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• Complicated API issue with calling assemblies dynamically?

  - by Stefanos Tses

  I have an interesting challenge that I'm wondering if anyone here can give me some direction. I'm writing a .Net windows forms application that runs on a network and uses an SQL Server to save and pull data. I want to offer a mini "plugin" API, where developers can build their own assemblies and implement a specific interface (IDataManipulate). These assemblies then can be used by my application to call the interface functions and do something. I can create assemblies using my API, copy the file to a folder in my local hard drive and configure my application to use Reflection to call a specific function from the implemented interface (IDataManipulate.Execute). The problem: Since the application will be installed in multiple workstations in the network, is impossible to copy the plugin dlls the users will create to each machine. Solutions I tried: Solution 1 Copy the API dll to a network share. Problem: Requires AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, which requires .Net singing, which I can't force from my users. Solution 2 (preferred) Serialize the dll object, save it to the database, deserialize it and call IDataManipulate.Execute. Problem: After deserialization, I try cast it to a IDataManipulate object but returns an error looking for the actual dll file. Solution 3 Save the dll bytes as byte[] to the database and recreate the dll at the local PC every time the user starts my application. Problem: Dll may have dependencies, which I don't know if I can detect. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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• Word Automation : Replace do not work after TypeText

  - by wishper

  I need to generate doc (real doc, not docx) files, the "best" way i have found is to use word automation (Word 2010). I have files that I open, and then replace values inside before saving it on a new name. (Ex : I replace "" with "155023"). To do this, I use the Application.Selection.Find. I just had a problem when the new value had more than 255 characters (Thanks Microsofts limitations ...). To avoid this problem, i use TypeText in this case. My problem now is once I use TypeText, the Replace do not work anymore .. And I can't find why. Any idea will be greatly appreciated. My code is in a function, called in a foreach with each values to replace : private void Replace(Application app, string name, string newValue) { Selection selection = app.Selection; Find find = selection.Find; Replacement replacement = find.Replacement; find.ClearFormatting(); find.Text = "<" + name + ">"; // Word limitation : can't replace with more than 255 characters, // use another way to do it if that's the case if (tempNewValue.Length < 255) { replacement.ClearFormatting(); replacement.Text = tempNewValue; find.Execute(Replace: replaceAll); } else { while (find.Execute()) { selection.TypeText(tempNewValue); } } Marshal.ReleaseComObject(replacement); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(find); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(selection); }

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• Batch processing JDBC

  - by Wai Hein

  I am practicing JDBC batch processing and having errors: error 1: Unsupported feature error 2: Execute cannot be empty or null Property files include: itemsdao.updateBookName = Update Books set bookname = ? where books.id = ? itemsdao.updateAuthorName = Update books set authorname = ? where books.id = ? I know I can execute about DML statements in one update, but I am practicing batch processing in JDBC. Below is my method public void update(Item item) { String query = null; try { connection = DbConnector.getConnection(); property = SqlPropertiesLoader.getProperties("dml.properties"); connection.setAutoCommit(false); if ( property == null ) { Logging.log.debug("dml.properties does not exist. Check property loader or file name is spelled right"); return; } query = property.getProperty("itemsdao.updateBookName"); statement = connection.prepareStatement(query); statement.setString(1, item.getBookName()); statement.setInt(2, item.getId()); statement.addBatch(query); query = property.getProperty("itemsdao.updateAuthorName"); statement = connection.prepareStatement(query); statement.setString(1, item.getAuthorName()); statement.setInt(2, item.getId()); statement.addBatch(query); statement.executeBatch(); connection.commit(); }catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { Logging.log.error("Connection class does not exist", e); } catch (SQLException e) { Logging.log.error("Violating PK constraint",e); } //helper class th finally { DbUtil.close(connection); DbUtil.closePreparedStatement(statement); }

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• Javascript help needed - which variable is return empty??

