Search Results

Search found 3679 results on 148 pages for 'definition'.

Page 109/148 | < Previous Page | 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116  | Next Page >

  • .NET Test Harness what should it have

    - by Conor
    Hi Folks, We have a software house developing code for us on a project, .NET Web Service (WCF) and we are also paying for a test harness to be built as a separate billable task on a daily rate. I have just joined the company and am reviewing what we are getting from the software house and wanted to know what you guys in industry thought about it? Basically what we got was a WinForm that called the w/s that had an input area (Web Service Request) to drop our XML a Submit button along with a response area for the result of the Web Response and that's it... Our internal BA has created all the xml request documents so there was no logic put into the harness around this. Looking on the Net for a definition of a Test Harness I got this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Test_harness It states it should have these 3 below things: Automate the testing process. Execute test suites of test cases. Generate associated test reports. Clearly we have got none of this apart from a partial "Automate the testing process" via a WinForm. OK, from my development background I would expect someone to Produce a WinForm as a test harness 5 years ago and really should be using some sort of Tooling around this, I explicitly told the Software House I expected some sort of tooling (NUnit,NBUnit, SOAPIU) so we could create a regression test pack for future use. [Didn’t get it but I asked for this after the requirements were signed off as I wasn’t employed then :)] Would someone be able to clarify with me if my requirement for this is over realistic, I know if I did this, I would use NUnit and TDD and then reuse the test harness as a regression test pack in future? I am interested to see what the community thought. Cheers

    Read the article

  • Dynamic programming in VB

    - by Rahul Jain
    Hello Everybody, We develop applications for SAP using their SDK. SAP provides a SDK for changing and handling events occuring in the user interface. For example, with this SDK we can catch a click on a button and do something on the click. This programming can be done either VB or C#. This can also be used to create new fields on the pre-existing form. We have developed a specific application which allows users to store the definition required for new field in a database table and the fields are created at the run time. So far, this is good. What we require now is that the user should be able to store the validation code for the field in the database and the same should be executed on the run time. Following is an example of such an event: Private Sub SBO_Application_ItemEvent(ByVal FormUID As String, ByRef pVal As SAPbouiCOM.ItemEvent, ByRef BubbleEvent As Boolean) Handles SBO_Application.ItemEvent Dim oForm As SAPbouiCOM.Form If pVal.FormTypeEx = "ACC_QPLAN" Then If pVal.EventType = SAPbouiCOM.BoEventTypes.et_LOST_FOCUS And pVal.BeforeAction = False Then oProdRec.ItemPressEvent(pVal) End If End If End Sub Public Sub ItemPressEvent(ByRef pVal As SAPbouiCOM.ItemEvent) Dim oForm As SAPbouiCOM.Form oForm = oSuyash.SBO_Application.Forms.GetForm(pVal.FormTypeEx, pVal.FormTypeCount) If pVal.EventType = SAPbouiCOM.BoEventTypes.et_LOST_FOCUS And pVal.BeforeAction = False Then If pVal.ItemUID = "AC_TXT5" Then Dim CardCode, ItemCode As String ItemCode = oForm.Items.Item("AC_TXT2").Specific.Value CardCode = oForm.Items.Item("AC_TXT0").Specific.Value UpdateQty(oForm, CardCode, ItemCode) End If End If End Sub So, what we need in this case is to store the code given in the ItemPressEvent in a database, and execute this in runtime. I know this is not straight forward thing. But I presume there must be some ways of getting these kind of things done. The SDK is made up of COM components. Thanks & Regards, Rahul Jain

    Read the article

  • Websphere logs report {0} File not found, but application continues to work without issues

