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  • how to enable SQL Application Role via Entity Framework

    - by Ehsan Farahani
    I'm now developing big government application with entity framework. at first i have one problem about enable SQL application role. with ado.net I'm using below code: SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("sys.sp_setapprole"); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = _sqlConn; SqlParameter paramAppRoleName = new SqlParameter(); paramAppRoleName.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; paramAppRoleName.ParameterName = "@rolename"; paramAppRoleName.Value = "AppRole"; cmd.Parameters.Add(paramAppRoleName); SqlParameter paramAppRolePwd = new SqlParameter(); paramAppRolePwd.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; paramAppRolePwd.ParameterName = "@password"; paramAppRolePwd.Value = "123456"; cmd.Parameters.Add(paramAppRolePwd); SqlParameter paramCreateCookie = new SqlParameter(); paramCreateCookie.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; paramCreateCookie.ParameterName = "@fCreateCookie"; paramCreateCookie.DbType = DbType.Boolean; paramCreateCookie.Value = 1; cmd.Parameters.Add(paramCreateCookie); SqlParameter paramEncrypt = new SqlParameter(); paramEncrypt.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; paramEncrypt.ParameterName = "@encrypt"; paramEncrypt.Value = "none"; cmd.Parameters.Add(paramEncrypt); SqlParameter paramEnableCookie = new SqlParameter(); paramEnableCookie.ParameterName = "@cookie"; paramEnableCookie.DbType = DbType.Binary; paramEnableCookie.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; paramEnableCookie.Size = 1000; cmd.Parameters.Add(paramEnableCookie); try { cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); SqlParameter outVal = cmd.Parameters["@cookie"]; // Store the enabled cookie so that approle can be disabled with the cookie. _appRoleEnableCookie = (byte[]) outVal.Value; } catch (Exception ex) { result = false; msg = "Could not execute enable approle proc." + Environment.NewLine + ex.Message; } But no matter how much I searched I could not find a way to implement on EF. Another question is: how to Add Application Role to Entity data model designer? I'm using the below code for execute parameter with EF: AEntities ar = new AEntities(); DbConnection con = ar.Connection; con.Open(); msg = ""; bool result = true; DbCommand cmd = con.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = con; var d = new DbParameter[]{ new SqlParameter{ ParameterName="@r", Value ="AppRole",Direction = ParameterDirection.Input} , new SqlParameter{ ParameterName="@p", Value ="123456",Direction = ParameterDirection.Input} }; string sql = "EXEC " + procName + " @rolename=@r,@password=@p"; var s = ar.ExecuteStoreCommand(sql, d); When run ExecuteStoreCommand this line return error: Application roles can only be activated at the ad hoc level.

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  • ADO.NET Data Services Entity Framework request error when property setter is internal

    - by Jim Straatman
    I receive an error message when exposing an ADO.NET Data Service using an Entity Framework data model that contains an entity (called "Case") with an internal setter on a property. If I modify the setter to be public (using the entity designer), the data services works fine. I don’t need the entity "Case" exposed in the data service, so I tried to limit which entities are exposed using SetEntitySetAccessRule. This didn’t work, and service end point fails with the same error. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("User", EntitySetRights.AllRead); } The error message is reported in a browser when the .svc endpoint is called. It is very generic, and reads “Request Error. The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.” Unfortunately, there are no entries in the System and Application event logs. I found this stackoverflow question that shows how to configure tracing on the service. After doing so, the following NullReferenceExceptoin error was reported in the trace log. Does anyone know how to avoid this exception when including an entity with an internal setter? Blockquote 131076 3 0 2 MOTOJIM http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-US/library/System.ServiceModel.Diagnostics.TraceHandledException.aspx Handling an exception. 685a2910-19-128703978432492675 System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.CreateProvider(Type dataServiceType, Object dataSourceInstance, DataServiceConfiguration&amp; configuration) at System.Data.Services.DataService1.EnsureProviderAndConfigForRequest() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.ProcessRequestForMessage(Stream messageBody) at SyncInvokeProcessRequestForMessage(Object , Object[] , Object[] ) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.SyncMethodInvoker.Invoke(Object instance, Object[] inputs, Object[]&amp; outputs) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) </StackTrace> <ExceptionString>System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.P

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  • Defining an Entity Framework 1:1 association

