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  • Find the Algorithm that generates the checksum

    - by knivmannen
    I have a sensing device that transmits a 6-byte message along with an 1-byte counter and supposely a checksum. The data looks something like this: ------DATA----------- -Counter- --Checksum?-- 55 FF 00 00 EC FF ---- 60---------- 1F The last four bits in the counter are always set 0, i.e those bits are probably not used. The last byte is assumed to be the checksum since it has a quite peculiar nature. It tends to randomly change as data changes. Now what i need is to find the algorithm to compute this checksum based on --DATA--. what i have tried is all possible CRC-8 polynomials, for each polynomial i have tried to reflect data, toggle it, initiate it with non-zeroes etc etc. Ive come to the conclusion that i am not dealing with a normal crc-algorithm. I have also tried some flether and adler methods without succes, xor stuff back and forth but still i have no clue how to generate the checksum. My biggest concern is, how is the counter used??? Same data but with different countervalue generates different checksums. I have tried to include the counter in my computations but without any luck. Here are some other datasamples: 55 FF 00 00 F0 FF A0 38 66 0B EA FF BF FF C0 CA 5E 18 EA FF B7 FF 60 BD F6 30 16 00 FC FE 10 81 One more thing that might be worth mentioning is that the last byte in the data only takes on the values FF or FE Plz if u have any tips or tricks that i may try post them here, I am truly desperate. Thx

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  • Trouble bringing a Blackberry App to Foreground

    - by Luis Armando
    I have an app that is listening in background and when the user clicks "send" it displays a dialogue. However I need to bring my app to foreground so the user answers some questions before letting the message go. but I haven't been able to do this, this is the code in my SendListener: SendListener sl = new SendListener(){ public boolean sendMessage(Message msg){ Dialog myDialog = new Dialog(Dialog.D_OK, "message from within SendListener", Dialog.OK,Bitmap.getPredefinedBitmap(Bitmap.EXCLAMATION), Dialog.GLOBAL_STATUS) { //Override inHolster to prevent the Dialog from being dismissed //when a user holsters their BlackBerry. This can //cause a deadlock situation as the Messages //application tries to save a draft of the message //while the SendListener is waiting for the user to //dismiss the Dialog. public void inHolster() { } }; //Obtain the application triggering the SendListener. Application currentApp = Application.getApplication(); //Detect if the application is a UiApplication (has a GUI). if( currentApp instanceof UiApplication ) { //The sendMessage method is being triggered from //within a UiApplication. //Display the dialog using is show method. myDialog.show(); App.requestForeground(); } else { //The sendMessage method is being triggered from // within an application (background application). Ui.getUiEngine().pushGlobalScreen( myDialog, 1, UiEngine.GLOBAL_MODAL ); } return true; } }; store.addSendListener(sl); App is an object I created above: Application App = Application.getApplication(); I have also tried to invoke the App to foreground using its processID but so far no luck.

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  • Calling javascript function from android webview?

    - by Edmond Tamas
    I try to call a javascript function from directly form my application (webview.apk), in order to start a script which would autoplay a html5 video clip, I have tried to add itt right after webview loadURL but wwithout luck. Maybe someone could take a look at the code. What am I missing? Thanks! package tscolari.mobile_sample; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.webkit.WebSettings; import android.webkit.WebView; import android.webkit.WebViewClient; import android.webkit.WebChromeClient; import android.media.MediaPlayer; public class InfoSpotActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); WebView mainWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.mainWebView); WebSettings webSettings = mainWebView.getSettings(); webSettings.setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mainWebView.setWebChromeClient(new WebChromeClient()); mainWebView.setWebViewClient(new MyCustomWebViewClient()); mainWebView.setScrollBarStyle(View.SCROLLBARS_INSIDE_OVERLAY); mainWebView.loadUrl("http://server.info-spot.net"); mainWebView.loadUrl("javascript:playVideo()"); } private class MyCustomWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } }

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  • Replacing content with jquery.

