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• SSRS How to access the current value within a list control?

  - by Dale Burrell

  In SQL Server Reporting Services I have a report which has a list control which groups on currency. Within the list control I display the detailed rows of all records filtered to those with a value = £500. i.e. the top earners. However for each row I need to calculate the percentage of its amount over the total of the entire dataset. Because I am filtering it I can't use Sum(Fields!Amount.Value) as that only sums the data after filtering, so I am trying a conditional sum over the entire dataset, but am struggling with the correct condition e.g =100.00*Fields!Amount.Value/Sum((IIf(Fields!Currency.Value = "£", Fields!Amount.Value, CDec(0))),"DataSet") So where the hardcoded currency symbol is I need to access the current value of currency for the list control, but because my sum is scoped at dataset level any field access is dataset level. Ideally I'd like something like the following, otherwise any other ideas on how to solve this problem. =100.00*Fields!Amount.Value/Sum((IIf(Fields!Currency.Value = myListControl.Value, Fields!Amount.Value, CDec(0))),"DataSet") In fact, thinking about it, it would work if I just could access the row level data at that point, but how to do that when its at dataset scope within the sum statement? Hope that makes sense, any help appreciated.

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• XSLT, worth investing time in, any actual alternatives?

  - by Keeno

  I realise this has been a few other questions on this topic, and people are saying use your language of choice to manipulate the xml etc etc however, not quite fit my question exactly. Firstly, the scope of the project: We want to develop platform independant e-learning, currently, its a bunch of HTML pages but as they grow and develop they become hard to maintain. The idea: Generate up an XML file + Schema, then produce some XSLT files that process the XML into the eLearning modiles. XML to HTML via XSLT. Why: We would like the flexibily to be able to easy reformat the content (i realise CSS is a viable alternative here) If we decide to alter the pages layout or functionality in anyway, im guessing altering the "shared" XSLT files would be easier than updating the HTML files. So far, we have about 30 modules, with up to 10-30 pages each Depending on some "parameters" we could output drastically different page layouts/structures, above and beyond what CSS can do Now, all this has to be platform independant, and to be able to run "offline" i.e. without a server powering the HTML Negatives ive read so far for XSLT: Overheard? Not exactly sure why...is it the compute power need to convert to HTML? Difficult to learn Better alternatives Now, what I would like to know exactly is: are there actually any viable alternatives for this "offline"? Am I going about it in the correct manner, do you guys have any advice or alternatives. Thanks!

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• C++ Suppress Automatic Initialization and Destruction

  - by Travis G

  How does one suppress the automatic initialization and destruction of a type? While it is wonderful that T buffer[100] automatically initializes all the elements of buffer, and destroys them when they fall out of scope, this is not the behavior I want. #include <iostream> static int created = 0, destroyed = 0; struct S { S() { ++created; } ~S() { ++destroyed; } }; template <typename T, size_t KCount> class Array { private: T m_buffer[KCount]; public: Array() { // some way to suppress the automatic initialization of m_buffer } ~Array() { // some way to suppress the automatic destruction of m_buffer } }; int main() { { Array<S, 100> arr; } std::cout << "Created:\t" << created << std::endl; std::cout << "Destroyed:\t" << destroyed << std::endl; return 0; } The output of this program is: Created: 100 Destroyed: 100 I would like it to be: Created: 0 Destroyed: 0 My only idea is to make m_buffer some trivially constructed and destructed type like char and then rely on operator[] to wrap the pointer math for me, although this seems like a horribly hacked solution. Another solution would be to use malloc and free, but that gives a level of indirection that I do not want.

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• problem finding a header with a c++ makefile