    - by Eric
    A websphere 6.1 server is running a struts application that seems to be working fine. In the logs, however, I'm seeing the following error message, which is being continually emailed to the support staff. com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebAppErrorReport: SRVE0190E: File not found: {0} at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebAppDispatcherContext.sendError(WebAppDispatcherContext.java:536) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.srt.SRTServletResponse.sendError(SRTServletResponse.java:930) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.extension.DefaultExtensionProcessor.handleRequest(DefaultExtensionProcessor.java:524) at com.ibm.ws.wswebcontainer.extension.DefaultExtensionProcessor.handleRequest(DefaultExtensionProcessor.java:111) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebApp.handleRequest(WebApp.java:3129) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebGroup.handleRequest(WebGroup.java:238) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.WebContainer.handleRequest(WebContainer.java:811) at com.ibm.ws.wswebcontainer.WebContainer.handleRequest(WebContainer.java:1433) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.channel.WCChannelLink.ready(WCChannelLink.java:93) I can narrow down the issue to a single Action and JSP, which are too big to show here, but here's the action definition in struts-config.xml: <action path="/HappyDefaultThing" name="HappyDefaultThingActionForm" type="com.foo.webadministration.action.HappyDefaultThingAction" validate="true" input="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp" scope="session"> <forward name="success" path="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp"/> <forward name="failure" path="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp"/> </action> As far as I can see, nothing is missing, and everything necessary is being found, but the logs say "File not found: {0}" What is "{0}"?? The stack trace only shows IBMs code, which I can't see the source of, and therefore can't trace. Is this a bug in the websphere code? I'd appreciate any help.

    Read the article

  • Firebird sequence-backed ID shorthand

    - by pilcrow
    What do others do to simplify the creation of simple, serial surrogate keys populated by a SEQUENCE (a.k.a. GENERATOR) in Firebird = 2.1? I finc the process comparatively arduous: For example, in PostgreSQL, I simply type: pg> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id SERIAL NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, > ... In MySQL, I simply type: my> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTO_INCREMENT, > ... But in Firebird I type: fb> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id BIGINT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, > ... fb> CREATE SEQUENCE tbl_id_seq; fb> SET TERM !!; > CREATE TRIGGER tbl_id_trg FOR tbl > ACTIVE BEFORE INSERT POSITION 0 > AS > BEGIN > IF ((new.id IS NULL) OR (new.id <= 0)) THEN > BEGIN > new.id = GEN_ID(tbl_id_seq, 1); > END > END !! > SET TERM ; !! ... and I get pretty bored by the time I reach trigger definition. However, I routinely make SEQUENCE-backed ID fields for temporary, developement and throw-away tables. What do others do to simplify this? Work with an IDE? Run a pre-processing, in-house perl script over the DDL file? Etc.

    Read the article

  • Loading Liferay Properties from Spring IoC container (to get jdbc connection parameters)

    - by mox601
    I'm developing some portlets for Liferay Portal 5.2.3 with bundled tomcat 6.0.18 using Spring IoC container. I need to map the User_ table used in Liferay database to an entity with Hibernate, so I need to use two different dataSources to separate the liferay db from the db used by portlets. My jdbc.properties has to hold all connection parameters for both databases: no problem for the one used by portlets, but I am having issues determining which database uses liferay to hold its data. My conclusion is that i should have something like this: liferayConnection.url=jdbc:hsqldb:${liferay.home}/data/hsql/lportal in order to get the database url dynamically loaded, according to Liferay properties found in portal-ext.properties. (Or, better, load the whole portal-ext.properties and read database properties from there). The problem is that the placeholder is not resolved: Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'liferayDataSource' defined in class path resource [WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'liferay.home' To dodge this problem I tried to load explicitly portal-ext.properties with a Spring bean: <bean id="liferayPropertiesConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" p:location="../../portal-ext.properties"/> but no luck: liferay.home is not resolved but there aren't other errors. How can I resolve the placeholder defined by Liferay? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Attempting my first fortran 95 program, to solve quadratic eqn. Getting weird errors.