    - by BillZ
    I am loading a movie into a overlay. My problem is that when I close the div overlay the movie continues to play. I do not control the code on the move side it is imported via a script tag which then opens in a iframe. I am able to remove the content of the of the div and then the movie stops playing. Then of course when the user opens the div again the movie is gone. My current thinking was that I could simply replace the script tag with one just like it but the outcome of that is that there is nothing there. I have been using jquery. Thanks -- script -- $(document).ready(function() { $("#closeModal2").click(function() { $("#movieContainer").html("<script src='http://www.accelacast.com/programs/launch.js'/>"); }); }); -- html -- <div id="movieContainer"> <script id="movieTag" language='JavaScript' src='http://www.accelacast.com/programs/launch.js'/> </div> On a side note. I tried replacing the src attribute of the script tag with no luck. I was able to replace the src of a image though. Is it not possible to effect the src attribute of script? Thanks

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  • Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

    - by damix911
    I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

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  • Korn shell wraparound

    - by allenratcliff
    Okay, I'm sure this is simple but it is driving me nuts. I recently went to work on a program where I've had to step back in time a bit and use Redhat 9. When I'm typing on the command line from a standard xterm running Korn shell, when I reach the end of the line the screen slides to the right (cutting off the left side of my command) instead of wrapping the text around to a new line. This makes things difficult for me because I can't easily copy and paste from the previous command straight from the command line. I have to look at the history and paste the command from there. In case you're wondering, I do a lot of command-line awk scripts that cause the line to get quite long. Is there a way to force the command line to wrap instead of shifting visibility to the right side of the command I'm typing? I've poured through man page options with no luck. I'm running XFree86 4.2.99.903(174) and KSH 5.2.14. Thanks.

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  • HTML entity encoding (convert '<' to '&lt;') on iPhone in objective-c

    - by Markus
    I'm developing an application for the iPhone that has inApp-mail sending capabilities. So far so good, but now I want to avoid html-injections as some parts of the mail are user-generated texts. Basically I search for something like this: // inits NSString *sourceString = [NSString stringWithString:@"Hello world! Grüße dich Welt <-- This is in German."]; // ----- THAT'S WHAT I'M LOOKING FOR // pseudo-code | // V NSString *htmlEncodedString = [sourceString htmlEncode]; // log NSLog(@"source string: %@", sourceString); NSLog(@"encoded string: %@", htmlEncodedString); Expected output source string: Hello world! Grüße dich Welt <-- This is in German. encoded string: Hello world! Gr&#252;&#223;e dich Welt &lt;-- This is in German. I already googled and looked through several of SO's questions and answers, but all of them seem to be related to URL-encoding and that's not what I really need (I tried stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding with no luck - it creates %C3%BC out of an 'ü' that should be an ü). A code sample would be really great (correcting mine?)... -- Thanks in advance, Markus

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  • WriteableBitmap failing badly, pixel array very inaccurate

    - by dawmail333
    I have tried, literally for hours, and I have not been able to budge this problem. I have a UserControl, that is 800x369, and it contains, simply, a path that forms a worldmap. I put this on a landscape page, then I render it into a WriteableBitmap. I then run a conversion to turn the 1d Pixels array into a 2d array of integers. Then, to check the conversion, I wire up the custom control's click command to use the Point.X and Point.Y relative to the custom control in the newly created array. My logic is thus: wb = new WriteableBitmap(worldMap, new TranslateTransform()); wb.Invalidate(); intTest = wb.Pixels.To2DArray(wb.PixelWidth); My conversion logic is as such: public static int[,] To2DArray(this int[] arr,int rowLength) { int[,] output = new int[rowLength, arr.Length / rowLength]; if (arr.Length % rowLength != 0) throw new IndexOutOfRangeException(); for (int i = 0; i < arr.Length; i++) { output[i % rowLength, i / rowLength] = arr[i]; } return output; } Now, when I do the checking, I get completely and utterly strange results: apparently all pixels are either at values of -1 or 0, and these values are completely independent of the original colours. Just for posterity: here's my checking code: private void Check(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point click = e.GetPosition(worldMap); ChangeNotification(intTest[(int)click.X,(int)click.Y].ToString()); } The result show absolutely no correlation to the path that the WriteableBitmap has rendered into it. The path has a fill of solid white. What the heck is going on? I've tried for hours with no luck. Please, this is the major problem stopping me from submitting my first WP7 app. Any guidance?