  - by mathew

  Hi I would like to know how do I add an error check to below mentioned code...I mean how do I check if this code return empty or not?? if this returns empty then I would give a message "Not Found".. How do I do That?? google.load('search', '1'); var blogSearch; function searchComplete() { // Check that we got results document.getElementById('content').innerHTML = ''; if (blogSearch.results && blogSearch.results.length > 0) { for (var i = 0; i < blogSearch.results.length; i++) { // Create HTML elements for search results var p = document.createElement('p'); var a = document.createElement('a'); a.href = blogSearch.results[i].postUrl; a.innerHTML = blogSearch.results[i].title; // Append search results to the HTML nodes p.appendChild(a); document.body.appendChild(p); } } } function onLoad() { // Create a BlogSearch instance. blogSearch = new google.search.BlogSearch(); // Set searchComplete as the callback function when a search is complete. The // blogSearch object will have results in it. blogSearch.setSearchCompleteCallback(this, searchComplete, null); // Set a site restriction blogSearch.setSiteRestriction('blogspot.com'); // Execute search query blogSearch.execute('1974 Chevrolet Caprice'); // Include the required Google branding google.search.Search.getBranding('branding'); } // Set a callback to call your code when the page loads google.setOnLoadCallback(onLoad);

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• page loads twice due to js code

  - by Cristian Boariu

  Hi, I have this div inside a repeater, where i set the class, onmouseover and onmouseout properties from code behind: <div id="Div1" runat="server" class="<%# getClassProduct(Container.ItemIndex) %>" onmouseover="<%# getClassProductOver(Container.ItemIndex) %>" onmouseout="<%# getClassProductOut(Container.ItemIndex) %>"> codebehind: public String getClassProduct(Object index) { int indexItem = Int32.Parse(index.ToString()); if (indexItem == 3) return "produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem lastbox"; else return "produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem"; } public String getClassProductOver(Object index) { int indexItem = Int32.Parse(index.ToString()); if (indexItem == 3) return "this.className='produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem_ lastbox'"; else return "this.className='produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem_'"; } public String getClassProductOut(Object index) { int indexItem = Int32.Parse(index.ToString()); if (indexItem == 3) return "this.className='produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem lastbox'"; else return "this.className='produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem'"; } Well, the problem is that, my Page_Load is fired twice, and there i have some code which i want to execute only ONCE: if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ..code to execute once } This code is fired initially, and after the page is rendered, it is called again, and executed again due to that js... Anyone can recommend a workaround? Thanks in advance.

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• Which way is preferred when doing asynchronous WCF calls?

  - by Mikael Svenson

  When invoking a WCF service asynchronous there seems to be two ways it can be done. 1. public void One() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.BegindoSearch("input", ResultOne, null); } private void ResultOne(IAsyncResult ar) { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); string data = client.EnddoSearch(ar); } 2. public void Two() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.doSearchCompleted += TwoCompleted; client.doSearchAsync("input"); } void TwoCompleted(object sender, doSearchCompletedEventArgs e) { string data = e.Result; } And with the new Task<T> class we have an easy third way by wrapping the synchronous operation in a task. 3. public void Three() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); var task = Task<string>.Factory.StartNew(() => client.doSearch("input")); string data = task.Result; } They all give you the ability to execute other code while you wait for the result, but I think Task<T> gives better control on what you execute before or after the result is retrieved. Are there any advantages or disadvantages to using one over the other? Or scenarios where one way of doing it is more preferable?

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• What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

  - by priehl

  I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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• Elegant solution to retrieve custom date and time?

  - by kefs

  I am currently using a date and time picker to retrieve a user-submitted date and time, and then I set a control's text to the date and time selected. I am using the following code: new DatePickerDialog(newlog3.this, d, calDT.get(Calendar.YEAR), calDT.get(Calendar.MONTH), calDT.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH)).show(); new TimePickerDialog(newlog3.this, t, calDT.get(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY), calDT.get(Calendar.MINUTE), true).show(); optCustom.setText(fmtDT.format(calDT.getTime())); Now, while the above code block does bring up the date and time widgets and sets the text, the code block is being executed in full before the user can select the date.. ie: It brings up the date box first, then the time box over that, and then updates the text, all without any user interaction. I would like the date widget to wait to execute the time selector until the date selection is done, and i would like the settext to execute only after the time widget is done. How is this possible? Or is there is a more elegant solution that is escaping me? Edit: This is the code for DatePickerDialog/TimePickerDialog which is located within the class: DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener d=new DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener() { public void onDateSet(DatePicker view, int year, int monthOfYear, int dayOfMonth) { calDT.set(Calendar.YEAR, year); calDT.set(Calendar.MONTH, monthOfYear); calDT.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, dayOfMonth); //updateLabel(); } }; TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener t=new TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener() { public void onTimeSet(TimePicker view, int hourOfDay, int minute) { calDT.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, hourOfDay); calDT.set(Calendar.MINUTE, minute); //updateLabel(); } }; Thanks in advance

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• Android ACTION_BOOT_COMPLETED called everytime?