    - by Damon
    So, I'm attempting my first program in Fortran, trying to solve quadratic eqn. I have double and triple checked my code and don't see anything wrong. I keep getting "Invalid character in name at (1)" and "Unclassifiable statement at (1)" at various locations. Any help would be greatly appreciated... ! This program solves quadratic equations ! of the form ax^2 + bx + c = 0. ! Record: ! Name: Date: Notes: ! Damon Robles 4/3/10 Original Code PROGRAM quad_solv IMPLICIT NONE ! Variables REAL :: a, b, c REAL :: discrim, root1, root2, COMPLEX :: comp1, comp2 CHARACTER(len=1) :: correct ! Prompt user for coefficients. WRITE(*,*) "This program solves quadratic equations " WRITE(*,*) "of the form ax^2 + bx + c = 0. " WRITE(*,*) "Please enter the coefficients a, b, and " WRITE(*,*) "c, separated by commas:" READ(*,*) a, b, c WRITE(*,*) "Is this correct: a = ", a, " b = ", b WRITE(*,*) " c = ", c, " [Y/N]? " READ(*,*) correct IF correct = N STOP IF correct = Y THEN ! Definition discrim = b**2 - 4*a*c ! Calculations IF discrim > 0 THEN root1 = (-b + sqrt(discrim))/(2*a) root2 = (-b - sqrt(discrim))/(2*a) WRITE(*,*) "This equation has two real roots. " WRITE(*,*) "x1 = ", root1 WRITE(*,*) "x2 = ", root2 IF discrim = 0 THEN root1 = -b/(2*a) WRITE(*,*) "This equation has a double root. " WRITE(*,*) "x1 = ", root1 IF discrim < 0 THEN comp1 = (-b + sqrt(discrim))/(2*a) comp2 = (-b - sqrt(discrim))/(2*a) WRITE(*,*) "x1 = ", comp1 WRITE(*,*) "x2 = ", comp2 PROGRAM END quad_solv Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Binding DataGridComboBoxColumn to a one to many entity framework relation

    - by Cristian
    I have two tables in the model, one table contains entries related to the other table in a one to many relations, for example: Table User ID Name Table Comments ID UserID Title Text I want to show a datagrid in a WPF window with two columns, one text column with the User name and another column with a combobox showing all the comments made by the user. The datagrid definition is like this: <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" [layout options...] Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Name" Binding="{Binding Path=Name}"/> <DataGridComboBoxColumn Header="Comments" SelectedValueBinding="{Binding Path=UserID}" SelectedValuePath="ID" DisplayMemberPath="Title" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Comments}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> in the code I assign the DataContext like this: dataGrid1.DataContext = entities.Users; The entity User has a property named Comments that leads to all the comments made by the user. The queries are returning data and the user names are shown but the combobox is not being filled. May be the approach is totally wrong or I'm just missing a very simple point here, I'm opened to learn better methods to do this. Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Content Web Form - content from placeholder disappears

    - by Naeem Sarfraz
    I'm attempting to set a class on the body tag in my asp.net site which uses a master page and content web forms. I simply want to be able to do this by adding a bodycssclass property (see below) to the content web form page directive. It works through the solution below but when i attempt to view Default.aspx the Content1 control loses its content. Any ideas why? Here is how I'm doing it. I have a master page with the following content: <%@ Master Language="C#" ... %> <html><head>...</head> <body id=ctlBody runat=server> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphMain" runat="server" /> </body> </html> it's code behind looks like: public partial class Site : MasterPageBase { public override string BodyCssClass { get { return ctlBody.Attributes["class"]; } set { ctlBody.Attributes["class"] = value; } } } it inherits from: public abstract class MasterPageBase : MasterPage { public abstract string BodyCssClass { get; set; } } my default.aspx is defined as: <%@ Page Title="..." [master page definition etc..] bodycssclass="home" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphMain" runat="server"> Some content </asp:Content> the code behind for this file looks like: public partial class Default : PageBase { ... } and it inherits from : public class PageBase : Page { public string BodyCssClass { get { MasterPageBase mpbCurrent = this.Master as MasterPageBase; return mpbCurrent.BodyCssClass; } set { MasterPageBase mpbCurrent = this.Master as MasterPageBase; mpbCurrent.BodyCssClass = value; } } }

