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  • URL Based Internal Redirecting

    - by bculverscate
    Basically, we have one external IP address, several servers internally and want to redirect to each internal server based on request URL. We do not want to install another piece of hardware to do this for us but we have a firewall running Linux that currently forwards to only one of the internal servers. Example of our setup can be seen here: http://img23.imageshack.us/img23/5469/drawing1br.jpg NOTE: domain.com does not point to this box nor would we like it to. Subdomains are pointed manually to our global IP address.

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  • Call a protected method from outside a class in PHP

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have a very special case in which I need to call a protected method from outside a class. I am very conscious about what I do programmingwise, but I would not be entirely opposed to doing so in this one special case I have. In all other cases, I need to continue disallowing access to the internal method, and so I would like to keep the method protected. What are some elegant ways to access a protected method outside of a class? So far, I've found this. I suppose it may be possible create some kind of double-agent instance of the target class that would sneakily provide access to the internals...

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  • Can I make controls defined in my markup public instead of protected

    - by RoboShop
    Say I have a web site with a master page and an aspx page. In my ASPX page, I am pointing to my masterpage with the MasterType tag. <%@ MasterType VirtualPath="~/mymasterpage.master" % Say, I've defined a label in the markup of my master page. If you look at the designer code, this label should be something like this. protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label label1; Now in my content page, I would like to reference this label. If I type in this "Master.label1", the complier will complain that the control is inaccessible due to the protection level" and rightly so, as label1 is automatically defined as "protected". My question is, if I define controls in my markup page, is it possible to set these controls as public instead of protected? I do not see an attribute for it. thanks in advance.

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  • Check whether Excel file is Password protected

    - by Torben Klein
    I am trying to open an Excel (xlsm) file via VBA. It may or may not be protected with a (known) password. I am using this code: On Error Resume Next Workbooks.Open filename, Password:=user_entered_pw opened = (Err.Number=0) On Error Goto 0 Now, this works fine if the workbook has a password. But if it is unprotected, it can NOT be opened. Apparently this is a bug in XL2007 if there is also workbook structure protection active. (http://vbaadventures.blogspot.com/2009/01/possible-error-in-excel-2007.html). On old XL2003, supplying a password would open both unprotected and password protected file. I tried: Workbooks.Open filename, Password:=user_entered_pw If (Err.Number <> 0) Then workbooks.open filename This works for unprotected and protected file. However if the user enters a wrong password it runs into the second line and pops up the "enter password" prompt, which I do not want. How to get around this?

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  • Check wether Excel file is Password protected

    - by Torben Klein
    I am trying to open an Excel (xlsm) file via VBA. It may or may not be protected with a (known) password. I am using this code: On Error Resume Next Workbooks.Open filename, Password:=user_entered_pw opened = (Err.Number=0) On Error Goto 0 Now, this works fine if the workbook has a password. But if it is unprotected, it can NOT be opened. Apparently this is a bug in XL2007 if there is also workbook structure protection active. (http://vbaadventures.blogspot.com/2009/01/possible-error-in-excel-2007.html). On old XL2003, supplying a password would open both unprotected and password protected file. I tried: Workbooks.Open filename, Password:=user_entered_pw If (Err.Number <> 0) Then workbooks.open filename This works for unprotected and protected file. However if the user enters a wrong password it runs into the second line and pops up the "enter password" prompt, which I do not want. How to get around this?