    - by Craig Fisher
    I'm trying to define a 1:1 association between two entities (one maps to a table and the other to a view - using DefinedQuery) in an Entity Framework model. When trying to define the mapping for this in the designer, it makes me choose the (1) table or view to map the association to. What am I supposed to choose? I can choose either of the two tables but then I am forced to choose a column from that table (or view) for each end of the relationship. I would expect to be able to choose a column from one table for one end of the association and a column from the other table for the other end of the association, but there's no way to do this. Here I've chosen to map to the "DW_ WF_ClaimInfo" view and it is forcing me to choose two columns from that view - one for each end of the relationship. I've also tried defining the mapping manually in the XML as follows: <AssociationSetMapping Name="Entity1Entity2" TypeName="ClaimsModel.Entity1Entity2" StoreEntitySet="Entity1"> <EndProperty Name="Entity2"> <ScalarProperty Name="DOCUMENT" ColumnName="DOCUMENT" /> </EndProperty> <EndProperty Name="Entity1"> <ScalarProperty Name="PK_DocumentId" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> </AssociationSetMapping> But this gives: Error 2010: The Column 'DOCUMENT' specified as part of this MSL does not exist in MetadataWorkspace. Seems like it still expects both columns to come from the same table, which doesn't make sense to me. Furthermore, if I select the same key for each end, e.g.: <AssociationSetMapping Name="Entity1Entity2" TypeName="ClaimsModel.Entity1Entity2" StoreEntitySet="Entity1"> <EndProperty Name="Entity2"> <ScalarProperty Name="DOCUMENT" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> <EndProperty Name="Entity1"> <ScalarProperty Name="PK_DocumentId" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> </AssociationSetMapping> I then get: Error 3021: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 675: Each of the following columns in table AssignedClaims is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: AssignedClaims.PK_DocumentId is mapped to <AssignedClaimDW_WF_ClaimInfo.DW_WF_ClaimInfo.DOCUMENT, AssignedClaimDW_WF_ClaimInfo.AssignedClaim.PK_DocumentId> What am I not getting?

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  • Entity Framework won't SaveChanges on new entity with two-level relationship

    - by Tim Rourke
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC site using the ADO.NET Entity Framework. I have an entity model that includes these entities, associated by foreign keys: Report(ID, Date, Heading, Report_Type_ID, etc.) SubReport(ID, ReportText, etc.) - one-to-one relationship with Report. ReportSource(ID, Name, Description) - one-to-many relationship with Sub_Report. ReportSourceType(ID, Name, Description) - one-to-many relationship with ReportSource. Contact (ID, Name, Address, etc.) - one-to-one relationship with Report_Source. There is a Create.aspx page for each type of SubReport. The post event method returns a new Sub_Report entity. Before, in my post method, I followed this process: Set the properties for a new Report entity from the page's fields. Set the SubReport entity's specific properties from the page's fields. Set the SubReport entity's Report to the new Report entity created in 1. Given an ID provided by the page, look up the ReportSource and set the Sub_Report entity's ReportSource to the found entity. SaveChanges. This workflow succeeded just fine for a couple of weeks. Then last week something changed and it doesn't work any more. Now instead of the save operation, I get this Exception: UpdateException: "Entities in 'DIR2_5Entities.ReportSourceSet' participate in the 'FK_ReportSources_ReportSourceTypes' relationship. 0 related 'ReportSourceTypes' were found. 1 'Report_Source_Types' is expected." The debug visualizer shows the following: The SubReport's ReportSource is set and loaded, and all of its properties are correct. The Report_Source has a valid ReportSourceType entity attached. In SQL Profiler the prepared SQL statement looks OK. Can anybody point me to what obvious thing I'm missing? TIA Notes: The Report and SubReport are always new entities in this case. The Report entity contains properties common to many types of reports and is used for generic queries. SubReports are specific reports with extra parameters varying by type. There is actually a different entity set for each type of SubReport, but this question applies to all of them, so I use SubReport as a simplified example.