    Read the article

  • multiple compiling errors with basic C++ application on VS2010 Beta 1

    - by ratata
    I just recently installed VS2010 Beta 1 from the Microsoft website , I started a basic C++ Win32 Console Application , that generated the following code: #include "stdafx.h" int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { return 0; } I tried compiling the code just to see how it runs and just then I encountered several(over a 100) compiling errors. Here is the first part of the build output: 1>ClCompile: 1> stdafx.cpp 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(520): error C2065: '_In_opt_z_' : undeclared identifier 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(520): error C2143: syntax error : missing ')' before 'const' 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(520): warning C4229: anachronism used : modifiers on data are ignored 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(520): error C2182: '_invalid_parameter' : illegal use of type 'void' 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(520): error C2491: '_invalid_parameter' : definition of dllimport data not allowed 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(520): error C2059: syntax error : ')' 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(527): error C2065: '_In_opt_z_' : undeclared identifier 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(527): error C2143: syntax error : missing ')' before 'const' 1>c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\crtdefs.h(527): warning C4229: anachronism used : modifiers on data are ignored pastebin for the full list I thought maybe the include files got mixed up by some other compiler version I have installed previously( I have VS 2008 as well) so I reinstalled VS2010 just to overwrite the headers but that didn't do much. Thanks in advance for any help you might offer as I am helpless

    Read the article

  • Should an Event that has no arguments define its own custom EventArgs or simply use System.EventArgs

    - by Mike Rosenblum
    I have an event that is currently defined with no event arguments. That is, the EventArgs it sends is EventArgs.Empty. In this case, it is simplest to declare my Event handler as: EventHandler<System.EventArgs> MyCustomEvent; I do not plan on adding any event arguments to this event, but it is possible that any code could need to change in the future. Therefore, I am leaning towards having all my events always create an empty event args type that inheretis from System.EventArgs, even if there are no event args currently needed. Something like this: public class MyCustomEventArgs : EventArgs { } And then my event definition becomes the following: EventHandler<MyCustomEventArgs> MyCustomEvent; So my question is this: is it better to define my own MyCustomEventArgs, even if it does not add anything beyond inheriting from System.EventArgs, so that event arguments could be added in the future more easily? Or is it better to explicitly define my event as returning System.EventArgs, so that it is clearer to the user that there are no extra event args? I am leaning towards creating custom event arguments for all my events, even if the event arguments are empty. But I was wondering if others thought that making it clearer to the user that the event arguments are empty would be better? Much thanks in advance, Mike

    Read the article

  • refering Tomcat JNDI datasource in persistence.xml

    - by binary_runner
    in server.xml I've defined global resource (I'm using Tomcat 6): <GlobalNamingResources> <Resource name="jdbc/myds" auth="Container" type="javax.sql.DataSource" maxActive="10" maxIdle="3" maxWait="10000" username="sa" password="" driverClassName="org.h2.Driver" url="jdbc:h2:~/.myds/data/db" /> </GlobalNamingResources> I see in catalina.out that this is bound, so I suppose it's OK. In my web app I have the link to the datasource, I'm not sure it's OK: <Context> <ResourceLink global='jdbc/myds' name='jdbc/myds' type="javax.sql.Datasource"/> </Context> and in application there is persistence.xml : <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_2_0.xsd" version="2.0"> <persistence-unit name="oam" transaction-type="RESOURCE_LOCAL"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <non-jta-data-source>jdbc/myds</non-jta-data-source> <!-- class definitions here, nothing else --> <properties> <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.H2Dialect"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> It shuld be OK, but most probably this or the ResourceLink definition is wrong because I'm getting: javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: Name jdbc is not bound in this Context What's wrong and why this does not work ?