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  • java protected method accessibility

    - by JavaUser
    In the below code the Consumer class can access the protected method of Parent class.How is it possible since there is no relation between Parent and Consumer class.Please explain class Parent { public void method1(){ System.out.println("PUBLIC METHOD"); } private void method2(){ System.out.println("PRIVATE METHOD"); } protected void method3(){ System.out.println("PROTECTED METHOD"); } } public class Consumer { public static void main(String[] args){ Parent parentObj = new Parent(); parentObj.method1(); //parentObj.method2(); parentObj.method3(); } } Thanks

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  • C# internal VS VBNET Friend

    - by Will Marcouiller
    To this SO question: What is the C# equivalent of friend?, I would personally have answered "internal", just like Ja did among the answers! However, Jon Skeet says that there is no direct equivalence of VB Friend in C#. If Jon Skeet says so, I won't be the one telling otherwise! ;P I'm wondering how can the keyword internal (C#) not be the equivalent of Friend (VBNET) when their respective definitions are: Friend VBNET The Friend (Visual Basic) keyword in the declaration statement specifies that the elements can be accessed from within the same assembly, but not from outside the assembly. [...] internal C# Internal: Access is limited to the current assembly. To my understanding, these definitions mean quite the same to me. Then, respectively, when I'm coding in VB.NET, I use the Friend keyword to specify that a class or a property shall be accessible only within the assembly where it is declared. The same in C#, I use the internal keyword to specify the same. Am I doing something or anything wrong from this perspective? What are the refinements I don't get? Might someone please explain how or in what Friend and internal are not direct equivalences? Thanks in advance for any of your answers!

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  • mount: cannot remount block device /dev/sda5 read-write, is write-protected

    - by marc.riera
    So, this is it. Everything is working as usual except the disk is read only and dont want to change back. ^_^! thanks. root@NODE02:/tmp# df . Filesystem 1K-blocks Used Available Use% Mounted on /dev/sda5 461490504 179502128 258545928 41% / root@NODE02:/tmp# mount -o rw,remount /dev/sda5 mount: cannot remount block device /dev/sda5 read-write, is write-protected root@NODE02:/tmp# touch helll touch: cannot touch `helll': Read-only file system It's not multipath. It's nothing special. Just a server with ubuntu 9.10. makes no sense for me, does it?

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  • Allow from referer for HTTP-basic protected SSL apache site

    - by user64204
    I have an apache site protected by HTTP basic authentication. The authentication is working fine. Now I would like to bypass authentication for users that are coming from a particular website by relying on the HTTP Referer header. Here is the configuration: SetEnvIf Referer "^http://.*.example\.org" coming_from_example_org <Directory /var/www/> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Deny from all Allow from env=coming_from_example_org AuthName "login required" AuthUserFile /opt/http_basic_usernames_and_passwords AuthType Basic Require valid-user Satisfy Any </Directory> This is working fine for HTTP, but failing for HTTPS. My understanding is that in order to inspect the HTTP headers, the SSL handshake must be completed, but apache wants to inspect the <Directory> directives before doing the SSL handshake, even if I place them at the bottom of the configuration file. Q: How could I workaround this issue? PS: I'm not obsessed with the HTTP referer header, I could use other options that would allow users from a known website to bypass authantication.

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  • media is write protected when using diskshadow.exe, start-bitstransfer powershell cmdlet

    - by Aaron - Solution Evangelist
    i am trying to use the powershell start-bitstransfer cmdlets to transfer a file i have exposed using a vss snapshot (via diskshadow), but unfortunately i am receiving the following error: Start-BitsTransfer : The media is write protected. At line:1 char:49 + Import-CSV c:\hda1\bits.txt | start-bitstransfer <<<< -transfertype upload -Authentication "Basic" -Credential $cred + CategoryInfo : InvalidOperation: (:) [Start-BitsTransfer], Exception + FullyQualifiedErrorId : StartBitsTransferCOMException,Microsoft.BackgroundIntelligentTransfer.Management.NewBits TransferCommand we really want to utilize the bits endpoint we are attempting to transfer the files to. is there any other way we can go about this (aside from copying the files elsewhere first, unless we can copy one slice at a time and transfer that)?