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  • Global Entity Framework Context in WPF Application

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am in the middle of development of a WPF application that is using Entity Framework (.NET 3.5). It accesses the entities in several places throughout. I am worried about consistency throughout the application in regard to the entities. Should I be instancing separate contexts in my different views, or should I (and is a a good way to do this) instance a single context that can be accessed globally? For instance, my entity model has three sections, Shipments (with child packages and further child contents), Companies/Contacts (with child addresses and telephones), and disk specs. The Shipments and EditShipment views access the DiskSpecs, and the OptionsView manages the DiskSpecs (Create, Edit, Delete). If I edit a DiskSpec, I have to have something in the ShipmentsView to retrieve the latest specs if I have separate contexts right? If it is safe to have one overall context from which the rest of the app retrieves it's objects, then I imagine that is the way to go. If so, where would that instance be put? I am using VB.NET, but I can translate from C# pretty good. Any help would be appreciated. I just don't want one of those applications where the user has to hit reload a dozen times in different parts of the app to get the new data. Update: OK so I have changed my app as follows: All contexts are created in Using Blocks to dispose of them after they are no longer needed. When loaded, all entities are detatched from context before it is disposed. A new property in the MainViewModel (ContextUpdated) raises an event that all of the other ViewModels subscribe to which runs that ViewModels RefreshEntities method. After implementing this, I started getting errors saying that an entity can only be referenced by one ChangeTracker at a time. Since I could not figure out which context was still referencing the entity (shouldn't be any context right?) I cast the object as IEntityWithChangeTracker, and set SetChangeTracker to nothing (Null). This has let to the current problem: When I Null the changeTracker on the Entity, and then attach it to a context, it loses it's changed state and does not get updated to the database. However if I do not null the change tracker, I can't attach. I have my own change tracking code, so that is not a problem. My new question is, how are you supposed to do this. A good example Entity query and entity save code snipped would go a long way, cause I am beating my head in trying to get what I once thought was a simple transaction to work. Any help would elevate you to near god-hood.

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  • Tree Node Checked behavior on a TreeView in Compact Framework 3.5 running on Windows Mobile 6.5

    - by Hydroslide
    I have been upgrading an existing .NET Windows Mobile application to use the 3.5 version of the compact framework and to run on Windows Mobile 6.5. I have a form with a TreeView. The TreeView.Checkboxes property is set to true so that each node has a check box. This gives no trouble in all previous versions of Windows Mobile. However, in version 6.5 when you click on a check box it appears to check and then uncheck instantaneously. But it only raises the AfterCheck event once. The only way I can get a check to stick is by double clicking it (which is the wrong behavior). Has anyone seen this behavior? Does anyone know of a workaround for it? I have included a simple test form. Dump this form into a Visual Studio 2008 Smart Device application targeted at Windows Mobile 6 to see what I mean. Public Class frmTree Inherits System.Windows.Forms.Form #Region " Windows Form Designer generated code " Public Sub New() MyBase.new() ' This call is required by the Windows Form Designer. InitializeComponent() ' Add any initialization after the InitializeComponent() call. End Sub 'Form overrides dispose to clean up the component list. <System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCode()> _ Protected Overrides Sub Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) If disposing AndAlso components IsNot Nothing Then components.Dispose() End If MyBase.Dispose(disposing) End Sub 'Required by the Windows Form Designer Private components As System.ComponentModel.IContainer Friend WithEvents TreeView1 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeView Private mainMenu1 As System.Windows.Forms.MainMenu 'NOTE: The following procedure is required by the Windows Form Designer 'It can be modified using the Windows Form Designer. 'Do not modify it using the code editor. <System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThrough()> _ Private Sub InitializeComponent() Dim TreeNode1 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node0") Dim TreeNode2 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node2") Dim TreeNode3 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node3") Dim TreeNode4 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node4") Dim TreeNode5 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node1") Dim TreeNode6 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node5") Dim TreeNode7 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node6") Dim TreeNode8 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node7") Me.mainMenu1 = New System.Windows.Forms.MainMenu Me.TreeView1 = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeView Me.SuspendLayout() ' 'TreeView1 ' Me.TreeView1.CheckBoxes = True Me.TreeView1.Location = New System.Drawing.Point(37, 41) Me.TreeView1.Name = "TreeView1" TreeNode2.Text = "Node2" TreeNode3.Text = "Node3" TreeNode4.Text = "Node4" TreeNode1.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode2, TreeNode3, TreeNode4}) TreeNode1.Text = "Node0" TreeNode6.Text = "Node5" TreeNode7.Text = "Node6" TreeNode8.Text = "Node7" TreeNode5.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode6, TreeNode7, TreeNode8}) TreeNode5.Text = "Node1" Me.TreeView1.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode1, TreeNode5}) Me.TreeView1.Size = New System.Drawing.Size(171, 179) Me.TreeView1.TabIndex = 0 ' 'frmTree ' Me.AutoScaleDimensions = New System.Drawing.SizeF(96.0!, 96.0!) Me.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Dpi Me.AutoScroll = True Me.ClientSize = New System.Drawing.Size(240, 268) Me.Controls.Add(Me.TreeView1) Me.Menu = Me.mainMenu1 Me.Name = "frmTree" Me.Text = "frmTree" Me.ResumeLayout(False) End Sub #End Region End Class

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  • Is it faster to do the pages first and CSS second, or should I do them at the same time?

