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  • resolve access violation exception (0xC0000005) crashing IIS app pool

    - by Joseph
    IIS 7.5, server 2008 r2, classic asp and asp .net 2.0, 3.5 website same server, same app pool. The past 4 weeks thousands of these errors 'C0000005' are occurring. I know from IIS debug diag tool that 'C0000005' is an access violation error. Below is the top line from my debug diag report. In w3wp__PID__6656__Date__01_08_2011__Time_01_42_46AM__281__First Chance Access Violation.dmp the assembly instruction at asp!CActiveScriptEngine::GetApplication+27 in \\?\C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv\asp.dll from Microsoft Corporation has caused an access violation exception (0xC0000005) when trying to read from memory location 0x00000000 on thread 29 Thread 29 - System ID 6736 Entry point 0x00000000 Create time 1/8/2011 12:46:26 AM Time spent in user mode 0 Days 00:00:00.140 Time spent in kernel mode 0 Days 00:00:00.078 Function Source asp!CActiveScriptEngine::GetApplication+27 vbscript!COleScript::GetDebugApplicationCoreNoRef+2b vbscript!COleScript::FDebuggerEnabled+30 vbscript!COleScript::SetScriptSite+cd asp!CActiveScriptEngine::Init+125 asp!CScriptManager::GetEngine+252 asp!AllocAndLoadEngines+28f asp!ExecuteGlobal+17a asp!Execute+b5 asp!CHitObj::ViperAsyncCallback+3fc asp!CViperAsyncRequest::OnCall+6a comsvcs!CSTAActivityWork::STAActivityWorkHelper+32 ole32!EnterForCallback+f4 ole32!SwitchForCallback+1a8 ole32!PerformCallback+a3 ole32!CObjectContext::InternalContextCallback+15b ole32!CObjectContext::DoCallback+1c comsvcs!CSTAActivityWork::DoWork+12f comsvcs!CSTAThread::DoWork+18 comsvcs!CSTAThread::ProcessQueueWork+37 comsvcs!CSTAThread::WorkerLoop+135 msvcrt!_endthreadex+44 msvcrt!_endthreadex+ce kernel32!BaseThreadInitThunk+e ntdll!__RtlUserThreadStart+70 ntdll!_RtlUserThreadStart+1b BELOW is the faulting module. ASP report Executing ASP requests 0 Request(s) ASP templates cached 0 Template(s) ASP template cache size 0.00 Bytes Loaded ASP applications 1 Application(s) ASP.DLL Version 7.5.7600.16620 ASP application report ASP application metabase key Physical Path Virtual Root Session Count 0 Session(s) Request Count 0 Request(s) Session Timeout 0 minutes(s) Path to Global.asa Server side script debugging enabled False Client side script debugging enabled False Out of process COM servers allowed False Session state turned on False Write buffering turned on False Application restart enabled False Parent paths enabled False ASP Script error messages will be sent to browser False ASP!CACTIVESCRIPTENGINE::GETAPPLICATION+27In w3wp__PID__6656__Date__01_08_2011__Time_01_42_46AM__281__First Chance Access Violation.dmp the assembly instruction at asp!CActiveScriptEngine::GetApplication+27 in \\?\C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv\asp.dll from Microsoft Corporation has caused an access violation exception (0xC0000005) when trying to read from memory location 0x00000000 on thread 29 recent events: server was being brute forced by hackers all of Dec and probably earlier, they weren't able to gain access but did get a virus on and blasted out spam. insatlled AVG and about the 17 or 22 latest patches. after that the app pool started crashing and the server has crashed a couple times since then. I am in no mans land as I am a developer and not a sys admin but I have to assume many roles. So I'm reaching out for help. Sometimes I will see hundreds of these 'C0000005' scriptengine errors in the event log in a matter of seconds and other times just a few times an hour. I googled this line 'ASP!CACTIVESCRIPTENGINE::GETAPPLICATION' and got nothing. Its like the function don't exist or something. I have spent many hours google-ing to no avail and am now turning to the experts on the forums. Thank you for your help

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  • Connecting multiple access points

    - by mohsen farahanipoor
    I'm working on a big project. We want to create a wireless network throughout the building with 15 floors. My idea is that we should set up one unified wireless access point at least in each floor...in case of signal attenuate, we use Access point extender/repeater. I selected DWL-6600AP from among D-Link industrial access points. I want to implement a single wireless LAN throughout the building. Is it possible to combines multiple DWL-6600 access points to achieving just a single WLAN? Can a wireless switch controller do this task? Can these Access Points interfere with each other? What is the solution? I read D-Link website's learning materials, but I am still confused. My other question is around the connecting these APs to Wireless Switch Controller - Is it possible to use power line for connecting DWL-6600 to Wireless Switch Controller device? My main goal is that clients with portable devices such as laptops should be easily connected to the network to share & have communication without any more manual configuration as they are already connected to a single network.