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  • how to stop a driver from running - it self protected and rootkit hidden

    - by Aristos
    I have this serous problem For the first time I can not stop a program from running. Something is on one laptop computer that is run as system legacy driver, and self protected and hidden on service as rootkit. Anything I try to remove fails. When a program or anti toolkit try to remove the hidden registry setting for make it stop I get this error : "a device attached to the system is not functioning" So any idea that can help me stop it from running, or even delete it on start up ? My one limitation is that the hard drive is on a laptop and I can not remove it and attact it to somewhere else. This program not let me, touch the registry, do not let me touch the file, do not let me touch the file, The move on boot fail to delete it, the rootrepeal fail to delete it, the rootkiet reveal from sysinternals fail to reveal it ! everything fails. Do how have any experience on this, or do you have any suggestion how to stop this driver from run ?

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  • Is there a way to permanently remove highlighting from editable areas within a protected word docume

    - by CT
    Is there a way to permanently remove highlighting from editable areas within a protected word document? This is in relation to a previous question I had on locking portions of a Word Document located here: http://superuser.com/questions/143860/can-i-lock-or-make-uneditable-portions-of-a-word-document Using this solution, any editable area is highlighted. You can uncheck the Highlight editable area box within the Protect Document bar but if you save and reopen the area is highlighted again. The document is on a network drive. If another user were to open the document it would also be highlighted. Is there anyway to permanently turn this highlighting off so that when a user accesses the document from the network they do not see this highlighting? Using Word 2007.

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  • Password protected traffic meter

    - by UncleBob
    Hi first, I have a small problem for which I haven't found a solution yet. I live in Bosnia and share the Internet connection with the landlady, and as is usual in Bosnia, we do not have a flat rate, but a 15 Giga traffic limite. That would actually be more than enough, if the son of the landlady wouldn't be watching videos all the time, so the bills are truning out rather expensive. I have already installed a traffic monitoring program, but he apparently turns it off as soon as he comes close to his limit and then denies that he consumed any more. I therefore need at least a measurement program that is password protected and / or notes in the log when it's been turned off. Even better would be a program that just cuts his access when he exceeds his share, ie a mixture of Traffic meter and Parental Guard. Can someone help me out here?

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  • Word 2010, how to update protected document

    - by Seth
    The document has one "Section Break" with e.g. "Text Form Fields" above. To make this Form Field work properly I use "Restrict Editing", allow "Filling in Forms", "Select Sections" and then protect Section 1. Then "Start Enforcing Protection". Now when the document is protected above the Section Break you can't use CTRL-Aand F9 to make an update of the fields, etc. of the document below the Section Break. Is there any solution for this problem?

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  • Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

    - by mstksg
    Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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  • c++ protected pointer member to the same class and access privileges

    - by aajmakin
    Hi, Example code is included at the bottom of the message. I'm puzzled about the protected access specifier in a class. I have define a class node which has a protected string member name string name; and a vector of node pointers vector args; Before I thought that a member function of node could not do args[0]-name but a program that does just this does compile and run. However, now I would like to inherit this class and access the name field in one of the args array pointers from this derived class args[0]-name but this does not compile. When I compile the example code below with the commented sections uncommented, the compiler reports: Compiler output: g++ test.cc -o test test.cc: In member function 'void foo::newnode::print_args2()': test.cc:22: error: 'std::string foo::node::name' is protected test.cc:61: error: within this context Compilation exited abnormally with code 1 at Thu Jun 17 12:40:12 Questions: Why can I access the name field of the node pointers in args in class node, because this is what I would excpect from a similarly defined private field in Java. How can I access those fields from the derived class. Example code: #include <iostream> #include <vector> using namespace std; namespace foo { class node; typedef std::vector<node*> nodes; class node { public: node (string _name); void print_args (); void add_node (node* a); protected: nodes args; string name; }; } foo::node::node (string _name) : args(0) { name = _name; } void foo::node::add_node (node* a) { args.push_back(a); } void foo::node::print_args () { for (int i = 0; i < args.size(); i++) { cout << "node " << i << ": " << args[i]->name << endl; } } // namespace foo // { // class newnode : public node // { // public: // newnode (string _name) : node(_name) {} // void print_args2 (); // protected: // }; // } // void foo::newnode::print_args2 () // { // for (int i = 0; i < args.size(); i++) // { // cout << "node " << i << ": " << args[i]->name << endl; // } // } int main (int argc, char** argv) { foo::node a ("a"); foo::node b ("b"); foo::node c ("c"); a.add_node (&b); a.add_node (&c); a.print_args (); // foo::newnode newa ("newa"); // foo::newnode newb ("newb"); // foo::newnode newc ("newc"); // newa.add_node (&newb); // newa.add_node (&newc); // newa.print_args2 (); return 0; }

