Search Results

Search found 11261 results on 451 pages for 'mr foo bar'.

Page 108/451 | < Previous Page | 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115  | Next Page >

  • Two AJAX asynchronus GET call: Only one get the xml file

    - by Woho87
    Hi! I have two AJAX GET calls that are set to asynchcronus = true; I want to obtain two XML files on my server. The two AJAX calls and rendering are defined in function foo & koo. And are called simultaneously. function foo(){ var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200){ var xmlDoc = xmlhttp.responseXML; //Do something } } xmlhttp.open('get', 'url', true); xmlhttp.send(); } function koo(){ //Almost the same as function foo } foo(); koo(); I've noticed that inside the if statement in the first function call(foo), the code their will never compile. While in the second function call(koo). The code inside the if statement can be compiled. If I set both asynchronus to false, then there is no problem at all. If I remove the second function call(koo) from the code, than the code inside the if statement can be compiled. What can I do to have both asynchronus AJAX calls?

    Read the article

  • lookahead and group

    - by Istao
    Hi, In Java, on a text like foo <on> bar </on> thing <on> again</on> now, I should want a regex with groups wich give me with a find "foo", "bar", empty string, then "thing", "again", "now". If I do (.*?)<on>(.*?)</on>(?!<on>), I get only two group (foo bar, thing again, and I've not the end "now"). if I do (.*?)<on>(.*?)</on>((?!<on>)) I get foo bar empty string, then thing again and empty string (here I should want "now"). Please what is the magical formula ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why is IE8 on XP not properly reading from XML using JQuery?

    - by dking
    Given this XML in data.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <data> <bar>100</bar> </data> I want to display the content from the "bar" element using the following code in test.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $.get('data.xml', function(xml) { var foo = $(xml).find('bar').text(); document.write("<span>foo: [" + foo + "]</span>"); }); </script> </body> </html> The output in webkit based browsers: foo: [100] The output in IE8 on XP: foo: [] Why do webkit browsers read the element's content correctly while IE8 interprets it as an empty string?

    Read the article

  • is there a way to add a variable/property to a DOM element (eg, an element returned by a jQuery sele

    - by bt
    Hi there, I am looking for an alternative to using an object/variable in global scope -- I would like to associate key/value pairs with specific DOM elements (eg, a DIV), so that I can use them as input for logic that processes other elements (eg, child elements of said DIV). I tried something naive like: $('[foo=bar]').key='value' , and $('[foo=bar]')[key]='value', but it puked. Doing something like: var foobar = $('[foo=bar]'); foobar.key = 'value' -- works, but the new property/value only affects the new object (ie, foobar, not $('[foo=bar]')) Most likely there's something terribly basic I am overlooking. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • Selecting elements that do not contain a certain ID using ExtJS

    - by pmdarrow
    I'm trying to select all the <input> elements of a form except ones with IDs containing the words foo or bar. How can I do this using ExtJS 2.3.0? I've tried the following: Ext.query("select,input:not([id*=foo][id*=bar])", "SomeForm");` ... but it doesn't work. Excluding IDs with foo in them seems to work fine: Ext.query("select,input:not([id*=foo])", "SomeForm")` I'm just not sure how to add a second ID substring. Any Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Mapping over multiple Seq in Scala

    - by bsdfish
    Suppose I have val foo : Seq[Double] = ... val bar : Seq[Double] = ... and I wish to produce a seq where the baz(i) = foo(i) + bar(i). One way I can think of to do this is val baz : Seq[Double] = (foo.toList zip bar.toList) map ((f: Double, b : Double) => f+b) However, this feels both ugly and inefficient -- I have to convert both seqs to lists (which explodes with lazy lists), create this temporary list of tuples, only to map over it and let it be GCed. Maybe streams solve the lazy problem, but in any case, this feels like unnecessarily ugly. In lisp, the map function would map over multiple sequences. I would write (mapcar (lambda (f b) (+ f b)) foo bar) And no temporary lists would get created anywhere. Is there a map-over-multiple-lists function in Scala, or is zip combined with destructuring really the 'right' way to do this?