  - by Max

  Hi. I've started working with my first makefile. I'm writing a roguelike in C++ using the libtcod library, and have the following hello world program to test if my environment's up and running: #include "libtcod.hpp" int main() { TCODConsole::initRoot(80, 50, "PartyHack"); TCODConsole::root->printCenter(40, 25, TCOD_BKGND_NONE, "Hello World"); TCODConsole::flush(); TCODConsole::waitForKeypress(true); } My project directory structure looks like this: /CppPartyHack ----/libtcod-1.5.1 # this is the libtcod root folder --------/include ------------libtcod.hpp ----/PartyHack --------makefile --------partyhack.cpp # the above code (while we're here, how do I do proper indentation? Using those dashes is silly.) and here's my makefile: SRCDIR = . INCDIR = ../libtcod-1.5.1/include CFLAGS = $(FLAGS) -I$(INCDIR) -I$(SRCDIR) -Wall CC = gcc CPP = g++ .SUFFIXES: .o .h .c .hpp .cpp $(TEMP)/%.o : $(SRCDIR)/%.cpp $(CPP) $(CFLAGS) -o $@ -c $< $(TEMP)/%.o : $(SRCDIR)/%.c $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -o $@ -c $< CPP_OBJS = $(TEMP)partyhack.o all : partyhack partyhack : $(CPP_OBJS) $(CPP) $(CPP_OBJS) -o $@ -L../libtcod-1.5.1 -ltcod -ltcod++ -Wl,-rpath,. clean : \rm -f $(CPP_OBJS) partyhack I'm using Ubuntu, and my terminal gives me the following errors: max@max-desktop:~/Desktop/Development/CppPartyhack/PartyHack$ make g++ -c -o partyhack.o partyhack.cpp partyhack.cpp:1:23: error: libtcod.hpp: No such file or directory partyhack.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: partyhack.cpp:5: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:6: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:6: error: ‘TCOD_BKGND_NONE’ was not declared in this scope partyhack.cpp:7: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:8: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared make: * [partyhack.o] Error 1 So obviously, the makefile can't find libtcod.hpp. I've double checked and I'm sure the relative path to libtcod.hpp in INCDIR is correct, but as I'm just starting out with makefiles, I'm uncertain what else could be wrong. My makefile is based off a template that the libtcod designers provided along with the library itself, and while I've looked at a few online makefile tutorials, the code in this makefile is a good bit more complicated than any of the examples the tutorials showed, so I'm assuming I screwed up something basic in the conversion. Thanks for any help.

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• How to get acts on taggable working

  - by Schipperius

  I am new to ruby on rails (and programming) and this is probably a really stupid question. I am using Rails 3.2 and trying to use acts_as_taggable_on to generate tags on articles and to have those tags show on article index and show pages as a clickable links. I have tags clickable on both the article show and index pages, but the links just go back to the index page and don't sort according to the tag name. I have scoured the Internet and pieced together the code below from various sources, but I am clearly missing something. Any help is greatly appreciated, as I have exhausted my seemingly limited knowledge! Thanks. Here is what I have: class ArticlesController < ApplicationController def tagged @articles = Article.all(:order => 'created_at DESC') @tags = Article.tag_counts_on(:tags) @tagged_articles = Article.tagged_with(params[:tags]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @articles } end end def index @article = Article.new @articles = Article.paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 3 @tags = Article.tag_counts_on(:tags) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @articles } end end module ArticlesHelper include ActsAsTaggableOn::TagsHelper end class Article < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_ordered_taggable acts_as_ordered_taggable_on :tags, :location, :about attr_accessible :tag_list scope :by_join_date, order("created_at DESC") end article/index.html.erb <% tag_cloud(@tags, %w(tag1 tag2 tag3 tag4)) do |tag| %> <%= link_to tag.name, articles_path(:id => tag.name) %> <% end %> article/show.html.erb <%= raw @article.tags.map { |tag| link_to tag.name, articles_path(:tag_id => tag) }.join(" | ") %>

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• When should EntityManagerFactory instance be created/opened ?

  - by masato-san

  Ok, I read bunch of articles/examples how to write Entity Manager Factory in singleton. One of them easiest for me to understand a bit: http://javanotepad.blogspot.com/2007/05/jpa-entitymanagerfactory-in-web.html I learned that EntityManagerFactory (EMF) should only be created once preferably in application scope. And also make sure to close the EMF once it's used (?) So I wrote EMF helper class for business methods to use: public class EmProvider { private static final String DB_PU = "KogaAlphaPU"; public static final boolean DEBUG = true; private static final EmProvider singleton = new EmProvider(); private EntityManagerFactory emf; private EmProvider() {} public static EmProvider getInstance() { return singleton; } public EntityManagerFactory getEntityManagerFactory() { if(emf == null) { emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(DB_PU); } if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("factory created on: " + new Date()); } return emf; } public void closeEmf() { if(emf.isOpen() || emf != null) { emf.close(); } emf = null; if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("EMF closed at: " + new Date()); } } }//end class And my method using EmProvider: public String foo() { EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getInstance().getEntityManagerFactory().createEntityManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(JPQL_JOIN); //just some random query out = query.getResultList(); } catch(Exception e) { //handle error.... } finally { if(em != null) { em.close(); //make sure to close EntityManager } } I made sure to close EntityManager (em) within method level as suggested. But when should EntityManagerFactory be closed then? And why EMF has to be singleton so bad??? I read about concurrency issues but as I am not experienced multi-thread-grammer, I can't really be clear on this idea.