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  • Helicon ISAPI Rewrite Proxy 500 Internal Server Error

    - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett
    Hi, I have a website running at www.domain.com. The client now wants the website to appear to be running under www.otherdomain.com/whatson/brand/ Since the website is umbraco it won't run under a subfolder. I wanted to use ISAPI rewrite to proxy requests to www.domain.com using the following rule in a .htaccess at www.otherdomain.com/whatson/brand/ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.domain.com/$1 [P,L] However, when I apply this I get an ugly 500 Internal Server Error. There's nothing in the event log. So I turned on ISAPI logging and can see the following 111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 Tue, 12-Jan-2010 13:05:24 GMT [www.otherdomain.com/sid#2045305275][rid#26337200/initial] (2) init rewrite engine with requested uri /whatson/brand/home.aspx Then it testing all the other rewrite rules on the server. Then this 111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 Tue, 12-Jan-2010 13:05:24 GMT [www.otherdomain.com/sid#2045305275][rid#26337200/initial] (1) Htaccess process request w:\websites\otherdomain.com\docs2\whatson\brand\.htaccess 111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 Tue, 12-Jan-2010 13:05:24 GMT [www.otherdomain.com/sid#2045305275][rid#26337200/initial] (3) applying pattern '^(.*)$' to uri 'home.aspx' 111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 Tue, 12-Jan-2010 13:05:24 GMT [www.otherdomain.com/sid#2045305275][rid#26337200/initial] (2) forcing proxy-throughput with http://www.domain.com/home.aspx 111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 Tue, 12-Jan-2010 13:05:24 GMT [www.otherdomain.com/sid#2045305275][rid#26337200/initial] (1) go-ahead with proxy request http://www.domain.com/home.aspx [OK] 111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 Tue, 12-Jan-2010 13:05:24 GMT [www.otherdomain.com/sid#2045305275][rid#26337200/initial] (2) rewrite 'home.aspx' -> '/whatson/brand/home.aspxx.rwhlp?p=0' 111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 Tue, 12-Jan-2010 13:05:24 GMT [www.otherdomain.com/sid#2045305275][rid#26337200/initial] (2) internal redirect with /whatson/brand/home.aspxx.rwhlp?p=0 [INTERNAL REDIRECT] So it appears to work according to the logs, but I'm not seeing the page come through.. It's worth noting that www.domain.com and www.otherdomain.com are on the same box. LogLevel is 3 and RewriteLogLevel is 3 (I've tried with 9 and debug but there is too much traffic going through the other sites on the box) Any ideas?

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  • Over 200 active requests like "OPTIONS * HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "Apache (internal dummy connection)"