    - by Fred Haslam
    I have been tasked with building a new web project from scratch, with the exception of reusing CSS files (the look and feel) from an existing project. In the past I have always completed development of the functionality and the web-ui before considering the appearance. This is mostly due to CSS development overlapping with the tail end of the project. I now have the opportunity to integrate a static set of CSS as I build the application. I have no experience with this circumstance. Would it be faster to develop the project and web-pages first, then integrate the CSS; or would it be faster to integrate the CSS as part of page development?

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  • What are cons if we use javascript to apply css selectors to that browser who do not support that pr

    - by metal-gear-solid
    What are cons if we use JavaScript to apply only CSS property/selectors to that browser who do not support that property by default? to keep my HTML semantic and keep free from Deprecated HTML. Is it against content, style and Behavior separation? If I make accessible site then should i only use whatever i can do with pure css. shouldn't use JavaScript to apply CSS properties. I know those css properties which I'm applying through javascript will not work if javascript is disabled. then due to this reason shouldn't use javascript to apply css never. I'm talking about using these type of stuffs http://www.fetchak.com/ie-css3/ http://code.google.com/p/ie7-js/

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  • Retrieving/Updating Entity Framework POCO objects that already exist in the ObjectContext

    - by jslatts
    I have a project using Entity Framework 4.0 with POCOs (data is stored in SQL DB, lazyloading is enabled) as follows: public class ParentObject { public int ID {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } public class ChildObject { public int ID {get; set;} public int ChildRoleID {get; set;} public int ParentID {get; set;} public virtual ParentObject Parent {get; set;} public virtual ChildRoleObject ChildRole {get; set;} } public class ChildRoleObject { public int ID {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } I want to create a new ChildObject, assign it a role, then add it to an existing ParentObject. Afterwards, I want to send the new ChildObject to the caller. The code below works fine until it tries to get the object back from the database. The newChildObjectInstance only has the ChildRoleID set and does not contain a reference to the actual ChildRole object. I try and pull the new instance back out of the database in order to populate the ChildRole property. Unfortunately, in this case, instead of creating a new instance of ChildObject and assigning it to retreivedChildObject, EF finds the existing ChildObject in the context and returns the in-memory instance, with a null ChildRole property. public ChildObject CreateNewChild(int id, int roleID) { SomeObjectContext myRepository = new SomeObjectContext(); ParentObject parentObjectInstance = myRepository.GetParentObject(id); ChildObject newChildObjectInstance = new ChildObject() { ParentObject = parentObjectInstance, ParentID = parentObjectInstance.ID, ChildRoleID = roleID }; parentObjectInstance.children.Add(newChildObjectInstance); myRepository.Save(); ChildObject retreivedChildObject = myRepository.GetChildObject(newChildObjectInstance.ID); string assignedRoleName = retreivedChildObject.ChildRole.Name; //Throws exception, ChildRole is null return retreivedChildObject; } I have tried setting MergeOptions to Overwrite, calling ObjectContext.Refresh() and ObjectContext.DetectChanges() to no avail... I suspect this is related to the proxy objects that EF injects when working with POCOs. Has anyone run into this issue before? If so, what was the solution?

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  • Entity Framework looking for wrong column