    Read the article

  • How to pass function reference into arguments

    - by Ockonal
    Hi, I'm using boost::function for making function-references: typedef boost::function<void (SomeClass &handle)> Ref; someFunc(Ref &pointer) {/*...*/} void Foo(SomeClass &handle) {/*...*/} What is the best way to pass Foo into the someFunc? I tried something like: someFunc(Ref(Foo));

    Read the article

  • XSLT: Transform XML files tree

    - by Myniva
    I have the following file structure (XML files 'index.xml' in nested folders): index.xml foo/index.xml foo/sub/index.xml foo/.../index.xml bar/.../index.xml Now I have to transform each of this XML files with a given XSL stylesheet. The result should be the same folder structure (overwriting would be OK). What would be your approach to achieve this? My system: OS X 10.6, Saxon XSLT processor

    Read the article

  • Does program need additional symbols from .so shared library except those declared in header file?

    - by solotim
    In C programming, I thought that a object file can be successfully linked with a .so file as long as the .so file offers all symbols which have been declared in the header file. Suppose I have foo.c, bar.h and two libraries libbar.so.1 and libbar.so.2. The implementation of libbar.so.1 and libbar.so.2 is totally different, but I think it's OK as long as they both offers functions declared in bar.h. I linked foo.o with libbar.so.1 and produced an executable: foo.bin. This executable worked when libbar.so.1 is in LD_LIBRARY_PATH.(of course a symbolic link is made as libbar.so) However, when I change the symbolic link to libbar.so.2, foo.bin could not run and complainted this: undefined symbol: _ZSt4cerr I found this symbol type is 'B' and it does not appear in libbar.so.2. Obviously this symbol has nothing to do with those functions I decared in bar.h. What's wrong here?

    Read the article

  • LINQ to Entites: How should I handle System.InvalidOperationException when checking for existance of

    - by chris
    I have a many-to-one relationship that users can edit via checkboxes. PK of Foo is ID, and fid contains the id from the checkbox. I'm checking to see if an element exists with: Foo ent; try { ent = ctx.Foo.First(f => f.ID == fid); } catch (System.InvalidOperationException ioe) { ent = new Foo(); } It seems to me that I should be able to do this without throwing an exception. What would be the best way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Get/Set nested property values

    - by Daniel Deer
    I'll try to be more descriptive here. A Few Q's: using: var foo = new Foo() { Bar = new Bar() { Value = "Value" } }; var value = DataBinder.Eval(foo, "Bar.Value"); Or: This one It is possible to retrieve an internal nested property using property path syntax. Is there a way to set/trigger a nested property (a regular property not DependencyProperty) easily with some kind of simple mechanisms as described here? I want to acheive something like: string newValue = "Hello World!"; DataBinder.EvalSet(foo, "Bar.Value", NewValue); Is there any mechanism that support both property path (for nested objects) and XPATHs (if the objects are XPATH navigable of course) ? again, that supports get and set options. Thanks, DD

    Read the article

  • How can I handle arbitrary text as "nouns" in Inform 7?

    - by Beska
    In Inform, I'd like to be able to create a new action, and have it be able to work on aribitrary text. I can easily create a new action that will work on existing things. Finding is an action with past participle found, applying to one thing. Understand "Find [something]" as finding. Carry out finding: say "You find [the noun]." But this only works on items that exist within the game world. If I try to "find fdsljk", for instance, it will fail because I haven't created a "fdsljk". I'd like to be able to "find fdsljk" and then be able to grab that extra text and respond with it...something like "You find the fdsljk." I was thinking that something like A foo is a kind of value. Finding is an action with past participle found, applying to one foo. Understand "Find [something]" as finding. Carry out finding: say "You find [the foo]." might be close...but it doesn't work. I get an error that reads: You wrote 'say "You find [the foo]."' , and in particular 'the foo': but this asked to say something of a kind which can't be said, or rather, printed. Although this problem can arise when you use complicated text substitutions which come in variant forms depending on the kinds of value used, far more often what this means is just that you tried to use a substituted value (e.g., in 'say "The dial reads [V]."') of a kind which could not be printed out. For instance, if V is a number or a piece of text, there is no problem: but if V is a parsing topic, say an entry in a 'topic' column of a table, then this problem will arise. The italics are mine, and highlight the key...I think this should be doable, but I'm taking the wrong path. Clues?