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• Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

  - by Randy

  Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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• Structure map and generics (in XML config)

  - by James D

  Hi I'm using the latest StructureMap (2.5.4.264), and I need to define some instances in the xml configuration for StructureMap using generics. However I get the following 103 error: Unhandled Exception: StructureMap.Exceptions.StructureMapConfigurationException: StructureMap configuration failures: Error: 103 Source: Requested PluginType MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]] configured in Xml cannot be found Could not create a Type for 'MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]]' System.ApplicationException: Could not create a Type for 'MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]]' ---> System.TypeLoadException: Could not loa d type 'MyTest.ITest`1' from assembly 'StructureMap, Version=2.5.4.264, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=e60ad81abae3c223'. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle._GetTypeByName(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean loadTypeFromPartialName) at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.GetTypeByName(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& stackMark) at System.RuntimeType.PrivateGetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean reflectionOnly, StackCrawlMark& s tackMark) at System.Type.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError) at StructureMap.Graph.TypePath.FindType() --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at StructureMap.Graph.TypePath.FindType() at StructureMap.Configuration.GraphBuilder.ConfigureFamily(TypePath pluginTypePath, Action`1 action) A simply replication of the code is as follows: public interface ITest<T> { } public class Test { } public class Concrete : ITest<Test> { } Which I then wish to define in the XML configuration something as follows: <DefaultInstance PluginType="MyTest.ITest`1[[MyTest.Test,MyTest]],MyTest" PluggedType="MyTest.Concrete,MyTest" Scope="Singleton" /> I've been racking my brain, however I can't see what I'm doing wrong - I've used Type.GetType to verify the type actually is valid which it is. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks !

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• PHP Session variable isset(..)=1 after session_start()

  - by Nicsoft

  Hello! I guess I am not understanding the scope of session variables, or the session itself, in PHP, hence this question: This is my code if(!session_id()==""){ echo "Getting rid of session"."</br>"; session_destroy(); } echo "Before session_start(): ".isset($_SESSION["first_date_of_week"])."</br>"; session_start(); echo "After session_start(): ".isset($_SESSION["first_date_of_week"])." ".$_SESSION["first_date_of_week"]->format("Y-m-d")."</br>"; The output is: Before session_start(): After session_start(): 1 2011-01-09 How come that when doing the isset(..) on the session variable it is set directly after starting the session, even though I haven't even used it or set it yet? It does, however, still have the same value as before. Also, session_id()="" since the if-clause is never triggered. I never kill the session, how come it is set to ""? I.e. I refresh the page and expects the session to still be alive. Using the isset(..) function is then pretty useless testing if it has been set already... Thanks in advance! /Niklas

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• Entity Framework not populating context

  - by stimms

  I'm just starting out with some entity framework exploration, I figured it was time to see what everybody was complaining about. I am running into an issue where the entities don't seem to be returning any of the object context. I generated the model from a database with three tables which link to one another. Courses Instructors CanTeach Relationships are as you would expect: a course can relate to multiple CanTeach entities and an instructor can also relate to multiple CanTeach entities. I also added an OData service to my project which also makes use of the same model. So I can run queries like from a in CanTeach where a.Instructor.FirstName == "Barry" select new { Name = a.Instructor.FirstName + " " + a.Instructor.LastName, Course = a.Course.Name} without issue against the OData endpoint using LINQPad. However when I do a simple query like public Instructor GetInstructorFromID(int ID) { return context.Instructors.Where(i => i.ID == ID).FirstOrDefault(); } The CanTeach list is empty. I know everything in EF is lazy loaded and it is possible that my context is out of scope by the time I look at the object context, however even trying to get the object context as soon as the query is run results in and empty object context. What am I doing wrong?