    - by m.edmondson
    I'm brand new to the Entity Framework and trying to learn all it can offer. I'm currently working my way through the MVC Music Store tutorial which includes the following code: public ActionResult Browse(string genre) { // Retrieve Genre and its Associated Albums from database var genreModel = storeDB.Genres.Include("Albums") .Single(g => g.Name == genre); return View(genreModel); } as I'm working in VB I converted it like so: Function Browse(ByVal genre As String) As ActionResult 'Retrieve Genre and its Associated Albums from database Dim genreModel = storeDB.Genres.Include("Albums"). _ Single(Function(g) g.Name = genre) Return(View(genreModel)) End Function The problem is I'm getting the following exception: Invalid column name 'GenreGenreId'. Which I know is true, but I can't for the life of my work out where it's getting 'GenreGenreId' from. Probably a basic question but I'll appreciate any help in the right direction. As per requested here is the source for my classes: Album.vb Public Class Album Private _title As String Private _genre As Genre Private _AlbumId As Int32 Private _GenreId As Int32 Private _ArtistId As Int32 Private _Price As Decimal Private _AlbumArtUrl As String Public Property Title As String Get Return _title End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _title = value End Set End Property Public Property AlbumId As Int16 Get Return _AlbumId End Get Set(ByVal value As Int16) _AlbumId = value End Set End Property Public Property GenreId As Int16 Get Return _GenreId End Get Set(ByVal value As Int16) _GenreId = value End Set End Property Public Property ArtistId As Int16 Get Return _ArtistId End Get Set(ByVal value As Int16) _ArtistId = value End Set End Property Public Property AlbumArtUrl As String Get Return _AlbumArtUrl End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _AlbumArtUrl = value End Set End Property Public Property Price As Decimal Get Return _Price End Get Set(ByVal value As Decimal) _Price = value End Set End Property Public Property Genre As Genre Get Return _genre End Get Set(ByVal value As Genre) _genre = value End Set End Property End Class Genre.vb Public Class Genre Dim _genreId As Int32 Dim _Name As String Dim _Description As String Dim _Albums As List(Of Album) Public Property GenreId As Int32 Get Return _genreId End Get Set(ByVal value As Int32) _genreId = value End Set End Property Public Property Name As String Get Return _Name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _Name = value End Set End Property Public Property Description As String Get Return _Description End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _Description = value End Set End Property Public Property Albums As List(Of Album) Get Return _Albums End Get Set(ByVal value As List(Of Album)) _Albums = value End Set End Property End Class MusicStoreEntities.vb Imports System.Data.Entity Namespace MvcApplication1 Public Class MusicStoreEntities Inherits DbContext Public Property Albums As DbSet(Of Album) Public Property Genres As DbSet(Of Genre) End Class End Namespace

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  • .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

    - by tmfkmoney
    I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

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  • Is there a way to avoid IE7 quirks mode while rendering XML + CSS?

    - by Steven Huwig
    I've got some DocBook documentation styled with a CSS xml-stylesheet declaration. It looks great in Firefox, but IE7 doesn't seem to understand the CSS child selectors (e.g. section > title { ... }). I think this is because IE is running in quirks mode to render this XML, and older versions of IE didn't support that CSS syntax at all. The pages I found on the web all seem to focus on HTML and XHTML doctypes and how IE will behave given various permutations of these values. I couldn't find any information about straight XML + CSS. Worse yet, it seems that random XML documents always end up in quirks mode, no matter what format or stylesheet directives they have. Is XML rendering in IE doomed to be IE5.5 compatible? Will I really have to rewrite my CSS?

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  • CSS file not getting downloaded in Visual Studio 2008 SP?

    - by theraneman
    Hi guys, This might sound a little wierd, but all of a sudden the CSS and Javascript files referenced in my master page are not being downloaded while the page is being rendered. I am working on a ASP.NET MVC project and things were all fine like half an hour ago! Here is what I have in head section of the master page, <link href="/Content/MyCSS.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> I can see the CSS class intellisense while designing pages. But in the page source I do not see these files being added. I can see the css being applied in the VS designer. I have tried restarting VS, restarting my machine too. Anyone else faced this situation before. I might go crazy now.

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  • How do I stop a jquery animation based on CSS values?

    - by kevn
    So, I have two divs: #div1 and #div2. I want '#div2' to disappear when '#div1' has the CSS value: top = 0px. Here is the CSS: #div1 { top: 0px; } #div2 { display: block; } if ( $('#div1').css('top') == '0px' ) { $("#div2").hide(); } else { $("div2").fadeIn(); } $("div2").click(function(){ $("#div1").animate({top:"+=315px"}, "slow"); }); The problem I am running into is that I'm changing that CSS value (for #div1) via Javascript and for this reason, my js doesn't acknowledge the change and doesn't make the div disappear (I think). Is there any way to make #div2 disappear when #div1's CSS property top = 0 and reappear whenever it is changed? Or is there a better way to implement this?

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  • How to create custom CSS "on the fly" based on account settings in a Django site?

