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  • Startup in Windows 7

    - by iira
    Hi, I am trying to add my program run in Windows 7 startup, but it does'nt works. My program has embedded uac manifest. My current way is by adding String Value at HKCU..\Run I found a manual solution for Vista from http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/w7itprosecurity/thread/81c3c1f2-0169-493a-8f87-d300ea708ecf 1. Click Start, right click on Computer and choose “Manage”. 2. Click “Task Scheduler” on the left panel. 3. Click “Create Task” on the right panel. 4. Type a name for the task. 5. Check “Run with highest privileges”. 6. Click Actions tab. 7. Click “New…”. 8. Browse to the program in the “Program/script” box. Click OK. 9. On desktop, right click, choose New and click “Shortcut”. 10. In the box type: schtasks.exe /run /tn TaskName where TaskName is the name of task you put in on the basics tab and click next. 11. Type a name for the shortcut and click Finish. Additionally, you need to run the saved scheduled task shortcut to run the program instead of running the application shortcut to ignore the IAC prompt. When startup the system will run the program via the original shortcut. Therefore you need to change the location to run the saved task. Please: 1. Open Regedit. 2. Find the entry of the startup item in Registry. It will be stored in one of the following branches. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_USERS\.DEFAULT\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run 3. Double-click on the correct key, change the path to the saved scheduled task you created. Is there any free code to add item with privileges option in scheduled task? I havent found the free one in torry.net Thanks a lot.

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  • With logback not able to send mail..? any body please help.....with is

    - by Urvish
    please go through following.... <appender name="stdout" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <layout class="ch.qos.logback.classic.PatternLayout"> <Pattern>%d %p %c - %m%n</Pattern> </layout> </appender> <!-- --> <!-- Declare the SMTPAppender --> <!-- --> <appender name="EMAIL" class="ch.qos.logback.classic.net.SMTPAppender"> <SMTPHost>smtp.gmail.com</SMTPHost> <To>[email protected]</To> <From>[email protected]</From> <Subject>ERROR: %logger{20} - %m</Subject> <Username>******</Username> <Password>******</Password> <layout class="ch.qos.logback.classic.PatternLayout"> <Pattern>%date %-5level %logger{35} - %message%n</Pattern> </layout> </appender> <appender name="R" class="ch.qos.logback.core.rolling.RollingFileAppender"> <!--See also http://logback.qos.ch/manual/appenders.html#RollingFileAppender--> <File>example.log</File> <layout class="ch.qos.logback.classic.PatternLayout"> <Pattern>%d %p - %m%n</Pattern> </layout> <rollingPolicy class="ch.qos.logback.core.rolling.FixedWindowRollingPolicy"> <maxIndex>4</maxIndex> <FileNamePattern>example.log.%i</FileNamePattern> </rollingPolicy> <triggeringPolicy class="ch.qos.logback.core.rolling.SizeBasedTriggeringPolicy"> <MaxFileSize>500KB</MaxFileSize> </triggeringPolicy> </appender> <logger name="org.springframework" level="WARN"/> <logger name="org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate" level="WARN"/> <logger name="org.springframework.jdbc.core.StatementCreatorUtils" level="WARN"/> <logger name="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy" level="WARN"/> <logger name="com.logicwind" level="INFO"/> <logger name="performance" level="INFO"/> <!--<logger name="org.apache.struts2" level="DEBUG"/> -- -- </root>

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  • C# - calling ext. DLL function containing Delphi "variant record" parameter

    - by CaldonCZE
    Hello, In external (Delphi-created) DLL I've got the following function that I need to call from C# application. function ReadMsg(handle: longword; var Msg: TRxMsg): longword; stdcall; external 'MyDll.dll' name 'ReadMsg'; The "TRxMsg" type is variant record, defined as follows: TRxMsg = record case TypeMsg: byte of 1: (accept, mask: longword); 2: (SN: string[6]); 3: (rx_rate, tx_rate: word); 4: (rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg: byte); end; In order to call the function from C#, I declared auxiliary structure "my9Bytes" containing array of bytes and defined that it should be marshalled as 9 bytes long array (which is exactly the size of the Delphi record). private struct my9Bytes { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValArray, ArraySubType = UnmanagedType.U1, SizeConst = 9)] public byte[] data; } Then I declared the imported "ReadMsg" function, using the "my9bytes" struct. [DllImport("MyDll.dll")] private static extern uint ReadMsg(uint handle, ref my9Bytes myMsg); I can call the function with no problem... Then I need to create structure corresponding to the original "TRxMsg" variant record and convert my auxiliary "myMsg" array into this structure. I don't know any C# equivalent of Delphi variant array, so I used inheritance and created the following classes. public abstract class TRxMsg { public byte typeMsg; } public class TRxMsgAcceptMask:TRxMsg { public uint accept, mask; //... } public class TRxMsgSN:TRxMsg { public string SN; //... } public class TRxMsgMRate:TRxMsg { public ushort rx_rate, tx_rate; //... } public class TRxMsgStatus:TRxMsg { public byte rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg; //... } Finally I create the appropriate object and initialize it with values manually converted from "myMsg" array (I used BitConverter for this). This does work fine, this solution seems to me a little too complicated, and that it should be possible to do this somehow more directly, without the auxiliary "my9bytes" structures or the inheritance and manual converting of individual values. So I'd like to ask you for a suggestions for the best way to do this. Thanks a lot!