    Read the article

  • c:set tag to set a non-primitive type value

    - by Bar
    What's a possible way to use Spring Security tag <sec:authentication property="principal.id" /> as the value for the <c:set…> tag? These statements: <c:set var="userId" value="<sec:authentication property='principal.id' />"/> <c:set var="userId" value="<sec:authentication property=\"principal.id\" />"/> won't work.

    Read the article

  • PHP Based session variable not retaining value. Works on localhost, but not on server.

    - by Foo
    I've been trying to debug this problem for many hours, but to no avail. I've been using PHP for many years, and got back into it after long hiatus, so I'm still a bit rusty. Anyways, my $_SESSION vars are not retaining their value for some reason that I can't figure out. The site worked on localhost perfectly, but uploading it to the server seemed to break it. First thing I checked was the PHP.ini server settings. Everything seems fine. In fact, my login system is session based and it works perfectly. So now that I know $_SESSIONS are working properly and retaining their value for my login, I'm presuming the server is setup and the problem is in my script. Here's a stripped version of the code that's causing a problem. $type, $order and $style are not being retained after they are set via a GET variable. The user clicks a link, which sets a variable via GET, and this variable is retained for the remainder of their session. Is there some problem with my logic that I'm not seeing? <?php require_once('includes/top.php'); //first line includes a call to session_start(); require_once('includes/db.php'); $type = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 't', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $order = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'o', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $style = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 's', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); /* According to documentation, filter_input returns a NULL when variables are undefined. So, if t, o, or s are not set via URL, $type, $order and $style will be NULL. */ print_r($_SESSION); /* All other sessions, such as the login session, etc. are displayed here. After the sessions are set below, they are displayed up here to... simply with no value. This leads me to believe the problem is with the code below, perhaps? */ // If $type is not null (meaning it WAS set via the get method above) // or it's false because the validation failed for some reason, // then set the session to the $type. I removed the false check for simplicity. // This code is being successfully executed, and the data is being stored... if(!is_null($type)) { $_SESSION['type'] = $type; } if(!is_null($order)) { $_SESSION['order'] = $order; } if(!is_null($style)) { $_SESSION['style'] = $style; } $smarty->display($template); ?> If anyone can point me in the right direction, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate one-to-one: getId() without fetching entire object

    - by Rob
    I want to fetch the id of a one-to-one relationship without loading the entire object. I thought I could do this using lazy loading as follows: class Foo { @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY, optional = false) private Bar bar; } Foo f = session.get(Foo.class, fooId); // Hibernate fetches Foo f.getBar(); // Hibernate fetches full Bar object f.getBar().getId(); // No further fetch, returns id I want f.getBar() to not trigger another fetch. I want hibernate to give me a proxy object that allows me to call .getId() without actually fetching the Bar object. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Why is forwarding variadic parameters invalid?

    - by awesomeyi
    Consider the variadic function parameter: func foo(bar:Int...) -> () { } Here foo can accept multiple arguments, eg foo(5,4). I am curious about the type of Int... and its supported operations. For example, why is this invalid? func foo2(bar2:Int...) -> () { foo(bar2); } Gives a error: Could not find an overload for '_conversion' that accepts the supplied arguments Why is forwarding variadic parameters invalid? What is the "conversion" the compiler is complaining about?