  - by user3976029

  I am trying to write a code in Android , to create a condition during booting but my condition satisfies everytime ( during booting as well as during running of the device also). I am trying to do is , to execute the condition during the booting only. My Code : MainActivity.java package com.example.bootingtest; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.Toast; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; public class MainActivity extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main); if (Intent.ACTION_BOOT_COMPLETED!=null) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Device is booting ...", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } } I have given manifest permission . <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.RECEIVE_BOOT_COMPLETED" /> I want to execute this condition only during booting or device start-up but this condition satisfies every time , whenever i open the app. Please suggest me , how can i run the condition only during the device booting or start-up. Please help me out.

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• How to go about writing this classic asp in asp.net

  - by Phil

  I am stuck in converting this snipped to asp.net. set RSLinksCat = conn.Execute("select linkscat.id, linkscat.category from linkscat, contentlinks, links where contentlinks.linksid = links.id and contentlinks.contentid = " & contentid & " and links.linkscatid = linkscat.id order by linkscat.category") <%if not RSLinksCat.EOF then%><h1>Links</h1> <br /> <%do while not RSLinksCat.EOF%> <%set RSLinks = conn.Execute("select * from links where linkscatid = " & RSLinksCat("id") & "")%> <strong><%=RSlinkscat("category")%><strong> <ul> <%do while not RSlinks.EOF%> <li> <a href = "http://<%=RSLinks("url")%>" target="_blank"><%=RSlinks("description")%></a> </li> <%RSLinks.MoveNext loop%> </ul> <%RSLinksCat.MoveNext loop%> <br /> <%end if%><%conn.close%> I'm not sure where to start. Can anyone recommend the correct approach i.e sqldatareaders or repeaters or arrays or? VB code samples most welcome. Thanks

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• Is this use of PreparedStatements in a Thread in JAVA correct?

  - by Gormcito

  I'm still an undergrad just working part time and so I'm always trying to be aware of better ways to do things. Recently I had to write a program for work where the main thread of the program would spawn "task" threads (for each db "task" record) which would perform some operations and then update the record to say that it has finished. Therefore I needed a database connection object and PreparedStatement objects in or available to the ThreadedTask objects. This is roughly what I ended up writing, is creating a PreparedStatement object per thread a waste? I thought static PreparedStatments could create race conditions... Thread A stmt.setInt(); Thread B stmt.setInt(); Thread A stmt.execute(); Thread B stmt.execute(); A´s version never gets execed.. Is this thread safe? Is creating and destroying PreparedStatement objects that are always the same not a huge waste? public class ThreadedTask implements runnable { private final PreparedStatement taskCompleteStmt; public ThreadedTask() { //... taskCompleteStmt = Main.db.prepareStatement(...); } public run() { //... taskCompleteStmt.executeUpdate(); } } public class Main { public static final db = DriverManager.getConnection(...); }

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• Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

  - by Raghu Dodda

  There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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• DCI: How to implement Context with Dependency Injection?

  - by ciscoheat

  Most examples of a DCI Context are implemented as a Command pattern. When using Dependency Injection though, it's useful to have the dependencies injected in the constructor and send the parameters into the executing method. Compare the Command pattern class: public class SomeContext { private readonly SomeRole _someRole; private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Everything goes into the constructor for a true encapsuled command. public SomeContext(SomeRole someRole, IRepository<User> userRepository) { _someRole = someRole; _userRepository = userRepository; } public void Execute() { _someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } With the Dependency injected class: public class SomeContext { private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Only what can be injected using the DI provider. public SomeContext(IRepository<User> userRepository) { _userRepository = userRepository; } // Parameters from the executing method public void Execute(SomeRole someRole) { someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } The last one seems a bit nicer, but I've never seen it implemented like this so I'm curious if there are any things to consider.

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• How to run a javascript function before postback of asp.net button?