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  • Dropdown in Access 2007 parameter query. Why not working

    - by waanders
    Hello, I want a Access parameter query to ask an user for a value (a location in this case). When I type [Enter location] in the Criteria field it works fine: I get a dialog box (Enter Parameter Value) with a textbox and my text (Enter Location). So far, so good. This works (the result also). But now I want a dropdown/combobox (instead of a textbox ) for the user to pick a location. I made a form and type Forms![Form1]![CmbLocation] in the Criteria field. Like this: http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/access/HA011170771033.aspx But I still get a textbox (with the reference as textlabel). What am I doing wrong? Has anybody any advice?

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  • Cannot access an application folder in Program files

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I recently installed Windows 7 Professional 64bit on a new machine. I installed an application using a ClickOnce installer. The application runs fine, but I cannot access the application folder it created in c:\Program files (x86). It bombs with access denied. I try to view the properties on the folder and it takes about 1 minute to display (other folders take 1 second). It says I cannot view any information because I'm not the owner. It doesn't say who the current owner is (instead - Unable to display current owner.) but says I can take ownership. When I try it fails again with Access Denied, even though I have administrative permissions. Why can't I access this folder nor take ownership?

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  • Using CheckPoint SNX with RSA SecurID Software Token to connect to VPN

    - by Vinnie
    I have a fairly specific issue that I'm hoping someone else out in the community has had to tackle with success. My company uses CheckPoint VPN clients on Windows XP machines with RSA SecurID software to generate the tokens. The beauty is that once you generate a token code on the software, you can enter it into any machine trying to connect via VPN and with your username get connected. So, I've got Ubuntu 10.10 32bit on a tower and formerly on a laptop. Through several posts around the web, I was able to get SNX installed on the laptop, plug in my server connection information and be asked for a password only to have the connection fail. I used to debug mode and was able to see that the application was trying to and failing at writing a registry value, but I believe that to be a symptom of a different issue, even though I tried to find a way to remedy that. I'm wondering if anyone out there is on a similar configuration and was able to connect with SNX using an RSA token? If so, what steps did you take to setup and what problems/solutions did you encounter?

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  • Why must we "change temporary credentials for token credentials" in OAuth?

    - by PK
    Can't the server just "upgrade" the temporary credentials to token credentials and retain the same key and secret? The client can then start doing authenticated calls right away after the recieving the callback from the server stating that the temporary credentials has been "upgraded". Of cause if the temporary credentials have not be upgrade (i.e. client doesn't wait for callback) the authenticated call fails. So the question is why make an extra call to the server after the callback to "exchange" temporary credentials for token credentials?

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  • MS Access 2003: Can data disappear from records and how do I test for this and prevent it?

    - by user328960
    Problem and about the database: Data from a record in Access 2003 database has disappeared. This database has 1 backend and 3 frontends, multiple users and is hosted on Citrix. Within this database, we have records of all clients served, ranging in the 1000s. Background info: The form for client data entry is set up with various subforms, including both a "programs enrolled" subform and a "services" subform. A client can be enrolled in multiple programs. Once enrolled in a program, services can be entered for that program area using the services subform. There are multiple fields in the services subform, one of which is a drop-down field allowing you to choose from the programs a client has been enrolled in (the list is updated for that client whenever he is enrolled in a new program). The problem details: For one specific record and one specific program area, the program has disappeared from the "programs enrolled" subform and all of the related services have disappeared from the "services" subform for a period of 3 months of data entry. However, other programs and services for this record did not disappear. Questions: Is the disappearance of data a common Access 2003 problem? Are there tests in place that can be run to see if data is disappearing and catch that data? If so, what are they? If there is specific code involved, what is it? What can be done to prevent the disappearing of data (other than using a different database)?