    Read the article

  • mySQL select and group by values

    - by Foo
    I'd like to count and group rows by specific values. This seems fairly simple, but I can't seem to do it. I have a table set up similar to this: Table: Ratings id pID uID rating 1 1 2 7 2 1 7 7 3 1 5 4 4 1 1 1 id is the primary key, piD and uID are foreign-keys. Rating contains values between 1 and 10, and only between 1 and 10. I want to run some statistics and count the number of ratings with a certain value. In the example above, two have left a rating of 7. So I wrote the following query: SELECT COUNT(*) AS 'count' , 'rating' FROM 'ratings' WHERE pID= '1' GROUP BY `rating` ORDER BY `rating` Which yields the nice result as: count ratings 1 1 1 4 2 7 I'd like to get the mySQL query to include values between 1 and 10 as well. For example: Desired Result count ratings 1 1 0 2 0 3 1 4 0 5 0 6 2 7 0 8 0 9 0 10 Unfortunately, I'm relatively new to SQL and I've been reading through everything I could get my hands on for the past hour, but I can't get it to work. I've been leaning along the lines of a some type of JOIN. If anyone can point me in the right direction, it'd be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Does this copy the reference or the object?

    - by Water Cooler v2
    Sorry, I am being both thick and lazy, but mostly lazy. Actually, not even that. I am trying to save time so I can do more in less time as there's a lot to be done. Does this copy the reference or the actual object data? public class Foo { private NameValueCollection _nvc = null; public Foo( NameValueCollection nvc) { _nvc = nvc; } } public class Bar { public static void Main() { NameValueCollection toPass = new NameValueCollection(); new Foo( toPass ); // I believe this only copies the reference // so if I ever wanted to compare toPass and // Foo._nvc (assuming I got hold of the private // field using reflection), I would only have to // compare the references and wouldn't have to compare // each string (deep copy compare), right? } I think I know the answer for sure: it only copies the reference. But I am not even sure why I am asking this. I guess my only concern is, if, after instantiating Foo by calling its parameterized ctor with toPass, if I needed to make sure that the NVC I passed as toPass and the NVC private field _nvc had the exact same content, I would just need to compare their references, right?

    Read the article

  • Can you simulate a boolean flag in XSLT?

    - by R.C.
    Hey guys, I'd like to simulate a flag in an xslt script. The idea is for template foo to set a flag (or a counter variable, or anything), so that it can be accessed from template bar. Bar isn't called from foo, but from a common parent template (otherwise I would pass a parameter to it). The structure is like this: <xsl:template match="bla"> <xsl:apply-templates select="foo"/> <!-- depending on the contents of foo... --> <xsl:apply-templates select="bar"/> <!-- ... different things should happen in bar --> </xsl:template> Any tricks are much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Provider not notified from cookbook_file

    - by wittyhandle
    I'm working on an ssl provider using Vagrant (1.0.5) and chef-solo (10.12.0) I have my provider, called ssl within a cookbook called gtm_cq, I define it as such in my cookbook's default recipe: gtm_cq_ssl "author" do # attributes will come later end I then have my cookbook_file like below that should notify my ssl provider's import action once it pushes the cert up to the server: cookbook_file "#{node[:cq][:ssl][:author_cert_location]}/foo.cer" do source "foo.cer" owner "crx" group "root" mode "0644" notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author") end When I run this, the foo.cer gets pushed up as expected, but the import action of my ssl provider is never called. The most I see of any reference is these couple of lines in the log (removed log headers): .. cookbook_file[/opt/cq5/author/foo.cer] sending import action to gtm_cq_ssl[author] (delayed) .. Processing gtm_cq_ssl[author] action import (gtm_cq::author line 34) There's a large very obvious log statement as well as the use of another cookbook_file for a test file to push something up to the server. No log statement, no test file pushed. I'm certain too that the foo.cer file is removed from the server before each test. I found that if I edit my notifies line like so with :immediately notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author"), :immediately It seems to work. And I suppose this is ok in my particular case, but it would seem something is not right if that's the only way I can call my provider. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115  | Next Page >