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  • How can i tell jaxb / Maven to genereate multiple schema packages?

    - by M.R.
    Example: </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet.jaxb2.maven2</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jaxb2-plugin</artifactId> <version>0.7.1</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>generate</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <schemaDirectory>src/main/resources/dir1</schemaDirectory> <schemaIncludes> <include>schema1.xsd</include> </schemaIncludes> <generatePackage>schema1.package</generatePackage> </configuration> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet.jaxb2.maven2</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jaxb2-plugin</artifactId> <version>0.7.1</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>generate</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <schemaDirectory>src/main/resources/dir2</schemaDirectory> <schemaIncludes> <include>schema2.xsd</include> </schemaIncludes> <generatePackage>schema2.package</generatePackage> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> What happened: Maven executes the the first plugin. Then deletes the target folder and creates the second package, which then is visible. I tried to set target/somedir1 for the first configuration and target/somedir2 for the second configuration. But the behavior does not not change? Any ideas? I do not want to generate the packages directly in the src/main/java folder, because these packages are genereated and should not be mixed with manual created classes.

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  • Flatten date range memberships retaining only the highest priority membership (TRANSACT-SQL)

    - by shadowranger
    Problem statement: A table contains an item_id, a category_id and a date range (begin_date and end_date). No item may be in more than one category on any given date (in general; during daily rebuilding it can be in an invalid state temporarily). By default, all items are added (and re-added if removed) to a category (derived from outside data) automatically on a daily basis, and their membership in that category matches the lifespan of the item (items have their own begin and end date, and usually spend their entire lives in the same category, which is why this matches). For items in category X, it is occasionally desirable to override the default category by adding them to category Y. Membership in category Y could entirely replace membership in category X (that is, the begin and end dates for membership in category Y would match the begin and end dates of the item itself), or it could override it for an arbitrary period of time (at the beginning, middle or end the item's lifespan, possibly overriding for short periods at multiple times). Membership in category Y is not renewed automatically and additions to that category is done by manual data entry. Every day, when category X is rebuilt, we get an overlap, where any item in category Y will now be in category X as well (which is forbidden, as noted previously). Goal: After each repopulation of category X (which is done in a rather complicated and fragile manner, and ideally would be left alone), I'm trying to find an efficient means of writing a stored procedure that: Identifies the overlaps Changes existing entries, adds new ones where necessary (such as in the case where an item starts in category X, switches to category Y, then eventually switches back to category X before ending), or removes entries (when an item is in category Y for its entire life) such that every item remains in category Y (and only Y) where specified, while category X membership is maintained when not overridden by category Y. Does not affect memberships of categories A, B, C, Z, etc., which do not have override categories and are built separately, by completely different rules. Note: It can be assumed that X membership covers the entire lifespan of the item before this procedure is called, so it is unnecessary to query any data outside this table. Bonus credit: If for some reason there are two adjacent or overlapping memberships in for the same item in category Y, stitching them together into a single entry is appreciated, but not necessary. Example: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20090628 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 X 20080201 20080731 2 Y 20080201 20080731 Should become: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20081231 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 X 20090201 20090531 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 Y 20080201 20080731 If it matters, this needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2008

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  • JAVA-how to manually compose a MIME multipart message

    - by Augusto Picciani
    I need to compose manually a MIME multipart message. I don't need to use any library to doing it. I'm trying this without success: out.println("From:myemail@mydomain"); out.flush(); out.println("To:myemail@mydomain"); out.flush(); out.println("Date:Thu, 25 Nov 2011 01:00:50 +0100"); out.flush(); out.println("Subject:manual test 269"); out.flush(); out.println("MIME-version:1.0"); out.flush(); out.print("Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary=\"1234567\"\n\n"); out.println("--1234567"); out.flush(); out.println("Content-Type: text/plain; charset:utf-8"); out.flush(); out.print("Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit\n\n"); out.flush(); out.print("test message\n\n"); out.flush(); out.println("--1234567"); out.flush(); out.println("Content-Type: text/html; charset:utf-8"); out.flush(); out.print("Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit\n\n"); out.flush(); out.print("<p><strong>test message in html</strong></p>\n\n"); out.flush(); out.println("--1234567--"); out.flush(); out.print("\r\n.\r\n"); out.flush(); Problem is that my mail client see the headers (from,subject,date,ecc.) but it doesn't see the message body. If i try without multipart it works fine. Maybe problem is in whitespaces character.