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• Passing variable from main to Async class

  - by Bigflow

  Somehow, I can't get this done. This is all what I tried till now: Main: private String myState; public String getState() { return myState; } public void setState(String s) { myState = s; } Async: Main appState = ((Main)getApplicationContext()); String state = appState.getState(); Error: No enclosing instance of the type Main is accessible in scope Tried with Helper(Globals) class. public class Globals extends Application{ private String test= "1"; } Main: private Globals mGlobals; mGlobals = new Globals(); mGlobals.test = "2"; //Do Async thing Async: private Globals mGlobals; mGlobals = new Globals(); print mGlobals.test; // (result is 1, should be 2) Also something else, but don't remember good. Tried alot of things (backspace and del buttons are over-used :p ) But I can't get everything working. Async class doesn't have an activity. Code pasted: http://pastebin.com/ikcsdL1p

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• WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

  - by 7hi4g0

  Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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• In XSLT, how can you sort using an indirect key?

  - by edholder

  I am having trouble getting xsl:sort to understand the scope of the attributes I am referencing. Here is an XML sample document to illustrate: <Root> <DrinkSelections> <Drink id=1000 name="Coffee"/> <Drink id=1001 name="Water"/> <Drink id=1002 name="Tea"/> <Drink id=1003 name="Almost But Not Quite Entirely Unlike Tea"/> </DrinkSelections> <CustomerOrder> <Drinks> <Drink oid="1001"/> <Drink oid="1002"/> <Drink oid="1003"/> </Drinks> </CustomerOrder </Root> I want to produce a list of drinks (sorted by name) contained in the CustomerOrder. Here is the XSLT code I am fiddling with: <xsl:for-each select="/Root/CustomerOrder/Drinks/Drink"> <xsl:sort select="/Root/DrinkSelections/Drink[@id = @oid]/@name"/> <xsl:variable name=var_oid select="@oid"/> <xsl:value-of select="/Root/DrinkSelections/Drink[@id = $var_oid]/@name"/> </xsl:for-each> Apparently, the xsl:sort command is trying to apply the "oid" attribute to the Drink elements in DrinkSelections, rather than local Drink element. I can get around this using a variable, as in the xsl:value-of statement. But since xsl:sort must be the first statement after the xsl:for-each statement, I can't insert the xsl:variable statement before xsl:sort. Is there a way to explicitly state that the attribute value should be taken from the "local" element?

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• What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

  - by Rafael Szuminski

  Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

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• Is SharePoint's ListViewXML syntax based on a standard?

  - by AlexanderN

  I had to change a ListView webpart and noticed the syntax that renders the HTML is not XSLT. Is this ListViewXML syntax documented somewhere or based on a standard? Example, <IfEqual> <Expr1> <GetVar Name="BlogPublishedCurrentDate"/> </Expr1> <Expr2> <Column Name="PublishedDate" Format="DateOnly" HTMLEncode="TRUE"/> </Expr2> <Then/> <Else> <HTML> <![CDATA[<h3 class="ms-PostDate">]]></HTML> <Column Name="PublishedDate" Format="DateOnly" HTMLEncode="TRUE"/> <HTML> <![CDATA[</h3>]]></HTML> <SetVar Name="BlogPublishedCurrentDate" Scope="Request"> <Column Name="PublishedDate" Format="DateOnly" HTMLEncode="TRUE"/> </SetVar> </Else> </IfEqual>

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• Enforce link in Team foundation server bug work item for duplicates

  - by Tewr

  We have just started out with Team Foundation Server 2008 / Visual Studio Team System and we are pleased to find how we can export and modify work items to our needs. However, this last thing that would make the setup perfect for us has proved somewhat difficult: We have exported the Bug work item type and have made modifications to it to appear differently to different groups of users. We do, however, see a potential problem in non-developers reporting bugs which turn out to be duplicates. We would like to enforce that users who close a ticket with resolved reason:duplicate also creates a link to the bug which is perceived as the first bug report. I have looked at System.RelatedLinkCount, and put the rule <FIELD type="Integer" name="RelatedLinkCount" refname="System.RelatedLinkCount"> <WHEN field="Microsoft.VSTS.Common.ResolvedReason" value="duplicate"> <PROHIBITEDVALUES> <LISTITEM value="0" /> </PROHIBITEDVALUES> </WHEN> </FIELD> However, when I try to put anything in that scope, the importer tells me that System.RelatedLinkCount does not accept the rule, no matter what I put, but the rule above shows what I am trying to do (even though the most preferable rule would also check that the bug that I link to is not a duplicate as well, though this is overkill :P) Has anyone else tried to enforce rules like this in work items? Is there another approach to solving the same issue? I am thankful for any thoughts on the matter.