    Read the article

  • SQL select descendants of a row

    - by Joey Adams
    Suppose a tree structure is implemented in SQL like this: CREATE TABLE nodes ( id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, parent INTEGER -- references nodes(id) ); Although cycles can be created in this representation, let's assume we never let that happen. The table will only store a collection of roots (records where parent is null) and their descendants. The goal is to, given an id of a node on the table, find all nodes that are descendants of it. A is a descendant of B if either A's parent is B or A's parent is a descendant of B. Note the recursive definition. Here is some sample data: INSERT INTO nodes VALUES (1, NULL); INSERT INTO nodes VALUES (2, 1); INSERT INTO nodes VALUES (3, 2); INSERT INTO nodes VALUES (4, 3); INSERT INTO nodes VALUES (5, 3); INSERT INTO nodes VALUES (6, 2); which represents: 1 `-- 2 |-- 3 | |-- 4 | `-- 5 | `-- 6 We can select the (immediate) children of 1 by doing this: SELECT a.* FROM nodes AS a WHERE parent=1; We can select the children and grandchildren of 1 by doing this: SELECT a.* FROM nodes AS a WHERE parent=1 UNION ALL SELECT b.* FROM nodes AS a, nodes AS b WHERE a.parent=1 AND b.parent=a.id; We can select the children, grandchildren, and great grandchildren of 1 by doing this: SELECT a.* FROM nodes AS a WHERE parent=1 UNION ALL SELECT b.* FROM nodes AS a, nodes AS b WHERE a.parent=1 AND b.parent=a.id UNION ALL SELECT c.* FROM nodes AS a, nodes AS b, nodes AS c WHERE a.parent=1 AND b.parent=a.id AND c.parent=b.id; How can a query be constructed that gets all descendants of node 1 rather than those at a finite depth? It seems like I would need to create a recursive query or something. I'd like to know if such a query would be possible using SQLite. However, if this type of query requires features not available in SQLite, I'm curious to know if it can be done in other SQL databases.

    Read the article

  • How to retain XML string as a string field during XML deserialization

    - by detale
    I got an XML input string and want to deserialize it to an object which partially retain the raw XML. <SetProfile> <sessionId>A81D83BC-09A0-4E32-B440-0000033D7AAD</sessionId> <profileDataXml> <ArrayOfProfileItem> <ProfileItem> <Name>Pulse</Name> <Value>80</Value> </ProfileItem> <ProfileItem> <Name>BloodPresure</Name> <Value>120</Value> </ProfileItem> </ArrayOfProfileItem> </profileDataXml> </SetProfile> The class definition: public class SetProfile { public Guid sessionId; public string profileDataXml; } I hope the deserialization syntax looks like string inputXML = "..."; // the above XML XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(SetProfile)); using (TextReader reader = new StringReader(inputXML)) { SetProfile obj = (SetProfile)xs.Deserialize(reader); // use obj .... } but XMLSerializer will throw an exception and won't output < profileDataXml 's descendants to "profileDataXml" field in raw XML string. Is there any way to implement the deserialization like that?

    Read the article

  • Context menu event handling error - CS1061

    - by MrTemp
    I am still new to c# and wpf This program is a clock with different view and I would like to use the context menu to change between view, but the error says that there is no definition or extension method for the events. Right now I have the event I'm working on popping up a MessageBox just so I know it has run, but I cannot get it to compile. public partial class MainWindow : NavigationWindow { public MainWindow() { //InitializeComponent(); } public void AnalogMenu_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /*AnalogClock analog = new AnalogClock(); this.NavigationService.Navigate(analog);*/ } public void DigitalMenu_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Digital Clicked"); /*DigitalClock digital = new DigitalClock(); this.NavigationService.Navigate(digital);*/ } public void BinaryMenu_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /*BinaryClock binary = new BinaryClock(); this.NavigationService.Navigate(binary);*/ } } and the xaml call if you want it <NavigationWindow.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu Name="ClockMenu" > <MenuItem Name="ToAnalog" Header="To Analog" ToolTip="Changes to an analog clock"/> <MenuItem Name="ToDigital" Header="To Digital" ToolTip="Changes to a digital clock" Click="DigitalMenu_Click" /> <MenuItem Name="ToBinary" Header="To Binary" ToolTip="Changes to a binary clock"/> </ContextMenu> </NavigationWindow.ContextMenu>