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  • Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

    - by Igor Ganapolsky
    Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

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  • How to use VC++ intrinsic functions w/o run-time library

    - by Adrian McCarthy
    I'm involved in one of those challenges where you try to produce the smallest possible binary, so I'm building my program without the C or C++ run-time libraries (RTL). I don't link to the DLL version or the static version. I don't even #include the header files. I have this working fine. For some code constructs, the compiler generates calls to memset(). For example: struct MyStruct { int foo; int bar; }; MyStruct blah = {}; // calls memset() Since I don't include the RTL, this results in a missing symbol at link time. I've been getting around this by avoiding those constructs. For the given example, I'll explicitly initialize the struct. MyStruct blah; blah.foo = 0; blah.bar = 0; But memset() can be useful, so I tried adding my own implementation. It works fine in Debug builds, even for those places where the compiler generates an implicit call to memset(). But in Release builds, I get an error saying that I cannot define an intrinsic function. You see, in Release builds, intrinsic functions are enabled, and memset() is an intrinsic. I would love to use the intrinsic for memset() in my release builds, since it's probably inlined and smaller and faster than my implementation. But I seem to be a in catch-22. If I don't define memset(), the linker complains that it's undefined. If I do define it, the compiler complains that I cannot define an intrinsic function. I've tried adding #pragma intrinsic(memset) with and without declarations of memset, but no luck. Does anyone know the right combination of definition, declaration, #pragma, and compiler and linker flags to get an intrinsic function without pulling in RTL overhead? Visual Studio 2008, x86, Windows XP+.

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  • Dynamic Method Creation

    - by TJMonk15
    So, I have been trying to research this all morning, and have had no luck. I am trying to find a way to dynamically create a method/delegate/lambda that returns a new instance of a certain class (not known until runtime) that inherits from a certain base class. I can guarantee the following about the unknown/dynamic class It will always inherit from one known Class (Row) It will have atleast 2 constructors (one accepting a long, and one accepting an IDataRecord) I plan on doign the following: Finding all classes that have a certain attribute on them Creating a delegate/method/lambda/whatever that creates a new instance of the class Storing the delegate/whatever along with some properties in a struct/class Insert the struct into a hashtable When needed, pull the info out of the hashtable and calling the delegate/whatever to get a new instance of the class and returning it/adding it to a list/etc. I need help only with #2 above!!! I have no idea where to start. I really just need some reference material to get me started, or some keywords to throw into google. This is for a compact/simple to use ORM for our office here. I understand the above is not simple, but once working, should make maintaining the code incredibly simple. Please let me know if you need any more info! And thanks in advance! :)

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  • SQL Server Express performance issue

    - by Developer IT
    Hi folks ! I know my questions will sound silly and probably nobody will have perfect answer but since I am in a complete dead-end with the situation it will make me feel better to post it here. So... I have a SQL Server Express database that's 500 Mb. It contains 5 tables and maybe 30 stored procedure. This database is use to store articles and is use for the Developer It web site. Normally the web pages load quickly, let's say 2 ou 3 sec. BUT, sqlserver process uses 100% of the processor for those 2 or 3 sec. I try to find which stored procedure was the problem and I could not find one. It seems like every read into the table dans contains the articles (there are about 155,000 of them and 20 or so gets added every 15 minutes). I added few index but without luck... It is because the table is full text indexed ? Should I have order with the primary key instead of date ? I never had any problems with ordering by dates.... Should I use dynamic SQL ? Should I add the primary key into the url of the articles ? Should I use mutiple indexes for seperate columns or one big index ? I you want more details or code bits, just ask for it. Basicly, every little hint is much apreciated. Thanks.

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  • after .htaccess url rewrite, cannot perform logoff in some of the url rewrited page

    - by Patrick
    Recently, I was doing .htaccess url rewrite, make all my php url into html, in some page, the logout button wont work properly. for example, in page ‘quotedetails/Q9999.html’ (rewrited from ‘quotedetails.php?quoteID=Q9999'), when I click logout button in this page, it wont do the trick, but when i use the old php url of this page, it works again, other rewrited pages like index.html (index.php), search.html(search.php), all works perfectly. I use firebug to debug, after I click the logout button, it stays in the same page without redirect me to the index.html, but I saw the the ‘logoff’ params has been passed through, but just dont let me logout and redirect to index page. I’ve changed all the relavent file path to absolute path, still no luck…..help please. I’ve also noticed from firebug, that page cannot get the redirect ‘location’ as I tried in other pages, their response headers come with ‘location: index.html’, but in that no-workin-page, there is no such line called ‘location: index.html’ in its response headers. Here is my .htaccess file, no-workin-pages are related to the first four ReweiteRules Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^reps/all,all.html$ rep.php?repID=all&repName=all RewriteRule ^reps/([A-Z]+),([A-Za-z\sA-Za-z]+).html$ rep.php?repID=$1&repName=$2 RewriteRule ^reps/([A-Za-z]+),([A-Za-z\sA-Za-z]+),([0-9]+).html$ rep.php?repID=$1repName=$2&page=$3 RewriteRule ^quotedetails/(Q[0-9]+).html$ quotedetails.php?quoteID=$1 RewriteRule ^index.html$ index.php RewriteRule ^addquote.html$ addquote.php RewriteRule ^search.html$ search.php RewriteRule ^viewall.html$ viewall.php RewriteRule ^howto.html$ howto.php