  - by Curtis White

  I'm using Javascript to create a DIV element and open up a new page by using onclientclick. This works great. Now, I need to write to it from the server side and this element must be created before it is posted back. How do I get the javascript to execute before the postback? Currently, I have to press the button twice because the element doesn't exist to write too on the first click. To be clear, I need this to execute before the "OnClick" of the button. Update: It looks like the Javascript function is called before the postback but the element is not updated until I run the second postback. Hmm Update: Unfortunately it is a bit more complicated then this. I'm creating a div tag in javascript to open a new window. Inside the div tag, I'm using a databinding syntax <%=Preview% so that I can get access to this element on the server side. From the server side, I'm injecting the code. I'm thinking this may be a chicken-egg problem but not sure. UPDATE! It is not the Javascript not running first. It is the databinding mechanism which is reading the blank variable before I'm able to set it. Hmm

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• How to call shared_ptr<boost::signal> from a vector in a loop?

  - by BTR

  I've got a working callback system that uses boost::signal. I'm extending it into a more flexible and efficient callback manager which uses a vector of shared_ptr's to my signals. I've been able to successfully create and add callbacks to the list, but I'm unclear as to how to actually execute the signals. ... // Signal aliases typedef boost::signal<void (float *, int32_t)> Callback; typedef std::shared_ptr<Callback> CallbackRef; // The callback list std::vector<CallbackRef> mCallbacks; // Adds a callback to the list template<typename T> void addCallback(void (T::* callbackFunction)(float * data, int32_t size), T * callbackObject) { CallbackRef mCallback = CallbackRef(new Callback()); mCallback->connect(boost::function<void (float *, int32_t)>(boost::bind(callbackFunction, callbackObject, _1, _2))); mCallbacks.push_back(mCallback); } // Pass the float array and its size to the callbacks void execute(float * data, int32_t size) { // Iterate through the callback list for (vector<CallbackRef>::iterator i = mCallbacks.begin(); i != mCallbacks.end(); ++i) { // What do I do here? // (* i)(data, size); // <-- Dereferencing doesn't work } } ... All of this code works. I'm just not sure how to run the call from within a shared_ptr from with a vector. Any help would be neat-o. Thanks, in advance.

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• checking is username exists on two tables PHP PDO?

  - by PHPLOVER

  Me again. I have a users table and a users_banlist table. On my registration form i want to check all in one query whether the username someone entered on form exists in the users table and see if it also exists on the users_banlist table. I can do them on there own in individual queries but would rather do it all in one. Here is what i got, but even thou i enter a username that is taken it does not tell me its already taken. $stmt = $dbh->prepare(" SELECT users.user_login, users_banlist.user_banlist FROM users , users_banlist WHERE users.user_login = ? OR users_banlist.user_banlist = ?"); // checker if username exists in users table or users_banlist table $stmt->execute(array($username, $username)); if ( $stmt->rowCount() > 0 ) { $error[] = 'Username already taken'; } Basically i think it is something to do with the execute or rowCount(), could anyone tell me where i am going wrong ? being new to pdo im finding it a little confusing at the moment until i get my pdo book delivered to learn pdo. Thank you as always, phplover

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• Why won't the following PDO transaction won't work in PHP?

  - by jfizz

  I am using PHP version 5.4.4, and a MySQL database using InnoDB. I had been using PDO for awhile without utilizing transactions, and everything was working flawlessly. Then, I decided to try to implement transactions, and I keep getting Internal Server Error 500. The following code worked for me (doesn't contain transactions). try { $DB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=database', 'root', 'root'); $DB->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); $dbh = $DB->prepare("SELECT * FROM user WHERE username = :test"); $dbh->bindValue(':test', $test, PDO::PARAM_STR); $dbh->execute(); } catch(Exception $e){ $dbh->rollback(); echo "an error has occured"; } Then I attempted to utilize transactions with the following code (which doesn't work). try { $DB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=database', 'root', 'root'); $DB->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); $dbh = $DB->beginTransaction(); $dbh->prepare("SELECT * FROM user WHERE username = :test"); $dbh->bindValue(':test', $test, PDO::PARAM_STR); $dbh->execute(); $dbh->commit(); } catch(Exception $e){ $dbh->rollback(); echo "an error has occured"; } When I run the previous code, I get an Internal Server Error 500. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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• .Net SQL Parameter for String List Problem