    Read the article

  • Changing App.config at Runtime

    - by born to hula
    I'm writing a test winforms / C# / .NET 3.5 application for the system we're developing and we fell in the need to switch between .config files at runtime, but this is turning out to be a nightmare. Here's the scene: the Winforms application is aimed at testing a WebApp, divided into 5 subsystems. The test proccess works with messages being sent between the subsystems, and for this proccess to be sucessful each subsystem got to have its own .config file. For my Test Application I wrote 5 separate configuration files. I wish I was able to switch between these 5 files during runtime, but the problem is: I can programatically edit the application .config file inumerous times, but these changes will only take effect once. I've been searching a long time for a form to address this problem but I still wasn't sucessful. I know the problem definition may be a bit confusing but I would really appreciate it if someone helped me. Thanks in advance! --- UPDATE 01-06-10 --- There's something I didn't mention before. Originally, our system is a Web Application with WCF calls between each subsystem. For performance testing reasons (we're using ANTS 4), we had to create a local copy of the assemblies and reference them from the test project. It may sound a bit wrong, but we couldn't find a satisfying way to measure performance of a remote application. --- End Update --- Here's what I'm doing: public void UpdateAppSettings(string key, string value) { XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); foreach (XmlElement item in xmlDoc.DocumentElement) { foreach (XmlNode node in item.ChildNodes) { if (node.Name == key) { node.Attributes[0].Value = value; break; } } } xmlDoc.Save(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("section/subSection"); }

    Read the article

  • XML: How to reprepresent objects with multiple occurences?

    - by savras
    hi, i need to save objects that can occur multiple times. each object is marked with unique identifier. when it is serialized first time all its properties are written. after that only references are used. <actionHistory> <add> <figure id="1" xsi:type="point"> <position x="1" y="2" /> </figure> </add> <change> <target ref="1" /> <property>x</property> <value>3</value> </change> </actionHistory> element 'target' only references to point saved before, but it can contain definition of new figure as well. there is also figure class hierarchy involved. is there any way to express it using xml-schema? any suggestions how to improve code above will be also appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to do fixed price quote for design sessions?

    - by Shaul
    Normally when I do a system for a customer, I do design sessions on an hourly rate and then come out with a fixed price quotation for the full system development. Now this customer has thrown me a curveball: he doesn't want an hourly rate for design, either - he wants me to quote a fixed price to do all the design, too! Not that he's trying to cheap out, but he doesn't want to be in a situation where the longer design stretches out, the more he has to pay - and I can understand that. For the business layer it was actually not too difficult to work with this, because from his original functional spec I got a good idea of what the core business objects were, and in our design agreement I defined several objects which would be covered by a fixed design price; if any new non-trivial objects were discovered, they would be considered variances, and those would be billed on an hourly rate. So far so good. But when it comes to the UI, things start getting a lot more woolly. How many screens will there be? Don't know yet. What's going to be on each screen? Don't know yet. All we know is that it's a "dashboard" type of system, and there will be a lot of visual reporting involved e.g. gauges, graphs, etc. So maybe make it fixed price per screen design? Not a great definition; he might say that everything is going to be on one screen. Maybe a price per "visual report" design, including ability to slice & dice? Again not so easy - it might be that the entire system is just one report, and all the intelligence is going to go into how to present that segmentation. Anyone have any ideas how to do a fixed price quotation for a UI design like this?