    - by sdolan
    So I'm writing a Django based website that allows users select a color scheme through an administration interface. I already have middleware/context processors that links the current request (based on domain) to the account. My question is how to dynamically serve the CSS with the account's custom color scheme. I see two options: Add a CSS block to the base template that overrides the styles w/variables passed in through a context processors. Use a custom URL (e.g. "/static/dynamic/css//styles.css") that gets routed to a view that grabs all the necessary values and creates the css file. I'm content with either option, but was wondering if anyone else out there has dealt with similar problems and could give some insight as to "Best Practices".

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  • Entity framework 4 many-to-many insertion?

    - by Saxman
    Hi all, I'm not very familiar with the many-to-many insertion process using Entity Framework 4, POCO. I have a blog with 3 tables: Post, Comment, and Tag. A Post can have many Tags and a Tag can be in many Posts. Here are the Post and Tag models: public class Tag { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(25, ErrorMessage = "Tag name can't exceed 25 characters.")] public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Post> Posts { get; set; } } public class Post { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(512, ErrorMessage = "Title can't exceed 512 characters")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] [AllowHtml] public string Content { get; set; } public string FriendlyUrl { get; set; } public DateTime PostedDate { get; set; } public bool IsActive { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Comment> Comments { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } Now when I'm adding a new post, I'm not sure what would be the right way to do. I'm thinking that I'll have a textbox where I can select multiple tags for that post (this part is already done), in my controller, I will check to see if the tag is already exists or not, if not, then I will insert the new tag. But I'm not even sure based on the models that I've created for EF, will they create a PostsTags table, or they are creating just a Tags and a Posts table and links between the two? How would I insert the new Post and set the tags to that post? Is it just newPost.Tags = Tags (where Tags are the one that got selected, do I even need to check to see if they already exists?), and then something like _post.Add(newPost);? Thanks.

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  • How can I read out the CSS text via Javascript as defined in the stylesheet?

    - by Monokai
    I was thinking of using Javascript to automatically transform CSS3 attributes like border-radius, transform, box-shadow, etc. to their browser specific counterparts. I did some research and found that you can iterate over the stylesheets defined via document.styleSheets. You can find the CSS rules via document.styleSheets[0].cssRules[0].cssText. I want to modify the CSS rules that contain CSS3 attributes by injecting the browser specific attributes with the appropriate vendor-prefix, like -webkit-border-radius, moz-border-radius, etc. However, it seems that the cssText property is preprocessed in each browser, to filter out CSS attributes that it doesn't understand. That practically breaks this idea. Question: is there any way to retrieve the CSS text exactly as defined in the stylesheet? Or: is there another way to accomplish this via Javascript? I'd like to maintain clean CSS files without the need for defining each attribute multiple times for each specific browser.

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  • How to setup custom CSS based on account settings in a Django site?

    - by sdolan
    So I'm writing a Django based website that allows users select a color scheme through an administration interface. I already have middleware/context processors that links the current request (based on domain) to the account. My question is how to dynamically serve the CSS with the account's custom color scheme. I see two options: Add a CSS block to the base template that overrides the styles w/variables passed in through a context processors. Use a custom URL (e.g. "/static/dynamic/css//styles.css") that gets routed to a view that grabs all the necessary values and creates the css file. I'm content with either option, but was wondering if anyone else out there has dealt with similar problems and could give some insight as to "Best Practices".

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  • How to manage css of big websites within team environment without mess?

    - by jitendra
    Where multiple people can work on same css. is it possible to follow semantic name rules even in large websites. If I would write all main css first time with semantic names . then what and how i should guideline/instruction to other developer to maintain css readability, validation . and to know quickly where other are adding their own css if required. Right now every one just go to down and write required css classes ot IDs at bottom. and most of the time they don't write semantic names.

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  • Entity Framework: An object with the same key already exists in the objectstatemanager