    - by Stefan Lasiewski
    Some details: Webserver: Apache/2.2.13 (FreeBSD) mod_ssl/2.2.13 OpenSSL/0.9.8e OS: FreeBSD 7.2-RELEASE This is a FreeBSD Jail. I believe I use the Apache 'prefork' MPM (I run the default for FreeBSD). I use the default values for MaxClients (256) I have enabled mod_status, with "ExtendedStatus On". When I view /server-status , I see a handful of regular requests. I also see over 230 requests from the 'localhost', like these: 37-0 - 0/0/1 . 0.00 1510 0 0.0 0.00 0.00 127.0.0.2 www.example.gov OPTIONS * HTTP/1.0 38-0 - 0/0/1 . 0.00 1509 0 0.0 0.00 0.00 127.0.0.2 www.example.gov OPTIONS * HTTP/1.0 39-0 - 0/0/3 . 0.00 1482 0 0.0 0.00 0.00 127.0.0.2 www.example.gov OPTIONS * HTTP/1.0 40-0 - 0/0/6 . 0.00 1445 0 0.0 0.00 0.00 127.0.0.2 www.example.gov OPTIONS * HTTP/1.0 I also see about 2417 requests yesterday from the localhost, like these: Apr 14 11:16:40 192.168.16.127 httpd[431]: www.example.gov 127.0.0.2 - - [15/Apr/2010:11:16:40 -0700] "OPTIONS * HTTP/1.0" 200 - "-" "Apache (internal dummy connection)" The page at http://wiki.apache.org/httpd/InternalDummyConnection says "These requests are perfectly normal and you do not, in general, need to worry about them", but I'm not so sure. Why are there over 230 of these? Are these active connections? If I have "MaxClients 256", and over 230 of these connections, it seems that my webserver is dangerously close to running out of available connections. It also seems like Apache should only need a handful of these "internal dummy connections" We actually had two unexplained outages last night, and I am wondering if these "internal dummy connection" caused us to run out of available connections.

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  • Internal/External Moodle - DNS

    - by Chief17
    Network diagram: I have a moodle (a VLE) setup that I want to be internally and externally accessible. The green route on the diagram below is the route I would like the traffic to take when the user is inside the LAN, and the red route is seemingly what it does take. The website has a domain name (like most websites do). From the User PC, if I ping the domain name, I get the internal IP of the webserver (because of a hosts file entry), if I nslookup the domain name I also get the internal IP of the webserver (because of an A record on my DNS server). Running the same two commands on the webserver gives me the webservers external IP. (going well so far) If I use PHPs gethostbyname() on the moodle website and use domain name as a parameter (getting php/apache to resolve the hostname) it returns the exernal IP of the webserver (good news, DNS seems to be doing what I want it to). All things so far seem to be going well. The only thing that is confusing me and preventing the moodle single sign on from working is the fact that if I get moodle to show my IP address, it says that it is an external one (outside my NATting firewall) when it should show an internal IP. This is the issue, any ideas on how to go about resolving this? Any ideas on tests I can perform (I have also tried a tracert and the request goes directly to the webserver), anything? Thanks all!

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  • Overriding some DNS entries in BIND for internal networks

    - by Remy Blank
    I have an internal network with a DNS server running BIND, connected to the internet through a single gateway. My domain "example.com" is managed by an external DNS provider. Some of the entries in that domain, say "host1.example.com" and "host2.example.com", as well as the top-level entry "example.com", point to the public IP address of the gateway. I would like hosts located on the internal network to resolve "host1.example.com", "host2.example.com" and "example.com" to internal IP addresses instead of that of the gateway. Other hosts like "otherhost.example.com" should still be resolved by the external DNS provider. I have succeeded in doing that for the host1 and host2 entries, by defining two single-entry zones in BIND for "host1.example.com" and "host2.example.com". However, if I add a zone for "example.com", all queries for that domain are resolved by my local DNS server, and e.g. querying "otherhost.example.com" results in an error. Is it possible to configure BIND to override only some entries of a domain, and to resolve the rest recursively?