  - by JK

  I am writing a C# program in which I send a query to SQL Server to be processed and a dataset returns. I am using parameters to pass information to the query before it is sent to SQL server. This works fine except in the situation below. The query looks like this: reportQuery = " Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in (@AccountNum); and Account_Date = @AccountDate "; The AccountDate parameter works find but not the AccountNum parameter. I need the final query to execute like this: Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in ('AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'); and Account_Date = '1-Jan-2010' The problem is that I have these account numbers (actually text) in a C# string list. To feed it to the parameter, I have been declaring the parameter as a string. I turn the list into one string and feed it to the parameter. I think the problem is that I am feeding the paramater this: "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'" when it wants this 'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123' How do I get the string list into the query using a parameter and have it execute as shown above? This is how I am declaring and assigning the parameter. SqlParameter AccountNumsParam = new SqlParameter(); AccountNumsParam.ParameterName = "@AccountNums"; AccountNumsParam.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar; AccountNumsParam.Value = AccountNumsString; FYI, AccountNumString == "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'"

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• Nested bind expressions

  - by user328543

  This is a followup question to my previous question. #include <functional> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 3;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> auto func(C&& c) -> decltype(c()) { return c(); } template <class C> int doit(C&& c) { return c();} template <class C> void func_wrapper(C&& c) { func( std::bind(doit<C>, std::forward<C>(c)) ); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); func_wrapper(foo); // error // call with a member function bar b; func(b); func_wrapper(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); func_wrapper(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // error // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); func_wrapper( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); return 0; } I'm getting a compile errors deep in the C++ headers: functional:1137: error: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘int (&)()’ from expression of type ‘int (*)()’ functional:1137: error: conversion from ‘int’ to non-scalar type ‘std::_Bind(bar, int)’ requested func_wrapper(foo) is supposed to execute func(doit(foo)). In the real code it packages the function for a thread to execute. func would the function executed by the other thread, doit sits in between to check for unhandled exceptions and to clean up. But the additional bind in func_wrapper messes things up...

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• Batch Inserts And Prepared Query Error

  - by ircmaxell

  Ok, so I need to populate a MS Access database table with results from a MySQL query. That's not hard at all. I've got the program written to where it copies a template .mdb file to a temp name and opens it via odbc. No problem so far. I've noticed that Access does not support batch inserting (VALUES (foo, bar), (second, query), (third query)). So that means I need to execute one query per row (there are potentially hundreds of thousands of rows). Initial performance tests show a rate of around 900 inserts/sec into Access. With our largest data sets, that could mean execution times of minutes (Which isn't the end of the world, but obviously the faster the better). So, I tried testing a prepared statement. But I keep getting an error (Warning: odbc_execute() [function.odbc-execute]: SQL error: [Microsoft][ODBC Microsoft Access Driver]COUNT field incorrect , SQL state 07001 in SQLExecute in D:\....php on line 30). Here's the code I'm using (Line 30 is odbc_execute): $sql = 'INSERT INTO table ([field0], [field1], [field2], [field3], [field4], [field5]) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?)'; $stmt = odbc_prepare($conn, $sql); for ($i = 200001; $i < 300001; $i++) { $a = array($i, "Field1 $", "Field2 $i", "Field3 $i", "Field4 $i", $i); odbc_execute($stmt, $a); } So my question is two fold. First, is there any idea on why I'm getting that error (I've checked, and the number in the array matches the field list which matches the number of parameter ? markers)? And second, should I even bother with this or just use the straight INSERT statements? Like I said, time isn't critical, but if it's possible, I'd like to get that time as low as possible (Then again, I may be limited by disk throughput, since 900 operations/sec is high already)... Thanks

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• Change post form data function into curl

  - by QLiu

  Hello Guys, In the old way in our website, when users clicks “logout” button. It runs a post form function; which will pass parameters (logout, sn) to external sites to execute “logout” function. Like: I do not want the users jump to the external site, therefore, i use curl to post data. (because we are in different domain, i guess Ajax request doesnot work ) Post the same data to execute logout function in external site. // create cURL resource $URL = "http://bswi.development.intra.local/"; //Initl curl $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $URL); // Load in the destination URL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_BASIC); //Normal HTTP request, not SSL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "logout=1"); // receive server response ... curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_exec ($ch); echo $content; curl_close ($ch); Do u think i am going in the right direction?