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  • MS-Access: What could cause one form with a join query to load right and another not?

    - by Daniel Straight
    Form1 Form1 is bound to Table1. Table1 has an ID field. Form2 Form2 is bound to Table2 joined to Table1 on Table2.Table1_ID=Table1.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table2.*, Table1.[FirstFieldINeed], Table1.[SecondFieldINeed], Table1.[ThirdFieldINeed] FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.[Table1_ID]; Form2 is opened with this code in Form1: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form2", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form1", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table1_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form2 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table1 show up correctly. Form3 Form3 is bound to Table3 joined to Table2 on Table3.Table2_ID=Table2.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table3.*, Table2.[FirstFieldINeed], Table2.[SecondFieldINeed] FROM Table2 INNER JOIN Table3 ON Table2.ID = Table3.[Table2_ID]; Form3 is opened with this code in Form2: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form3", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form2", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table2_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form3 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table2 do not show up correctly. WHY? UPDATES I tried making the join query into a separate query and using that as my record source, but it made no difference at all. If I go to the query for Form3 and view it in datasheet view, I can see that the information that should be pulled into the form is there. It just isn't showing up on the form.

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  • MS Access: Why is ADODB.Recordset.BatchUpdate so much slower than Application.ImportXML?

    - by apenwarr
    I'm trying to run the code below to insert a whole lot of records (from a file with a weird file format) into my Access 2003 database from VBA. After many, many experiments, this code is the fastest I've been able to come up with: it does 10000 records in about 15 seconds on my machine. At least 14.5 of those seconds (ie. almost all the time) is in the single call to UpdateBatch. I've read elsewhere that the JET engine doesn't support UpdateBatch. So maybe there's a better way to do it. Now, I would just think the JET engine is plain slow, but that can't be it. After generating the 'testy' table with the code below, I right clicked it, picked Export, and saved it as XML. Then I right clicked, picked Import, and reloaded the XML. Total time to import the XML file? Less than one second, ie. at least 15x faster. Surely there's an efficient way to insert data into Access that doesn't require writing a temp file? Sub TestBatchUpdate() CurrentDb.Execute "create table testy (x int, y int)" Dim rs As New ADODB.Recordset rs.CursorLocation = adUseServer rs.Open "testy", CurrentProject.AccessConnection, _ adOpenStatic, adLockBatchOptimistic, adCmdTableDirect Dim n, v n = Array(0, 1) v = Array(50, 55) Debug.Print "starting loop", Time For i = 1 To 10000 rs.AddNew n, v Next i Debug.Print "done loop", Time rs.UpdateBatch Debug.Print "done update", Time CurrentDb.Execute "drop table testy" End Sub I would be willing to resort to C/C++ if there's some API that would let me do fast inserts that way. But I can't seem to find it. It can't be that Application.ImportXML is using undocumented APIs, can it?

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  • How should I lock the table in this VB6 / Access application?

    - by Brian Hooper
    I'm working on a VB6 application using an Access database. The application writes messages to a log table from time to time. Several instances of the application may be running simultaneously and to distinguish them they each have their own run number. The run number is deduced from the log table thus... Set record_set = New ADODB.Recordset query_string = "SELECT MAX(RUN_NUMBER) + 1 AS NEW_RUN_NUMBER FROM ERROR_LOG" record_set.CursorLocation = adUseClient record_set.Open query_string, database_connection, adOpenStatic, , adCmdText record_set.MoveLast If IsNull(record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER")) Then run_number = 0 Else run_number = record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER") End If command_string = "INSERT INTO ERROR_LOG (RUN_NUMBER, SEVERITY, MESSAGE) " & _ " VALUES (" & Str$(run_number) & ", " & _ " " & Str$(SEVERITY_INFORMATION) & ", " & _ " 'Run Started'); " database_connection.Execute command_string Obviously there is a small gap between the calculation of the run number and the appearance of the new row in the database, and to prevent another instance getting access between the two operations I'd like to lock the table; something along the lines of SET TRANSACTION READ WRITE RESERVING ERROR_LOG FOR PROTECTED WRITE; How should I go about doing this? Would locking the recordset do any good (the row in the record set doesn't match any particular row in the database)?