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• Silverlight Image Data Binding

  - by Alexander

  I am new to Silverlight, and have an issue with binding. I have a class ItemsManager, that has inside its scope another class Item. class ItemsManager { ... class Item : INotifyPropertyChanged { ... private BitmapImage bitmapSource; public BitmapImage BitmapSource { get { return bitmapSource; } set { bitmapSource = value; if(PropertyChanged != null )PropertyChanged("BitmapSource") } } } } I do the following in code to test binding: { ItemsManager.Instance.AddItem("123"); //Items manager started downloading item visual //part (in my case bitmap image png) Binding b = new Binding("Source"); b.Source = ItemsManager.Instance.GetItem("123").BitmapSource; b.BindsDirectlyToSource = true; Image img = new Image(); img.SetBinding(Image.SourceProperty, b); img.Width = (double)100.0; img.Height = (double)100.0; LayoutRoot.Children.Add(img); } Once image is loaded, image doesn't appear. Though, if I set directly after image has been loaded its source, it displays well. I also noticed that PropertyChanged("BitmapSource") never fires, because PropertyChanged is null, like Image never binded to it. I am looking forward to hearing from you!

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• Actionscript Enterframe Movement

  - by David

  I am trying to make accelerated movement, but I am running into a problem that, for the life of me, I cannot understand. My class definition: public class Player extends MovieClip { private var stageRef:Stage; private var key:KeyObject; private var acceleration:int = .5; private var curSpeed:int = 0; public function Player(stageRef:Stage) { this.stageRef = stageRef; addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, enterFrame); key = new KeyObject(stageRef); } public function enterFrame(e:Event) : void { if(key.isDown(key.RIGHT)) { x += 5; } } } This works to move my position in the x direction at a constant rate. However, if I change enterFrame to public function enterFrame(e:Event) : void { if(key.isDown(key.RIGHT)) { x += acceleration; } } No movement occurs. Is there something going on in the event I do not understand? Why is it that I can have x increased by a constant value but not a constant value as defined in a variable in the class? Is it a scope issue?

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• Why is Routes.rb not loading the IPs from cache?

  - by Christian Fazzini

  I am testing this in local. My ip is 127.0.0.1. The ip_permissions table, is empty. When I browse the site, everything works as expected. Now, I want to simulate browsing the site with a banned IP. So I add the IP into the ip_permissions table via: IpPermission.create!(:ip => '127.0.0.1', :note => 'foobar', :category => 'blacklist') In Rails console, I clear the cache via; Rails.cache.clear. I browse the site. I don't get sent to pages#blacklist. If I restart the server. And browse the site, then I get sent to pages#blacklist. Why do I need to restart the server every time the ip_permissions table is updated? Shouldn't it fetch it based on cache? Routes look like: class BlacklistConstraint def initialize @blacklist = IpPermission.blacklist end def matches?(request) @blacklist.map { |b| b.ip }.include? request.remote_ip end end Foobar::Application.routes.draw do match '/(*path)' => 'pages#blacklist', :constraints => BlacklistConstraint.new .... end My model looks like: class IpPermission < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ip, :note, :category validates_uniqueness_of :ip, :scope => [:category] validates :category, :inclusion => { :in => ['whitelist', 'blacklist'] } def self.whitelist Rails.cache.fetch('whitelist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'whitelist').all } end def self.blacklist Rails.cache.fetch('blacklist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'blacklist').all } end end

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• Google Data Api returning an invalid access token