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  • multiple ajax requests with jquery

    - by Emil
    I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

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  • Close TCP connection when owner process is already killed

    - by Otiel
    I have a Windows service that - when it starts - opens some WCF services to listen on the 8000 port. It happens that this service crashes sometimes. When it does, the TCP connection is not released, thus causing my service to throw an exception if I try to start it again: AddressAlreadyInUseException: There is already a listener on IP endpoint 0.0.0.0:8000 Some observations: When running CurrPorts or netstat -ano, I can see that the 8000 port is still in use (in LISTENING state) and is owned by the Process ID XXX that corresponded to my service process ID. But my service has already crashed, and does not appear in the Task Manager anymore. Thus I can't kill the process to free the port! Of course, running taskkill /PID XXX returns: ERROR: The process "XXX" not found. When running CurrPorts or netstat -b, I can see that the process name involved in creating the listening port is System, and not as MyService.exe (whereas it is MyService.exe when my service is running). I tried to use CurrPorts to close the connection, but I always get the following error message: Failed to close one or more TCP connections. Be aware that you must run this tool as admin in order to close TCP connections. (Useless to say, I do run CurrPorts as Administrator...) TCPView is not much help either: the process name associated to the 8000 port is <non-existent>, and doing "End process" or "Close connection" has no effect. I tried to see if there was not a child process associated with the PID XXX using Process Explorer, but no luck here. If I close my service properly (before it crashes), the TCP connection is correctly released. This is normal, as I close the WCF service hosts in the OnStop() event of my service. The only way I found to release the connection is to restart the server (which is not convenient in a production environment as you can guess). Waiting does not help, the TCP connection is never released. How can I close the connection without restarting the Windows server? PS: found some questions extremely similar to mine.

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  • FQL query using stream table doesn't accept app access token

    - by tougher
    I've searched stackoverflow all day long to find an answer without luck, so here we go. I'm trying to fetch data from the stream table like this: FQL: SELECT post_id, message, created_time FROM stream WHERE source_id = 131559313586863 URL: http:// graph.facebook.com/fql?q=SELECT+post_id%2C+message%2C+created_time+FROM+stream+WHERE+source_id+%3D+131559313586863&access_token=10669xxxxx74470|PF-7GSdBx0Nxxxxxkdi1KwSQG-w But I get a 400 Bad Request as response with the error message: "An access token is required to request this resource.". I'm fetching an application access token with this url: https:// graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=FACEBOOK_APP_ID&client_secret=FACEBOOK_APP_SECRET&grant_type=client_credentials Facebook state in this blog post that "You will need to pass a valid app or user access token to access this functionality.". Functionality refers to /feed and /posts (the stream table). Futhermore this wiki tells the same story about using the stream table, "From June 3 2011 a token is required to query this table. You can use any application or user token to make the query.". Does anyone see my hopefully obvious flaw? Please note: The profile in the FQL query is public. I need this to run userless though a cronjob. No user interaction is possible. The request works if I replace the app access token with my own user token from https:// developers.facebook.com/tools/explorer Sorry for breaking the URL's. I need more reputation to post more than 2 links :-/

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  • Are functional programming languages good for practical tasks?

    - by Clueless
    It seems to me from my experimenting with Haskell, Erlang and Scheme that functional programming languages are a fantastic way to answer scientific questions. For example, taking a small set of data and performing some extensive analysis on it to return a significant answer. It's great for working through some tough Project Euler questions or trying out the Google Code Jam in an original way. At the same time it seems that by their very nature, they are more suited to finding analytical solutions than actually performing practical tasks. I noticed this most strongly in Haskell, where everything is evaluated lazily and your whole program boils down to one giant analytical solution for some given data that you either hard-code into the program or tack on messily through Haskell's limited IO capabilities. Basically, the tasks I would call 'practical' such as Aceept a request, find and process requested data, and return it formatted as needed seem to translate much more directly into procedural languages. The most luck I have had finding a functional language that works like this is Factor, which I would liken to a reverse-polish-notation version of Python. So I am just curious whether I have missed something in these languages or I am just way off the ball in how I ask this question. Does anyone have examples of functional languages that are great at performing practical tasks or practical tasks that are best performed by functional languages?