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  • Unable to access published programs on TS web access - win server 2008 OS

    - by varun
    I am using the TS Web Access feature provided by windows server 2008 to publish programs so that they can be accessed over internet using RDC client. I am able to access the programs from the intranet domain . However, when i try from outside the college network, i am only able to see the published programs but not connect to them as i get an error saying "Remote computer cannot be connected. The certificate subject name and the gateway address requested do not match." . pls note that i have created a self -signed certificate and installed on server myself. Also, i am using the direct IPAddress of the server as the gateway address. Since i am able to access programs from with domain , i suspect it to be a simple setting with gateway or certificate. Please let me know if any further info is required on this..any help is appreciated..

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  • Anti-Forgery Request Recipes For ASP.NET MVC And AJAX

    - by Dixin
    Background To secure websites from cross-site request forgery (CSRF, or XSRF) attack, ASP.NET MVC provides an excellent mechanism: The server prints tokens to cookie and inside the form; When the form is submitted to server, token in cookie and token inside the form are sent in the HTTP request; Server validates the tokens. To print tokens to browser, just invoke HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken():<% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%: this.Html.AntiForgeryToken(Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)%> <%-- Other fields. --%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <% } %> This invocation generates a token then writes inside the form:<form action="..." method="post"> <input name="__RequestVerificationToken" type="hidden" value="J56khgCvbE3bVcsCSZkNVuH9Cclm9SSIT/ywruFsXEgmV8CL2eW5C/gGsQUf/YuP" /> <!-- Other fields. --> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> and also writes into the cookie: __RequestVerificationToken_Lw__= J56khgCvbE3bVcsCSZkNVuH9Cclm9SSIT/ywruFsXEgmV8CL2eW5C/gGsQUf/YuP When the above form is submitted, they are both sent to server. In the server side, [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attribute is used to specify the controllers or actions to validate them:[HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult Action(/* ... */) { // ... } This is very productive for form scenarios. But recently, when resolving security vulnerabilities for Web products, some problems are encountered. Specify validation on controller (not on each action) The server side problem is, It is expected to declare [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] on controller, but actually it has be to declared on each POST actions. Because POST actions are usually much more then controllers, the work would be a little crazy. Problem Usually a controller contains actions for HTTP GET and actions for HTTP POST requests, and usually validations are expected for HTTP POST requests. So, if the [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] is declared on the controller, the HTTP GET requests become invalid:[ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public class SomeController : Controller // One [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attribute. { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() // Index() cannot work. { // ... } [HttpPost] public ActionResult PostAction1(/* ... */) { // ... } [HttpPost] public ActionResult PostAction2(/* ... */) { // ... } // ... } If browser sends an HTTP GET request by clicking a link: http://Site/Some/Index, validation definitely fails, because no token is provided. So the result is, [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attribute must be distributed to each POST action:public class SomeController : Controller // Many [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attributes. { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() // Works. { // ... } [HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult PostAction1(/* ... */) { // ... } [HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult PostAction2(/* ... */) { // ... } // ... } This is a little bit crazy, because one application can have a lot of POST actions. Solution To avoid a large number of [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attributes (one for each POST action), the following ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute wrapper class can be helpful, where HTTP verbs can be specified:[AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class | AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public class ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { private readonly ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute _validator; private readonly AcceptVerbsAttribute _verbs; public ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute(HttpVerbs verbs) : this(verbs, null) { } public ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute(HttpVerbs verbs, string salt) { this._verbs = new AcceptVerbsAttribute(verbs); this._validator = new ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute() { Salt = salt }; } public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { string httpMethodOverride = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.GetHttpMethodOverride(); if (this._verbs.Verbs.Contains(httpMethodOverride, StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { this._validator.OnAuthorization(filterContext); } } } When this attribute is declared on controller, only HTTP requests with the specified verbs are validated:[ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapper(HttpVerbs.Post, Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public class SomeController : Controller { // GET actions are not affected. // Only HTTP POST requests are validated. } Now one single attribute on controller turns on validation for all POST actions. Maybe it would be nice if HTTP verbs can be specified