    Read the article

  • doublechecking: no db-wide 'unicode switch' for sql server in the foreseeable future, i.e. like Orac

    - by user72150
    Hi all, I believe I know the answer to this question, but wanted to confirm: Question Does Sql server (or will it in the foreseeable future), offer a database-wide "unicode switch" which says "store all characters in unicode (UTF-16, UCS-2, etc)", i.e. like Oracle. The Context Our application has provided "CJK" (Chinese-Japanese-Korean) support for years--using Oracle as the db store. Recently folks have been asking for the same support in sql server. We store our db schema definition in xml and generate the vendor-specific definitions (oracle, sql server) using vendor-specific xsl. We can make the change easily. The problem is for upgrades. Generated scripts would need to change the column types for 100+ columns from varchar to nvarchar, varchar(max) to nvarchar(max), etc. These changes require dropping and recreating indexes and foreign keys if the any indexes/fk's exist on the column. Non-trivial. Risky. DB-wide character encodings for us would eliminate programming changes. (I.e. we would not to change the column types from varchar to nvarchar; sql server would correctly store unicode data in varchar columns). I had thought that eventually sql server would "see the light" and allow storing unicode in varchar/clob columns. Evidently not yet. Recap So just to triple check: does mssql offer a database-wide switch for character encoding? Will it in SQL2008R3? or 2010? thanks, bill

    Read the article

  • Jsystem AutoITAgent does not work - java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/apache/xmlrpc/WebServer

    - by lasombra
    Even so the jar files exists and are in the correct folder, I get the NoClassDefFoundError. Why? What I am doing wrong? The Classpath definition is .\thirdparty\lib\;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\ant-jsystem.jar;C:jsystem\runner\lib\cli.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\commons-logging-1.1.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\embeddedCatalina.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\fileParser.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\filetransfer.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\j2autoit.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystem-launcher.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemAgent.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemApp.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemCommon.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemCore.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\snmp.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\stations.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\swing.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\tcl.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\vbshell.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\web.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\wget.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-client-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-common-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-server-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\j2autoit\j2autoit.jar C:\jsystem\runner Setting J2AutoIt Agent to use the port: 8888 Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/apache/xmlrpc/WebServer at com.jsystem.j2autoit.AutoItAgent.startAutoItWebServer(AutoItAgent.java:665) at com.jsystem.j2autoit.AutoItAgent.main(AutoItAgent.java:348) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.apache.xmlrpc.WebServer at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) ... 2 more

    Read the article

  • xsd.exe - schema to class - for use with WCF

    - by NealWalters
    I have created a schema as an agreed upon interface between our company and an external company. I am now creating a WCF C# web service to handle the interface. I ran the XSD utility and it created a C# class. The schema was built in BizTalk, and references other schemas, so all-in-all there are over 15 classes being generated. I put [DataContract} attribute in front of each of the classes. Do I have to put the [DataMember] attribute on every single property? When I generate a test client program, the proxy does not have any code for any of these 15 classes. We used to use this technique when using .asmx services, but not sure if it will work the same with WCF. If we change the schema, we would want to regenerate the WCF class, and then we would haev to each time redecorate it with all the [DataMember] attributes? Is there an newer tool similar to XSD.exe that will work better with WCF? Thanks, Neal Walters SOLUTION (buried in one of Saunders answer/comments): Add the XmlSerializerFormat to the Interface definition: [OperationContract] [XmlSerializerFormat] // ADD THIS LINE Transaction SubmitTransaction(Transaction transactionIn); Two notes: 1) After I did this, I saw a lot more .xsds in the my proxy (Service Reference) test client program, but I didn't see the new classes in my intellisense. 2) For some reason, until I did a build on the project, I didn't get all the classes in the intellisense (not sure why).