  - by kingdavies

  I'm trying to pull a list of contacts from a google account. But Google returns a 401. The url used for requesting an authorization code: String codeUrl = 'https://accounts.google.com/o/oauth2/auth' + '?' + 'client_id=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode(CLIENT_ID, 'UTF-8') + '&redirect_uri=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode(MY_URL, 'UTF-8') + '&scope=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode('https://www.google.com/m8/feeds/', 'UTF-8') + '&access_type=' + 'offline' + '&response_type=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode('code', 'UTF-8') + '&approval_prompt=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode('force', 'UTF-8'); Exchanging the returned authorization code for an access token (and refresh token): String params = 'code=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode(authCode, 'UTF-8') + '&client_id=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode(CLIENT_ID, 'UTF-8') + '&client_secret=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode(CLIENT_SECRET, 'UTF-8') + '&redirect_uri=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode(MY_URL, 'UTF-8') + '&grant_type=' + EncodingUtil.urlEncode('authorization_code', 'UTF-8'); Http con = new Http(); Httprequest req = new Httprequest(); req.setEndpoint('https://accounts.google.com/o/oauth2/token'); req.setHeader('Content-Type', 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); req.setBody(params); req.setMethod('POST'); Httpresponse reply = con.send(req); Which returns a JSON array with what looks like a valid access token: { "access_token" : "{access_token}", "token_type" : "Bearer", "expires_in" : 3600, "refresh_token" : "{refresh_token}" } However when I try and use the access token (either in code or curl) Google returns a 401: curl -H "Authorization: Bearer {access_token}" https://www.google.com/m8/feeds/contacts/default/full/ Incidentally the same curl command but with an access token acquired via https://code.google.com/oauthplayground/ works. Which leads me to believe there is something wrong with the exchanging authorization code for access token request as the returned access token does not work. I should add this is all within the expires_in time frame so its not that the access_token has expired

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• How do I close a file after catching an IOException in java?

  - by DimDom

  All, I am trying to ensure that a file I have open with BufferedReader is closed when I catch an IOException, but it appears as if my BufferedReader object is out of scope in the catch block. public static ArrayList readFiletoArrayList(String fileName, ArrayList fileArrayList) { fileArrayList.removeAll(fileArrayList); try { //open the file for reading BufferedReader fileIn = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(fileName)); // add line by line to array list, until end of file is reached // when buffered reader returns null (todo). while(true){ fileArrayList.add(fileIn.readLine()); } }catch(IOException e){ fileArrayList.removeAll(fileArrayList); fileIn.close(); return fileArrayList; //returned empty. Dealt with in calling code. } } Netbeans complains that it "cannot find symbol fileIn" in the catch block, but I want to ensure that in the case of an IOException that the Reader gets closed. How can I do that without the ugliness of a second try/catch construct around the first? Any tips or pointers as to best practise in this situation is appreciated,

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• How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

  - by Dimitri C.

  In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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• Javascript Namespace Help

  - by Jason

  Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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• How to copy a variable in JavaScript?

  - by Michael Stum

  I have this JavaScript code: for (var idx in data) { var row = $("<tr></tr>"); row.click(function() { alert(idx); }); table.append(row); } So I'm looking through an array, dynamically creating rows (the part where I create the cells is omitted as it's not important). Important is that I create a new function which encloses the idx variable. However, idx is only a reference, so at the end of the loop, all rows have the same function and all alert the same value. One way I solve this at the moment is by doing this: function GetRowClickFunction(idx){ return function() { alert(idx); } } and in the calling code I call row.click(GetRowClickFunction(idx)); This works, but is somewhat ugly. I wonder if there is a better way to just copy the current value of idx inside the loop? While the problem itself is not jQuery specific (it's related to JavaScript closures/scope), I use jQuery and hence a jQuery-only solution is okay if it works.

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• How can I run an appear effect and a fade effect in scriptaculous? I need them to run in tandam so t

  - by LeeRM

  Hi, Ive been fiddling with this for hours and hours and just cant get it right. First off my sites are already using Prototytpe and Scriptaculous, and to change would take a long time. Basically I am after achieving a slideshow effect similar to jQuery Cycle plugin. I have written most of it but cant get over this hurdle: I need the user to be able to press a control button which will skip the slide to which ever one they have picked. My problem is that if a fade / appear effect is running, then it causes an overlap. I am using queues and they are in their own scope. The problem as I see it is that the fade effect on one slide and the appear effect on the next slide are separate functions. Which means that if the user clicks the control button to move to another slide whilst the animation is inbetween fade & appear, then the next cycle will slot itself in the queue between those 2 effects. The default is to append to the end of the existing queue, which should be fine. But if the appear hasnt been added when a new fade is instantiated, then the queue messes up. I can make it so nothing happens if animation is in effect but thats not the effect I am after. I want to be able to click a slide and whatever is happening to effectively stop and the next slide appear. This is an example of what I am after: http://www.zendesk.com/ Im sorry if that doesnt make sense. Its a tough one to explain. Thanks Lee

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