax = 0; deltax < player.playerTexture.Width; deltax++) { Vector2 bpos = iBPos; for (int deltay = 0; deltay < player.playerTexture.Height; deltay++) { int bx = (int)bpos.X; int by = (int)bpos.Y; if (bx >= 0 && bx < dog.dogTexture.Width && by >= 0 && by < dog.dogTexture.Height) { if (player.TextureData[deltax + deltay * player.playerTexture.Width].A > 150 && dog.TextureData[bx + by * dog.Texture.Width].A > 150) { return true; } } bpos += stepY; } iBPos += stepX; } return false; } What I want to know is where to put in the code where something happens. For example, I want to put in player.playerPosition.X -= 200 just as a test, but I don't know where to put it. I tried putting it under the return true and above it, but under it, it said unreachable code, and above it nothing happened. I also tried putting it by bpos += stepY; but that didn't work either. Where do I put the code?

    Read the article

  • Html5: How to handle RGB pixel with commands from prompt ? (just a browser)

    - by Rocket Surgeon
    In the browser tools, say in debugging (any browser will do, but IE9 preferred) how can I access things like html5 canvas and modify individual pixels by typing commands from prompt ? I know, it is possible to accomplish in miriad normal ways with preparing the markup and loading the page, but what is the shortest path ? The browser is running with some content, then I hit F12-Console- what exactly should I type to cause a canvas to change ? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Dealing with 2D pixel shaders and SpriteBatches in XNA 4.0 component-object game engine?

    - by DaveStance
    I've got a bit of experience with shaders in general, having implemented a couple, very simple, 3D fragment and vertex shaders in OpenGL/WebGL in the past. Currently, I'm working on a 2D game engine in XNA 4.0 and I'm struggling with the process of integrating per-object and full-scene shaders in my current architecture. I'm using a component-entity design, wherein my "Entities" are merely collections of components that are acted upon by discreet system managers (SpatialProvider, SceneProvider, etc). In the context of this question, my draw call looks something like this: SceneProvider::Draw(GameTime) calls... ComponentManager::Draw(GameTime, SpriteBatch) which calls (on each drawable component) DrawnComponent::Draw(GameTime, SpriteBatch) The SpriteBatch is set up, with the default SpriteBatch shader, in the SceneProvider class just before it tells the ComponentManager to start rendering the scene. From my understanding, if a component needs to use a special shader to draw itself, it must do the following when it's Draw(GameTime, SpriteBatch) method is invoked: public void Draw(GameTime gameTime, SpriteBatch spriteBatch) { spriteBatch.End(); spriteBatch.Begin(SpriteSortMode.Immediate, BlendState.AlphaBlend, null, null, null, EffectShader, ViewMatrix); // Draw things here that are shaded by the "EffectShader." spriteBatch.End(); spriteBatch.Begin(/* same settings that were set by SceneProvider to ensure the rest of the scene is rendered normally */); } My question is, having been told that numerous calls to SpriteBatch.Begin() and SpriteBatch.End() within a single frame was terrible for performance, is there a better way to do this? Is there a way to instruct the currently running SpriteBatch to simply change the Effect shader it is using for this particular draw call and then switch it back before the function ends?

    Read the article

  • How do GameEngines stop Pixel Seams appearing in adjacent mesh boundaries due to FP imprecision?

    - by ufomorace
    Graphics cards are mathematically imprecise. So when some meshes are joined by their borders, the graphics card often makes mistakes and decides that some pixels at the seam represent neither object, and unwanted pixels appear. It's a natural behaviour on all graphics cards. How are such worries avoided in Pro Games? Batching? Shaders? Different tangent vectors? Merging? Overlaping seams? Dark backgrounds? Extra vertices at borders? Z precision? Camera distance tweaks? Screencap of a fix that ended up not working:

    Read the article

  • How can I draw crisp per-pixel images with OpenGL ES on Android?

    - by Qasim
    I have made many Android applications and games in Java before, however I am very new to OpenGL ES. Using guides online, I have made simple things in OpenGL ES, including a simple triangle and a cube. I would like to make a 2D game with OpenGL ES, but what I've been doing isn't working quite so well, as the images I draw aren't to scale, and no matter what guide I use, the image is always choppy and not the right size (I'm debugging on my Nexus S). How can I draw crisp, HD images to the screen with GL ES? Here is an example of what happens when I try to do it: And the actual image: Here is how my texture is created: //get id int id = -1; gl.glGenTextures(1, texture, 0); id = texture[0]; //get bitmap Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(context.getResources(), R.drawable.ball); //parameters gl.glBindTexture(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, id); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL10.GL_NEAREST); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL10.GL_LINEAR); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); gl.glTexEnvf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL10.GL_REPLACE); GLUtils.texImage2D(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, bitmap, 0); //crop image mCropWorkspace[0] = 0; mCropWorkspace[1] = height; mCropWorkspace[2] = width; mCropWorkspace[3] = -height; ((GL11) gl).glTexParameteriv(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL11Ext.GL_TEXTURE_CROP_RECT_OES, mCropWorkspace, 0);

    Read the article

  • How can I ease the work of getting pixel coordinates from a spritesheet?

    - by ThePlan
    When it comes to spritesheets they're usually easier to use, and they're very efficient memory-wise, but the problem that I'm always having is getting the actual position of a sprite from a sheet. Usually, I have to throw in some aproximated values and modify them several times until I get it right. My question: is there a tool which can basically show you the coordinates of the mouse relative to the image you have opened? Or is there a simpler method of getting the exact rectangle that the sprite is contained in?

    Read the article

  • How can I stop pixel seams appearing in adjacent mesh boundaries due to floating point imprecision?

    - by ufomorace
    Graphics cards are mathematically imprecise. So when some meshes are joined by their borders, the graphics card often makes mistakes and decides that some pixels at the seam represent neither object, and unwanted pixels appear. It's a natural behaviour on all graphics cards. How are such worries avoided in Pro Games? Batching? Shaders? Different tangent vectors? Merging? Overlaping seams? Dark backgrounds? Extra vertices at borders? Z precision? Camera distance tweaks? Screencap of a fix that ended up not working:

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113  | Next Page >