    - by NealR
    I see that this question has been asked a lot, however I haven't found anything yet that solves the problem I'm having. Obviously i'm using the Entity Framework to perform an update to a record. Once the updates are complete, however, whenever I try to save I get the following error message: An object with the same key already exists in the objectstatemanager At first I was passing in a collection object from the view that contained a copy of the the ZipCodeTerritory model object zipToUpdate. I changed the code by pulling this object out and just sending in the relevant fields instead. However, I'm still getting the same error. What's also weird is the first time I run this code, it works fine. Any attempt after that I get the error. Controller Here is the code from the method calling the edit function public static string DescriptionOnly(ZipCodeIndex updateZip) { if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(updateZip.newEffectiveDate) || !string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(updateZip.newEndDate)) { return "Neither effective or end date can be present if updating Territory Code only; "; } _updated = 0; foreach (var zipCode in updateZip.displayForPaging.Where(x => x.Update)) { ProcessAllChanges(zipCode, updateZip.newTerritory, updateZip.newStateCode, updateZip.newDescription, updateZip.newChannelCode); } _msg += _updated + " record(s) updated; "; return _msg; } And here is the method that actually does the updating. private static void ProcessAllChanges(ZipCodeTerritory zipToUpdate, string newTerritory, string newStateCode, string newDescription, string newChannelCode) { try { if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newTerritory)) zipToUpdate.IndDistrnId = newTerritory; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newStateCode)) zipToUpdate.StateCode = newStateCode; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newDescription)) zipToUpdate.DrmTerrDesc = newDescription; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newChannelCode)) zipToUpdate.ChannelCode = newChannelCode; if (zipToUpdate.EndDate == DateTime.MinValue) zipToUpdate.EndDate = DateTime.MaxValue; _db.Entry(zipToUpdate).State = EntityState.Modified; _db.SaveChanges(); _updated++; } catch (DbEntityValidationException dbEx) { _msg += "Error during update; "; EventLog.WriteEntry("Monet", "Error during ProcessAllChanges: " + zipToUpdate.ToString() + " |EX| " + dbEx.Message); } catch (Exception ex) { _msg += "Error during update; "; EventLog.WriteEntry("Monet", "Error during ProcessAllChanges: " + zipToUpdate.ToString() + " |MESSAGE| " + ex.Message); } } EDIT The ZipCodeIndex object contains a list of ZipCodeTerritory model objects. These aren't being pulled from a linq query, but instead simply passed back to the controller from the view. Here is the signature of the controller method that starts the process: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Update(ZipCodeIndex updateZip, string button)

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  • Entity Framework and multi-tenancy database design

    - by Junto
    I am looking at multi-tenancy database schema design for an SaaS concept. It will be ASP.NET MVC - EF, but that isn't so important. Below you can see an example database schema (the Tenant being the Company). The CompanyId is replicated throughout the schema and the primary key has been placed on both the natural key, plus the tenant Id. Plugging this schema into the Entity Framework gives the following errors when I add the tables into the Entity Model file (Model1.edmx): The relationship 'FK_Order_Customer' uses the set of foreign keys '{CustomerId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderId, CompanyId}' of the table 'Order'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Customer' uses the set of foreign keys '{CustomerId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Order' uses the set of foreign keys '{OrderId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_Order_Customer' uses the set of foreign keys '{CustomerId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderId, CompanyId}' of the table 'Order'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Customer' uses the set of foreign keys '{CustomerId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Order' uses the set of foreign keys '{OrderId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Product' uses the set of foreign keys '{ProductId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The question is in two parts: Is my database design incorrect? Should I refrain from these compound primary keys? I'm questioning my sanity regarding the fundamental schema design (frazzled brain syndrome). Please feel free to suggest the 'idealized' schema. Alternatively, if the database design is correct, then is EF unable to match the keys because it perceives these foreign keys as a potential mis-configured 1:1 relationships (incorrectly)? In which case, is this an EF bug and how can I work around it?

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  • Opening an SQL CE file at runtime with Entity Framework 4