on the built-in [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attribute, which is easy to implemented. Specify Non-constant salt in runtime By default, the salt should be a compile time constant, so it can be used for the [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] or [ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapper] attribute. Problem One Web product might be sold to many clients. If a constant salt is evaluated in compile time, after the product is built and deployed to many clients, they all have the same salt. Of course, clients do not like this. Even some clients might want to specify a custom salt in configuration. In these scenarios, salt is required to be a runtime value. Solution In the above [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] and [ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapper] attribute, the salt is passed through constructor. So one solution is to remove this parameter:public class ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute(HttpVerbs verbs) { this._verbs = new AcceptVerbsAttribute(verbs); this._validator = new ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute() { Salt = AntiForgeryToken.Value }; } // Other members. } But here the injected dependency becomes a hard dependency. So the other solution is moving validation code into controller to work around the limitation of attributes:public abstract class AntiForgeryControllerBase : Controller { private readonly ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute _validator; private readonly AcceptVerbsAttribute _verbs; protected AntiForgeryControllerBase(HttpVerbs verbs, string salt) { this._verbs = new AcceptVerbsAttribute(verbs); this._validator = new ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute() { Salt = salt }; } protected override void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { base.OnAuthorization(filterContext); string httpMethodOverride = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.GetHttpMethodOverride(); if (this._verbs.Verbs.Contains(httpMethodOverride, StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { this._validator.OnAuthorization(filterContext); } } } Then make controller classes inheriting from this AntiForgeryControllerBase class. Now the salt is no long required to be a compile time constant. Submit token via AJAX For browser side, once server side turns on anti-forgery validation for HTTP POST, all AJAX POST requests will fail by default. Problem In AJAX scenarios, the HTTP POST request is not sent by form. Take jQuery as an example:$.post(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1 // Token is not posted. }, callback); This kind of AJAX POST requests will always be invalid, because server side code cannot see the token in the posted data. Solution Basically, the tokens must be printed to browser then sent back to server. So first of all, HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken() need to be called somewhere. Now the browser has token in both HTML and cookie. Then jQuery must find the printed token in the HTML, and append token to the data before sending:$.post(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1, __RequestVerificationToken: getToken() // Token is posted. }, callback); To be reusable, this can be encapsulated into a tiny jQuery plugin:/// <reference path="jquery-1.4.2.js" /> (function ($) { $.getAntiForgeryToken = function (tokenWindow, appPath) { // HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken() must be invoked to print the token. tokenWindow = tokenWindow && typeof tokenWindow === typeof window ? tokenWindow : window; appPath = appPath && typeof appPath === "string" ? "_" + appPath.toString() : ""; // The name attribute is either __RequestVerificationToken, // or __RequestVerificationToken_{appPath}. tokenName = "__RequestVerificationToken" + appPath; // Finds the <input type="hidden" name={tokenName} value="..." /> from the specified. // var inputElements = $("input[type='hidden'][name='__RequestVerificationToken" + appPath + "']"); var inputElements = tokenWindow.document.getElementsByTagName("input"); for (var i = 0; i < inputElements.length; i++) { var inputElement = inputElements[i]; if (inputElement.type === "hidden" && inputElement.name === tokenName) { return { name: tokenName, value: inputElement.value }; } } return null; }; $.appendAntiForgeryToken = function (data, token) { // Converts data if not already a string. if (data && typeof data !== "string") { data = $.param(data); } // Gets token from current window by default. token = token ? token : $.getAntiForgeryToken(); // $.getAntiForgeryToken(window). data = data ? data + "&" : ""; // If token exists, appends {token.name}={token.value} to data. return token ? data + encodeURIComponent(token.name) + "=" + encodeURIComponent(token.value) : data; }; // Wraps $.post(url, data, callback, type). $.postAntiForgery = function (url, data, callback, type) { return $.post(url, $.appendAntiForgeryToken(data), callback, type); }; // Wraps $.ajax(settings). $.ajaxAntiForgery = function (settings) { settings.data = $.appendAntiForgeryToken(settings.data); return $.ajax(settings); }; })(jQuery); In most of the scenarios, it is Ok to just replace $.post() invocation with $.postAntiForgery(), and replace $.ajax() with $.ajaxAntiForgery():$.postAntiForgery(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1 }, callback); // Token is posted. There might be some scenarios of custom token, where $.appendAntiForgeryToken() is useful:data = $.appendAntiForgeryToken(data, token); // Token is already in data. No need to invoke $.postAntiForgery(). $.post(url, data, callback); And there are scenarios that the token is not in the current window. For example, an HTTP POST request can be sent by an iframe, while the token is in the parent window. Here, token's container window can be specified for $.getAntiForgeryToken():data = $.appendAntiForgeryToken(data, $.getAntiForgeryToken(window.parent)); // Token is already in data. No need to invoke $.postAntiForgery(). $.post(url, data, callback); If you have better solution, please do tell me.