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  • Anonymizing OpenVPN Allow SSH Access to Internal Server

    - by Lionel
    I'm using an anonymizing VPN, but want SSH access to internal computer. How do I access my internal computer through SSH? When I do ssh 98.123.45.6, the connection times out. IP address from cable provider: 98.123.45.6 Anonymous IP through VPN: 50.1.2.3 Internal computer: 192.168.1.123 When searching around, I found recommendations to either set up iptables rules, routing rules, or to add ListenAddress to sshd_config. Which of these applies to my case? Here is my route: Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 10.115.81.1 10.115.81.9 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 tun0 10.115.81.9 * 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 tun0 50.1.2.3-sta ddwrt 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.1.0 * 255.255.255.0 U 202 0 0 eth0 169.254.0.0 * 255.255.0.0 U 204 0 0 vboxnet0 loopback * 255.0.0.0 U 0 0 0 lo default 10.115.81.9 128.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 128.0.0.0 10.115.81.9 128.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 default ddwrt 0.0.0.0 UG 202 0 0 eth0

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  • Internal drives vs USB-3 with external SSD or eSata with External SSD

    - by normstorm
    I have a need to carry VMWare Virtual Machines with me for work. These are very large files (each VM is 20GB or more) and I carry around about 40 to 50 VM's to simulate different software configurations for different client needs. Key: they won't fit on the internal hard drive of my current laptop. I currently execute the VM's from an external 7200RPM 2.5" USB-2 drive. I keep copies of the VM's on other 5400 external USB-2 drives. The VM's work from this drive, but they are slow, costing me much time and frustration. It can take upwards of 30 minutes just to make a copy of one of the VM's. They can take upwards of 10-15 minutes to fully launch and then they operate sluggishly. I am buying a new laptop (Core I7, 8GB RAM and other high-end specs). I intend to buy an SSD for the O/S volume (C:). This SSD will not be large enough to hold the VM's. I have always wanted a second internal hard drive to operate the VM's. To have two hard drives, though, I am finding that I will have to go to a 17" laptop which would be bulky/heavy. I am instead considering purchasing a 15" laptop with either an eSATA port or USB-3 ports and then purchasing two external drives. One of the drives might be an external SSD (maybe OCX brand) for operating the VM's and the other a 7400RPM 1TB hard drive for carrying around the VM's not currently in use. The question is which options would give me the biggest bang for the buck and the weight: 1) 2nd Internal SSD hard drive. This would mean buying a 17" laptop with two drive "bays". The first bay would hold an SSD drive for the C: drive. I would leave the first bay empty from the manufacture and then purchase/install an aftermarket SSD drive. This second SSD drive would have to be very large (256 GB), which would be expensive. I would still also need another external hard drive for carrying around the VM's not in use. 2) 2nd internal hard drive - 7400 RPM. Again, a 17" laptop would be required, but there are models available with on SSD drive for the C: drive and a second 7200 RPM hard drives. The second drive could probably be large enough to hold the VM's in use as well as those not in use. But would it be fast enough to drive the VM's? 3) USB-3 with External SSD. I could buy a 15" laptop with an SSD drive for the C: drive and a second hard drive for general files. I would operate the VM's from an external USB-3 SSD drive and have a third USB-3 external 7200 RPM drive for holding the VM's not in use. 4) eSATA with External SSD. Ditto, just eSATA instead of USB-3 5) USB-3 with External 7400 RPM drive. Ditto, but the drive running the VM's would be USB-3 attached 7400 RPM drives rather than SSD. 6) eSATA with External 7400 RPM drive. Dittor, but the drive running the VM's would be eSATA attached 7400 RPM drives rather than SSD. Any thoughts on this and any creative solutions?