    - by David Veeneman
    I am getting started with Entity Framework 4, and I an creating a demo app as a learning exercise. The app is a simple documentation builder, and it uses a SQL CE store. Each documentation project has its own SQL CE data file, and the user opens one of these files to work on a project. The EDM is very simple. A documentation project is comprised of a list of subjects, each of which has a title, a description, and zero or more notes. So, my entities are Subject, which contains Title and Text properties, and Note, which has Title and Text properties. There is a one-to-many association from Subject to Note. I am trying to figure out how to open an SQL CE data file. A data file must match the schema of the SQL CE database created by EF4's Create Database Wizard, and I will implement a New File use case elsewhere in the app to implement that requirement. Right now, I am just trying to get an existing data file open in the app. I have reproduced my existing 'Open File' code below. I have set it up as a static service class called File Services. The code isn't working quite yet, but there is enough to show what I am trying to do. I am trying to hold the ObjectContext open for entity object updates, disposing it when the file is closed. So, here is my question: Am I on the right track? What do I need to change to make this code work with EF4? Is there an example of how to do this properly? Thanks for your help. My existing code: public static class FileServices { #region Private Fields // Member variables private static EntityConnection m_EntityConnection; private static ObjectContext m_ObjectContext; #endregion #region Service Methods /// <summary> /// Opens an SQL CE database file. /// </summary> /// <param name="filePath">The path to the SQL CE file to open.</param> /// <param name="viewModel">The main window view model.</param> public static void OpenSqlCeFile(string filePath, MainWindowViewModel viewModel) { // Configure an SQL CE connection string var sqlCeConnectionString = string.Format("Data Source={0}", filePath); // Configure an EDM connection string var builder = new EntityConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.Metadata = "res://*/EF4Model.csdl|res://*/EF4Model.ssdl|res://*/EF4Model.msl"; builder.Provider = "System.Data.SqlServerCe"; builder.ProviderConnectionString = sqlCeConnectionString; var entityConnectionString = builder.ToString(); // Connect to the model m_EntityConnection = new EntityConnection(entityConnectionString); m_EntityConnection.Open(); // Create an object context m_ObjectContext = new Model1Container(); // Get all Subject data IQueryable<Subject> subjects = from s in Subjects orderby s.Title select s; // Set view model data property viewModel.Subjects = new ObservableCollection<Subject>(subjects); } /// <summary> /// Closes an SQL CE database file. /// </summary> public static void CloseSqlCeFile() { m_EntityConnection.Close(); m_ObjectContext.Dispose(); } #endregion }

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  • Getting code-first Entity Framework to build tables on SQL Azure

    - by NER1808
    I am new the code-first Entity Framework. I have tried a few things now, but can't get EF to construct any tables in the my SQL Azure database. Can anyone advise of some steps and settings I should check. The membership provider has no problems create it's tables. I have added the PersistSecurityInfo=True in the connection string. The connection string is using the main user account for the server. When I implement the tables in the database using sql everything works fine. I have the following in the WebRole.cs //Initialize the database Database.SetInitializer<ReykerSCPContext>(new DbInitializer()); My DbInitializer (which does not get run before I get a "Invalid object name 'dbo.ClientAccountIFAs'." when I try to access the table for the first time. Sometime after startup. public class DbInitializer:DropCreateDatabaseIfModelChanges<ReykerSCPContext> { protected override void Seed(ReykerSCPContext context) { using (context) { //Add Doc Types context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 1, Description = "Statement" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 2, Description = "Contract note" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 3, Description = "Notification" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 4, Description = "Invoice" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 5, Description = "Document" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 6, Description = "Newsletter" }); context.DocTypes.Add(new DocType() { DocTypeId = 7, Description = "Terms and Conditions" }); //Add ReykerAccounttypes context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 1, Description = "ISA" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 2, Description = "Trading" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 3, Description = "SIPP" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 4, Description = "CTF" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 5, Description = "JISA" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 6, Description = "Direct" }); context.ReykerAccountTypes.Add(new ReykerAccountType() { ReykerAccountTypeID = 7, Description = "ISA & Direct" }); //Save the changes context.SaveChanges(); } and my DBContext class looks like public class ReykerSCPContext : DbContext { //set the connection explicitly public ReykerSCPContext():base("ReykerSCPContext"){} //define tables public DbSet<ClientAccountIFA> ClientAccountIFAs { get; set; } public DbSet<Document> Documents { get; set; } public DbSet<DocType> DocTypes { get; set; } public DbSet<ReykerAccountType> ReykerAccountTypes { get; set; } protected override void OnModelCreating(DbModelBuilder modelBuilder) { //Runs when creating the model. Can use to define special relationships, such as many-to-many. } The code used to access the is public List<ClientAccountIFA> GetAllClientAccountIFAs() { using (DataContext) { var caiCollection = from c in DataContext.ClientAccountIFAs select c; return caiCollection.ToList(); } } and it errors on the last line. Help!

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  • CSS, JS and images are not loading while sharing WAMP over local network

    - by Hardik Thaker
    I have share my wamp over my personal LAN . (Server IP : 192.168.0.100) When I am trying to access wamp server it's working perfectly. But when I open website hosted on server using client machine (192.168.0.103) , it doesn't load CSS - Images and JS files. So I saw console and found that my browser is trying to load : localhost//mysite/css/style.css And failing to load resource. now when I try to load the same resource directly from browser using 192.168.0.100/mysite/css/style.css It's showing me css file ! Now I am confused how to solve this problem so that my browser load that css perfectly ! Please help me ! thanks in advance !

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