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  • Not getting the token secret value

    - by Lincy
    I am using my application for twitter oauth with .Net. My problem is that though i am getting oauth token, iam unable to receive the token secret. Also I need the token pairs to be stored in my applications database for exchanging request token for access token. Can some one help?

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  • Installation of Access Database Engine 32-bit Fails

    - by Rayzor78
    I am trying to install Access Database Engine 2007 32-bit. The splash screen comes up, you click "Next", then it fails with the error: Installation ended prematurely because of an error You click "OK" and another error window says: The installation of the package failed. The exact same situation happens when I try this with Access Database Engine 2010 32-bit. This production server is running Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 64-bit. Before I tried installing Access Database Engine 32-bit, I first needed to install Microsoft Office 2010 Pro (Excel and Office Tools only). I tried the 32-bit version on the production server since that is how I set it up in our Dev environment. No luck. The 32-bit version would not install. I did NOT get the error "You have 64-bit components of Office installed". I simply received the exact same two errors listed above. So, I knew that 32-bit/64-bit did not really matter for the Office install for my project, so I installed 64-bit of Office Pro 2010 (Excel and Office Tools only) with no problems. I have a requirement that I need to have the 32-bit version of the Access Database Engine installed. 2007 or 2010, doesn't matter. I cannot use the 64-bit version of Access Database Engine 2010 because my SSIS package will not work with it. I require the 32-bit version. I've tried several steps to try to get it installed. I seriously think that the production server has some aversion to installing 32-bit applications. Here's what I've tried: Tried installing via command line with the "/passive" switch....no luck. Tried numerous iterations to copy the install file to the server (downloaded a fresh copy directly to the server, downloaded a fresh copy to my local machine then copied it over, copied it over zipped up) (http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/sqldataaccess/thread/efd3c1f0-07cd-45ca-a626-2dd0c7ac3e9f). Tried Method 1 from this link. Could not try Method 2 because it requires a server reboot and in my environment that requires a long change management process. I've verified that I am a local administrator on the server. (Evidence, I am able to install other applications (office 64-bit per above)). Verified that there are no other office products that should be blocking the installation. The fore-mentioned install of Excel 2010 64-bit was the first Office product installed on the server. VERY ODD: To test my theory that the production server does not like 32-bit applications, I installed something lightweight. I installed 7-Zip 32-bit on the production server with no problems whatsoever. Here are some things that I have not tried (i will follow-up once I do): Method 2 (as mentioned above). Requires a server reboot. Have not verified that the Dev and Production environments are 100% identical. I've done a cursory check and on the surface they appear to be the same (same OS and SP version). I need to do a deeper dive to be 100% certain. I had no problems in my Dev environment. In Dev, I installed Office 2010 Pro 64-bit (Excel & Office Tools only) then via command line w/ the "/passive" switch, installed Access Database Engine 2010 32-bit. I don't know what else to try. Any suggestions or comments?

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  • Virtual Network Interface and NAT disables localhost access for MySQL and Apache