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• Trying to join two independent forms

  - by user248959

  Hi, i'm trying to join two independent forms (login and register) in the same page. My idea is (just looking at the signin form): Create an action that shows both forms (partials): public function executeLoginAndRegister(sfWebRequest $request){ $this->form_signin = $this->getUser()->getAttribute('form_signin'); } Each partial calls to its action: form action="php? echo url_for('@sf_guard_signin') ?" method="post" In the actions i write this code public function executeSignin($request) { //... $this->form = new $MyFormclass(); if ($this->form->isValid()) { //... }else{ // save the form to show the error messages. $this-&gt;getUser()-&gt;setAttribute('form_signin', $this-&gt;form); return $this-&gt;forward('sfGuardAuth', 'loginAndRegister'); } } It works, but, for example, if i execute LoginAndRegister and submit incorrectly the signin form and I go to another page and then return to LoginAndRegister, i will find the submiting error messages... If i execute LoginAndRegister and submit incorrectly the signin form and open another browser tab, i will find the submiting error messages in the signin form of the second tab... Any idea? any better approach?

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• SQL Server 2005: Internal Query Processor Error:

  - by Geetha

  I am trying to execute this following procedure in SQL Server 2005. I was able to execute this in my development server and when i tried to use this in the Live Server I am getting an Error "Internal Query Processor Error: The query processor could not produce a query plan. For more information, contact Customer Support Services". am using the same Database and the same format. when we searched in the web it shows some fixes to be used in sql server 2005 to avoid this error but my DBA has confirmed that all the patches are updated in our server. can anyone give me some clue on this. Query: create Procedure [dbo].[sample_Select] @ID as varchar(40) as Declare @Execstring as varchar(1000) set @Execstring = ' Declare @MID as varchar(40) Set @MID = '''+@ID+''' select * from ( select t1.field1, t1.field2 AS field2 , t1.field3 AS field3 , L.field1 AS field1 , L. field2 AS field2 from table1 AS t1 INNER JOIN MasterTable AS L ON L. field1 = t1. field2 where t1. field2 LIKE @MID ) as DataTable PIVOT ( Count(field2) FOR field3 IN (' Select @Execstring=@Execstring+ L.field2 +',' FROM MasterTable AS L inner join table1 AS t1 ON t1.field1= L.field2 Where t1.field2 LIKE @ID set @Execstring = stuff(@Execstring, len(@Execstring), 1, '') set @Execstring =@Execstring +')) as pivotTable' exec (@Execstring)

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• Calling multiple functions simultaneously with jquery.

  - by clarke78

  I want to loop through an object that contains functions which will execute one after another. My most ideal approach would be to have these chain somehow (ie. func2 waits for func1 and func3 waits for func2) but this needs to happen dynamically and the functions will all have different durations. I'm using jQuery so I thought that perhaps "queue()" may help but I haven't worked with it much. A main concern is to not add any scope/callbacks to the functions within the object. I'd rather somehow enclose them within a parent function to execute within the loop in order to create the callback/chaining. Here's an example of what I've got now, but dumbed down. Thanks for any help! var obj = [ {'name':'func1','callback':function(){ alert(1); }}, {'name':'func2','callback':function(){ alert(2); }}, {'name':'func3','callback':function(){ alert(3); }} ]; $.each(obj, function(x, el) { el.callback(); });

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• How do you chain functions dynamically in jQuery?

  - by clarke78

  I want to loop through an object that contains functions which will execute one after another. My most ideal approach would be to have these chain somehow (ie. func2 waits for func1 and func3 waits for func2) but this needs to happen dynamically and the functions will all have different durations. I'm using jQuery so I thought that perhaps "queue()" may help but I haven't worked with it much. A main concern is to not add any scope/callbacks to the functions within the object. I'd rather somehow enclose them within a parent function to execute within the loop in order to create the callback/chaining. Here's an example of what I've got now, but dumbed down. Thanks for any help! var obj = [ {'name':'func1','callback':function(){ alert(1); }}, {'name':'func2','callback':function(){ alert(2); }}, {'name':'func3','callback':function(){ alert(3); }} ]; $.each(obj, function(x, el) { el.callback(); });

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