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  • openvpn not creating internal route for client

    - by user42055
    I have two openvpn clients and a server using shared keys. I have internal routes specified in the ccd directory for both clients, but when they connect, the server only creates the internal route for one of them, despite the logs saying it's creating both. Both clients and the server use the "--script-security 2" command-line option. Can anyone think of why it would do this ? My ccd files are: client1: iroute 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 client2: iroute 10.0.1.0 255.255.255.0 My log file shows the following (cropped): May 3 17:22:59 kino openvpn[2416]: 118.208.58.60:48730 [client1] Peer Connection Initiated with 118.208.58.60:48730 May 3 17:22:59 kino openvpn[2416]: client1/118.208.58.60:48730 OPTIONS IMPORT: reading client specific options from: ccd/client1 May 3 17:22:59 kino openvpn[2416]: client1/118.208.58.60:48730 MULTI: Learn: 192.168.150.10 -> client1/118.208.58.60:48730 May 3 17:22:59 kino openvpn[2416]: client1/118.208.58.60:48730 MULTI: primary virtual IP for client1/118.208.58.60:48730: 192.168.150.10 May 3 17:22:59 kino openvpn[2416]: client1/118.208.58.60:48730 MULTI: internal route 192.168.0.0/24 -> client1/118.208.58.60:48730 May 3 17:22:59 kino openvpn[2416]: client1/118.208.58.60:48730 MULTI: Learn: 192.168.0.0/24 -> client1/118.208.58.60:48730 May 3 17:23:01 kino openvpn[2416]: client1/118.208.58.60:48730 PUSH: Received control message: 'PUSH_REQUEST' May 3 17:23:01 kino openvpn[2416]: client1/118.208.58.60:48730 SENT CONTROL [client1]: 'PUSH_REPLY,route 192.168.150.1,topology net30,ping 10,ping-restart 120,ifconfig 192.168.150.10 192.168.150.9' (status=1) May 3 17:21:36 kino openvpn[2416]: 124.148.1.90:59277 [client2] Peer Connection Initiated with 124.148.1.90:59277 May 3 17:21:36 kino openvpn[2416]: client2/124.148.1.90:59277 OPTIONS IMPORT: reading client specific options from: ccd/client2 May 3 17:21:36 kino openvpn[2416]: client2/124.148.1.90:59277 MULTI: Learn: 192.168.150.14 -> client2/124.148.1.90:59277 May 3 17:21:36 kino openvpn[2416]: client2/124.148.1.90:59277 MULTI: primary virtual IP for client2/124.148.1.90:59277: 192.168.150.14 May 3 17:21:36 kino openvpn[2416]: client2/124.148.1.90:59277 MULTI: internal route 10.0.1.0/24 -> client2/124.148.1.90:59277 May 3 17:21:36 kino openvpn[2416]: client2/124.148.1.90:59277 MULTI: Learn: 10.0.1.0/24 -> client2/124.148.1.90:59277 May 3 17:21:39 kino openvpn[2416]: client2/124.148.1.90:59277 PUSH: Received control message: 'PUSH_REQUEST' May 3 17:21:39 kino openvpn[2416]: client2/124.148.1.90:59277 SENT CONTROL [client2]: 'PUSH_REPLY,route 192.168.150.1,topology net30,ping 10,ping-restart 120,ifconfig 192.168.150.14 192.168.150.13' (status=1) And after both clients have connected, the routing table looks like this: 192.168.150.2 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 tun0 203.209.167.192 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.224 U 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.150.0 192.168.150.2 255.255.255.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 192.168.0.0 192.168.150.2 255.255.255.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 127.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 U 0 0 0 lo 0.0.0.0 203.209.167.193 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 As you can see, it's created the route to 192.168.0.0/24 (client1) but not to 10.0.1.0/24 (client2), even though the log says it's been created. Any suggestions why ?

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  • getting IllegalAccessException when accessing a protected method from parent from inner class

    - by EnToutCas
    I got a very weird problem and a weird solution: class Parent { protected void aProtectedMethod() { doSomething(); } } class Child extends Parent { void anotherMethod() { new SomeInterface() { public void interfaceMethod() { aProtectedMethod(); } }; } } When child.anotherMethod() is run, I got IllegalAccessException at myProtectedMethod(), saying my inner class doesn't have access to the Parent class... However, if I add: protected void aProtectedMethod() { super.aProtectedMethod(); } in my Child class, everything is fine... I wonder why this is?

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