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  • CakePHP: Missing database table

    - by Justin
    I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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  • Indentation control while developing a small python like language

    - by sap
    Hello, I'm developing a small python like language using flex, byacc (for lexical and parsing) and C++, but i have a few questions regarding scope control. just as python it uses white spaces (or tabs) for indentation, not only that but i want to implement index breaking like for instance if you type "break 2" inside a while loop that's inside another while loop it would not only break from the last one but from the first loop as well (hence the number 2 after break) and so on. example: while 1 while 1 break 2 'hello world'!! #will never reach this. "!!" outputs with a newline end 'hello world again'!! #also will never reach this. again "!!" used for cout end #after break 2 it would jump right here but since I don't have an "anti" tab character to check when a scope ends (like C for example i would just use the '}' char) i was wondering if this method would the the best: I would define a global variable, like "int tabIndex" on my yacc file that i would access in my lex file using extern. then every time i find a tab character on my lex file i would increment that variable by 1. when parsing on my yacc file if i find a "break" keyword i would decrement by the amount typed after it from the tabIndex variable, and when i reach and EOF after compiling and i get a tabIndex != 0 i would output compilation error. now the problem is, whats the best way to see if the indentation got reduced, should i read \b (backspace) chars from lex and then reduce the tabIndex variable (when the user doesn't use break)? another method to achieve this? also just another small question, i want every executable to have its starting point on the function called start() should i hardcode this onto my yacc file? sorry for the long question any help is greatly appreciated. also if someone can provide an yacc file for python would be nice as a guideline (tried looking on Google and had no luck). thanks in advance.

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  • ExpertPDF and Caching of URLs

    - by Josh
    We are using ExpertPDF to take URLs and turn them into PDFs. Everything we do is through memory, so we build up the request and then read the stream into ExpertPDF and then write the bits to file. All the files we have been requesting so far are just plain HTML documents. Our designers update CSS files or change the HTML and rerequest the documents as PDFs, but often times, things are getting cached. Take, for example, if I rename the only CSS file and view the HTML page through a web browser, the page looks broke because the CSS doesn't exist. But if I request that page through the PDF Generator, it still looks ok, which means somewhere the CSS is cached. Here's the relevant PDF creation code: // Create a request HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)HttpWebRequest.Create(url); request.UserAgent = "IE 8.0"; request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; request.Method = "GET"; // Send the request HttpWebResponse resp = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); if (resp.IsFromCache) { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Trace.Write("FROM THE CACHE!!!"); } else { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Trace.Write("not from cache"); } // Read the response pdf.SavePdfFromHtmlStream(resp.GetResponseStream(), System.Text.Encoding.UTF8, "Output.pdf"); When I check the trace file, nothing is being loaded from cache. I checked the IIS log file and found a 200 response coming from the request, even after a file had been updated (I would expect a 302). We've tried putting the No-Cache attribute on all HTML pages, but still no luck. I even turned off all caching at the IIS level. Is there anything in ExpertPDF that might be caching somewhere or something I can do to the request object to do a hard refresh of all resources? UPDATE I put ?foo at the end of my style href links and this updates the CSS everytime. Is there a setting someplace that can prevent stylesheets from being cached so I don't have to do this inelegant solution?

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  • Secure web module for paid subscribtion

    - by DarkJaff
    Hello everyone, I'm building a website (a community web site like digg) but we will soon release a new feature that people will need to pay for. Right now, our website is in pure C# in .NET, very simple pages with some AJAX. When the member log in, there is no HTTPS. Everything is check with session and the internal validation that I do. What we need, is that when the people are logged in, they can click on a link a proceed to a payment (Paypal, credit card, etc). After the payment is done, the "billing module" will return a value to my site to validate that the payment is done so the account will be flagged as "paying member". I'm guessing this is the way to do, maybe I'm wrong! So my questions are: -What is the name of this kind of billing module? (I will do some research on that) -Do you know any ready to go module that does this kind of thing? -(I push my luck) Do you know any FREE module that do this kind of things. If something is not clear, don't hesitate to ask question :) Thanks a lot! DarkJaff

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  • iPhone Localization: simple project not working