    - by Interarticle
    I'm running an Ubuntu Server 12.04, and recently I configured it to do NAT for my laptop. Since the server has only one NIC, I followed instructions online to create a virtual network device (eth0:0) that has a LAN IP address, then further configured iptables and UFW to allow internet sharing. However, just a few days ago, I discovered that one of the PHP pages hosted on the server failed for no apparent reason. A little digging revealed that the MySQL server started refusing connections from localhost. The same happened with a page (PhpMyAdmin) that was configured to be accessible only from localhost (in Apache2). The error, as shown by $mysql --protocol=tcp -u root -p looks like ERROR 1130 (HY000): Host '<host name of eth0>' is not allowed to connect to this MySQL server However, the funny thing is, I configured the mysql server to allow root access from localhost (only). Moreover, the mysql server listens only on 127.0.0.1:3306, as shown by: sudo netstat -npa | head Active Internet connections (servers and established) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1029/mysqld which means that the connection could have only come from 127.0.0.1 (Note that MySQL is working because I can still connect to it via unix domain sockets) In effect, it seems that all tcp connections originating from 127.0.0.1 to 127.0.0.1 appear to any local daemon to come from the eth0 IP address. Indeed, apache2 allowed me to access PhpMyAdmin after I added allow <eth0 IP address>. The following are my network configurations (redacted): /etc/hosts: 127.0.0.1 localhost 211.x.x.x <host name of eth0> <server name> #IPv6 Defaults follows .... /etc/network/interfaces: auto lo iface lo inet loopback auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 211.x.x.x netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 211.x.x.x dns-nameservers 8.8.8.8 # dns-* options are implemented by the resolvconf package, if installed dns-search xxxxxxx.com hwaddress ether xx:xx:xx:xx:xx:xx auto eth0:0 iface eth0:0 inet static address 192.168.57.254 netmask 255.255.254.0 broadcast 192.168.57.255 network 192.168.57.0 /etc/ufw/sysctl.conf: #Uncommented the following lines net/ipv4/ip_forward=1 net/ipv6/conf/default/forwarding=1 /etc/default/ufw: DEFAULT_FORWARD_POLICY="ACCEPT" #Changed DROP to ACCEPT /etc/init/internet-sharing.conf (upstart script I wrote), section pre-start script: iptables -A FORWARD -o eth0 -i eth0:0 -s 192.168.57.22 -m conntrack --ctstate NEW -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A POSTROUTING -t nat -j MASQUERADE Note again that my problem here is that programs cannot access localhost tcp services, from the server itself, and that access is blocked because the services have access control allowing only 127.0.0.1. I have no problem connecting (as in TCP connections) to services via tcp, even if the services listen only on 127.0.0.1. I do NOT want to connect to the services from another computer.

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  • Migrating Split Access Database from one domain to another (not working, details in Q)

    - by Expo_Rob
    Some background: I'm a programmer, not a network administrator, who has been asked to migrate some accounting software (Integrated Office Accounting version 3.2) from an existing domain (OLD_NETWORK) to a new domain (NEW_NETWORK). No-body at the office knows how it works under the hood. It is a split Access 2000 database with the back-end shared and on a file server (which is also the DC) using mapped drives. The DC is NT Server 4 SP 6. The new server is server 2003. The two networks are running independently (ie: two computers on each desk). I have been able to get new computers set up on NEW_NETWORK and working with the IOA software just perfectly but for one problem: The company here uses other entirely separate databases which access the tables IOA maintains (specifically the 'customers' table) via links. To switch between these systems, you press F11 then File-Open the appropriate database and away you go (this is necessary to maintain the permissions that the IOA system uses to protect the customers table). The entire database is Access 2000, the links go to other Access databases, SQL-Server is not involved in any way, nor is a migration to SQL server likely. If I can't migrate anything over, everything will stay as it is, and the NEW_NETWORK computers will not be used. The problem: When I try and update these seperate databases (I shall call one "BANK_ACCOUNT", but the name does not matter), it says "this recordset cannot be updated". It also will sometimes not pull information out of the 'customers' table (ie: date_entered) when looking at a report of everyone who opened a bank account on a certain day (ie: today). I have tried: Giving 'everyone' full control via. shared directory permissions Giving 'everyone' full control on a file system level Checking the permissions within Access (everyone has full read/write on all tables) Copying the entire server contents from one file server to another (ie: xcopy everything) Copying the entire local client files from one computer to another, putting them in the exact same position in the file system, with the same permissons (or full control to 'everyone'). Running as an Administrator Taking one of the NEW_NETWORK computers, having it join OLD_NETWORK and run the software (direct copy from a working system with identical drive mappings), this did not work Weeping openly My Question: Is there anything else I can try? (sorry for this being so long)

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  • Using HBase or Cassandra for a token server