    Read the article

  • XamlWriter fails to serialize objects in WinForms app

    - by Eddie
    Apparently XamlWriter doesn't works correctly in a WinForms application. XamlWriter uses MarkupWriter.GetMarkupObjectFor(object obj). I suppose that there's a problem to determine the full list of properties to serialize. var ar = new AssemblyReference(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies().First()); var str = XamlWriter.Save(ar); Running an ASP.NET or WPF application I got this result: <AssemblyReference AssemblyName="mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" HintPath="file:///c:/WINDOWS/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/mscorlib.dll" SpecificVersion="False" xmlns="clr-namespace:Ivolutia.TypeModel;assembly=ivoTypeModel" /> But running the same code in a WinForms application I got this: <AssemblyReference xmlns="clr-namespace:Ivolutia.TypeModel;assembly=ivoTypeModel" /> this is the class definition: public class AssemblyReference : DependencyObject { public string AssemblyName { get; set; } public string HintPath { get; set; } public bool SpecificVersion { get; set; } public AssemblyReference() { } public AssemblyReference(Assembly assembly) { AssemblyName = assembly.FullName; HintPath = assembly.CodeBase; } public override string ToString() { return AssemblyName; } }

    Read the article

  • vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

    - by intuited
    I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

    Read the article

  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Required Working Precision for the BBP Algorithm?

    - by brainfsck
    Hello, I'm looking to compute the nth digit of Pi in a low-memory environment. As I don't have decimals available to me, this integer-only BBP algorithm in Python has been a great starting point. I only need to calculate one digit of Pi at a time. How can I determine the lowest I can set D, the "number of digits of working precision"? D=4 gives me many correct digits, but a few digits will be off by one. For example, computing digit 393 with precision of 4 gives me 0xafda, from which I extract the digit 0xa. However, the correct digit is 0xb. No matter how high I set D, it seems that testing a sufficient number of digits finds an one where the formula returns an incorrect value. I've tried upping the precision when the digit is "close" to another, e.g. 0x3fff or 0x1000, but cannot find any good definition of "close"; for instance, calculating at digit 9798 gives me 0xcde6 , which is not very close to 0xd000, but the correct digit is 0xd. Can anyone help me figure out how much working precision is needed to calculate a given digit using this algorithm? Thank you,

    Read the article

  • How does 'lazy' work?

    - by Matt Fenwick
    What is the difference between these two functions? I see that lazy is intended to be lazy, but I don't understand how that is accomplished. -- | Identity function. id :: a -> a id x = x -- | The call '(lazy e)' means the same as 'e', but 'lazy' has a -- magical strictness property: it is lazy in its first argument, -- even though its semantics is strict. lazy :: a -> a lazy x = x -- Implementation note: its strictness and unfolding are over-ridden -- by the definition in MkId.lhs; in both cases to nothing at all. -- That way, 'lazy' does not get inlined, and the strictness analyser -- sees it as lazy. Then the worker/wrapper phase inlines it. -- Result: happiness Tracking down the note in MkId.lhs (hopefully this is the right note and version, sorry if it's not): Note [lazyId magic] ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ lazy :: forall a?. a? -> a? (i.e. works for unboxed types too) Used to lazify pseq: pseq a b = a `seq` lazy b Also, no strictness: by being a built-in Id, all the info about lazyId comes from here, not from GHC.Base.hi. This is important, because the strictness analyser will spot it as strict! Also no unfolding in lazyId: it gets "inlined" by a HACK in CorePrep. It's very important to do this inlining after unfoldings are exposed in the interface file. Otherwise, the unfolding for (say) pseq in the interface file will not mention 'lazy', so if we inline 'pseq' we'll totally miss the very thing that 'lazy' was there for in the first place. See Trac #3259 for a real world example. lazyId is defined in GHC.Base, so we don't have to inline it. If it appears un-applied, we'll end up just calling it. I don't understand that because it refers to lazyId instead of lazy. How does lazy work?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116  | Next Page >