    - by gonso
    Hello Im doing my first localized project and I've been fighting with it for several hours with no luck. I have to create an app that, based on the user selection, shows texts and images in different languages. I've read most of Apple's documents on the matter but I cant make a simple example work. This are my steps so far: 1) Create a new project. 2) Manually create a "en.lproj" directory in the projects folder. 3) Using TexEdit create file called "Localizable.strings" and store it in Unicode UTF-16. The file looks like this: /* Localizable.strings Multilanguage02 Created by Gonzalo Floria on 5/6/10. Copyright 2010 __MyCompanyName__. All rights reserved. */ "Hello" = "Hi"; "Goodbye" = "Bye"; 4) I drag this file to the Resources Folder on XCode and it appear with the "subdir" "en" underneath it (with the dropdown triangle to the left). If I try to see it on XCode it looks all wrong, whit lots of ? symbols, but Im guessing thats because its a UTF-16 file. Right? 5) Now on my view did load I can access this strings like this: NSString *translated; translated = NSLocalizedString(@"Hello", @"User greetings"); NSLog(@"Translated text is %@",translated); My problem is allowing the user to switch language. I have create an es.lproj with the Localizable.strings file (in Spanish), but I CANT access it. I've tried this line: [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setObject: [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"es", nil] forKey:@"AppleLanguages"]; But that only works the NEXT time you load the application. Is there no way to allow the user to switch languages while running the application?? Do I have to implement my own Dictionary files and forget all about NSLocalizableString family? Thanks for ANY advice or pointers. Gonso

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  • How do I animate text links in jquery?

    - by Peter
    I am somewhat new to jquery and I have a problem with something I am trying to implement using jquery. I have a vertical navigation menu where each link animates on hover by changing color, increasing letter spacing, and adding a border on the left. Everything is working the way I want it to except for when I click on the link. After I click on the link, the text changes to a different color and remains that same color even when I hover over the link. I am wanting to make it to where the color change on hover remains intact even after I click the link. I'm sure I am missing something simple, but I have tried everything I know to do with no luck. Any suggestions would be helpful! Here is what I have for the animation... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("ul.navlist li a").hover(function(){ $(this).stop() .animate({paddingLeft: '10px',letterSpacing: '2px',borderWidth:'20px'},{queue:false,easing:'easeInQuad'},50) }, function(){ $(this).stop() .animate({paddingLeft: '0px', letterSpacing: '0px',borderWidth:'0px'},{queue:false,easing:'easeOutQuad'},50) }); }); </script> My css for the navigation list is here... .navlist { list-style: none; } .navlist a { border-left-color: #555555; border-left-style: solid; border-left-width: 0px; color: #c4c4c4; } .navlist a:hover { border-left-color: #555555; border-left-style: solid; color: #555555; }

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  • Windows Server TCP Client application in c# Stops working after a while

    - by user1692494
    I am developping an application in C# Net framework 2.0. It is basicly a service application with a tcp client class. Class for Tcp Client Part public TelnetConnection(string Hostname, int Port) { host = Hostname; prt = Port; try { tcpSocket = new TcpClient(Hostname, Port); } catch (Exception e) { //Console.WriteLine(e.Message); } } The application is connecting to the server and revieves update's and more information. It works for about 20 minutes then stops recieving information from the server. -- Server side Client is still connected and the client side its still connected but stops receiving information from the server. I've been searching Stack Overflow and Google but no luck. try { if (!tcpSocket.Connected) return null; StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); do { Parse(sb); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(TimeOutMs); } while (tcpSocket.Available > 0); return sb.ToString(); } Application works perfect when it runs as console application but when running as service. It just stops.

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  • Unable to set up ODBC after installing ODAC (Xcopy)

    - by rwilson513
    We are trying to use ODAC Xcopy to minimize the footprint of installing Oracle 11g Client. Currently, we use the Oracle 11g Admin install (~700mb). I've tried using the ODAC Xcopy, and that works. However, the only issue I now have is that I cannot set up an ODBC on the target system by just installing the ODAC Xcopy. After installing ODAC (Windows XP fyi), I go to Control Panel--Admin Tools--Data Sources (ODBC)--System DSN--Add--Microsoft ODBC for Oracle. I get the following error: "The Oracle(tm) client and networking components were not found. These components are supplied by Oracle and are part of the Oracle Version 7.3 (or greater) client software installation. You will be unable to use this driver until these components have been installed." I've tried editing the registry and creating the same keys that the Oracle Admin install creates, but still no luck. I'm not sure how to get past this. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance.

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