    - by crippy
    I've been trying to figure out how to use HBase/Cassandra for a token system we're re-implementing. I can probably squeeze quite a lot more from MySQL, but it just seems it has come to clinging on to the wrong tool for the task just because we know it well. Eventually will hit a wall (like happened to us in other areas). Naturally I started looking into possible NoSQL solutions. The prominent ones (at least in terms of buzz) are HBase and Cassandra. The story is more or less like this: A user can send a gift other users. Each gift has a list of recipients or is public in which case limited by number or expiration date For each gift sent we generate some token that uniquely identifies that gift. For each gift we track the list of potential recipients and their current status relating to that gift (accepted, declinded etc). A user can request to see all his currently pending gifts A can request a list of users he has sent a gift to today (used to limit number of gifts sent) Required the ability to "dump" or "ignore" expired gifts (x day old gifts are considered expired) There are some other requirements but I believe the above covers the essentials. How would I go and model that using HBase or Cassandra? Well, the wall was performance. A few 10s of millions of records per day over 2 tables kept for 2 weeks (wish I could have kept it for more but there was no way). The response times kept getting slower and slower until eventually we had to start cutting down number of days we kept data. Caching helps here but it's not an ideal solution since a big part of the ops are updates. Also, as I hinted in my original post. We use MySQL extensively. We know exactly what it can and can't do both in naive implementations followed by native partitioning and finally by horizontally sharding our dataset on the application level to reside on multiple DB nodes. It can be done, but that's not really what I'm trying to get from this. I asked a very specific question about designing a solution using a NoSQL solution since it's very hard to find examples for designs out there. Brainlag, not trying to come off as rude. I actually appreciate it a lot that you are the only one who even bothered to respond. but I see it over and over again. People ask questions and others assume they have no idea what they're talking about and give an irrelevant answer. Ignore RDBMS please. The question is about nosql.

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  • Portable, battery-powered, wireless access point, ethernet adapter

    - by Jed
    I am in need of an adapter that will convert an ethernet port into a wireless access point. I have found a handful of devices, but I'm unable to find a device that is battery powered. Does a self-powered wireless access point even exist? The particular scenario that I will be using the device for is not your typical computer/PC scenario. For the curious, here's a bit of background on the problem I'm trying to solve: I make devices (controllers) that monitor water systems. Our controllers have a Webserver that serves out web pages so that users can configure the controller's settings. Typically, the user will use a cross-over cable to connect directly to the controller's ethernet port with their laptop to gain access to the controller's web pages. Now that tablets (devices that don't have an ethernet port - iPad, for example) are becoming more common, I need to find a device that will convert the controller's ethernet port into a wireless access point so that the user can connect to the controller's web pages via Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. It's worth noting that this wireless device that I'm looking for will NOT be permanently installed on the controller. It will be a portable device that the user will use on any of his controllers when he needs to make a connection to the controller. If you know of a device that will solve the scenario that I mention above, please share your info.

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  • How to setup a hyper-v domain with internet access

    - by fynnbob
    First off let me say that I'm not a network admin or server guy, I know very little about that stuff. What I'm trying to do is setup a virtualized domain using hyper-V. Here is the configuration: Physical Server: 4Mb RAM Windows Server 2008 R2 running Hyper-V Virtual Environment: One Domain Controller running Windows Server 2008 R2 One Client running Windows Server 2008 R2 I have been successful in setting up a virtual domain controller and adding a virtual client to that domain controller but I'm stuck at trying to give the virtual Environment Internet access. I can give the client VM Internet access if I remove them from the virtual domain but once I add them back to the virtual domain, Internet access is gone. I've read articles describing many different ways this can be done (using RRAS with NAT, using a wireless connection, etc...) but all of those articles only cover a small piece of the setup and also seem to be geared towards people who know there way around networking and servers which I don't. I'd like to know more but my thing is software development and I have my hands full trying to keep up with everything in that realm. I simply want to setup a virtual domain with Internet access for testing. Can anyone point me to any "for Dummy's" type information on how to setup this type of environment or can anyone provide this kind of step-by-step help. Any help would be very much appreciated.

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  • MS Access 2003 - Help understanding the structure of mdb, mde and be.....

    - by Justin
    Hi. I was just wanting some explanation as to what is going on once you have split your tables out into a back end file, and set an mde out for use. When a user accesses the mde, is the mdb still required to get to the tabes (or in order to make it work)? Let say I put these access apps on a shared drive for folks to use. If I split the be end on to the shared drive, and placed the mde on the shared drive, would I the mdb have to exist for that version mde to work (communicate with the tables)? Or does the mde sort of speak to the mdb which speaks to the tables? Hope this question makes sense. Thanks

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