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  • php paypal ipn membership error

    - by aleksander haugas
    hello I integrated the membership subscription in the website, but I fail to insert data to the database. checking out all the function I make a txt file with php with data and generates me correctly. but I can not verify any data and less insert. <?php // read the post from PayPal system and add 'cmd' $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // Post back to PayPal system to validate $header .= "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('ssl://www.paypal.com', 443, $errno, $errstr, 30); // Assign posted variables to local variables $item_name = $_POST['item_name']; $item_number = $_POST['item_number']; $payment_status = $_POST['payment_status']; $payment_amount = $_POST['mc_gross']; $payment_currency = $_POST['mc_currency']; $txn_id = $_POST['txn_id']; $receiver_email = $_POST['receiver_email']; $payer_email = $_POST['payer_email']; $user_id = $_POST['custom']; //Here i make the txt file and it works correctly //but after this does not work or make a txt file //Insert and update data if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { //Verificamos el estado del pedido if ($payment_status == 'Completed') { $txn_id_check = mysql_query("SELECT Transaction_ID FROM ".$db_table_prefix."Users_Payments WHERE Transaction_ID='".$txn_id."'"); if (mysql_num_rows($txn_id_check) !=1) { //Si el pago se ha realizado al dueño especificado y coincide con el dueño if ($receiver_email == $website_Payment_Email) { //Tipo de cuenta segun pagado if ($payment_amount == '10.00' && $payment_currency == 'EUR') { //add txn_id to database $log_query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO `".$db_table_prefix."Users_Payments` VALUES ('','".$txn_id."','".$payer_email."')"); //update premium to 3 $update_premium = mysql_query("UPDATE ".$db_table_prefix."Users SET Group_ID='3' WHERE User_ID='".$user_id."'"); } } } } } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // log for manual investigation } } fclose ($fp); } ?> I call this file with require_once () with the connection to the database any ideas? thanks

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  • how to upload a file from php to amqp

    - by user2462648
    i want to know... how can i send a file to a rabbitmq queue from php. i have gone through many examples most of them didnt work. below is a consumer producer example which is near to working. Below is a the publisher.php <?php require_once('../php-amqplib/amqp.inc'); include('../config.php'); $conn = new AMQPConnection(HOST, PORT, USER, PASS, VHOST); $channel = $conn->channel(); $channel->exchange_declare('upload-pictures','direct', false, true, false); $metadata = json_encode(array( 'image_id' => $argv[1], 'user_id' => $argv[2], 'image_path' => $argv[3] )); $msg = new AMQPMessage($metadata, array('content_type' => 'text/plain','delivery_mode' => 2)); $channel->basic_publish($msg, 'upload-pictures'); $channel->close(); $conn->close(); ?> consumer.php <?php require_once('../php-amqplib/amqp.inc'); include('../config.php'); $conn = new AMQPConnection(HOST, PORT, USER, PASS,VHOST); $channel = $conn->channel(); $queue = 'add-points'; $consumer_tag = 'consumer'; $channel->exchange_declare('upload-pictures','direct', false, true, false); $channel->queue_declare('add-points',false, true, false, false); $channel->queue_bind('add-points', 'upload-pictures'); $consumer = function($msg){}; $channel->basic_consume($queue,$consumer_tag,false,false,false,false,$consumer); ?> according to the example provided in the rabbitmq manual, i need to run consumer(php consumer.php) first in one terminal and the publisher (php publisher.php 1 2 file/path.png) in another terminal, i will get a "Adding points to user: 2" message in the consumer terminal. iam not getting this message at all. can you suggest where iam going wrong

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  • Smoke testing a .NET web application

    - by pdr
    I cannot believe I'm the first person to go through this thought process, so I'm wondering if anyone can help me out with it. Current situation: developers write a web site, operations deploy it. Once deployed, a developer Smoke Tests it, to make sure the deployment went smoothly. To me this feels wrong, it essentially means it takes two people to deploy an application; in our case those two people are on opposite sides of the planet and timezones come into play, causing havoc. But the fact remains that developers know what the minimum set of tests is and that may change over time (particularly for the web service portion of our app). Operations, with all due respect to them (and they would say this themselves), are button-pushers who need a set of instructions to follow. The manual solution is that we document the test cases and operations follow that document each time they deploy. That sounds painful, plus they may be deploying different versions to different environments (specifically UAT and Production) and may need a different set of instructions for each. On top of this, one of our near-future plans is to have an automated daily deploy environment, so then we'll have to instruct a computer as to how to deploy a given version of our app. I would dearly like to add to that instructions for how to smoke test the app. Now developers are better at documenting instructions for computers than they are for people, so the obvious solution seems to be to use a combination of nUnit (I know these aren't unit tests per se, but it is a built-for-purpose test runner) and either the Watin or Selenium APIs to run through the obvious browser steps and call to the web service and explain to the Operations guys how to run those unit tests. I can do that; I have mostly done it already. But wouldn't it be nice if I could make that process simpler still? At this point, the Operations guys and the computer are going to have to know which set of tests relate to which version of the app and tell the nUnit runner which base URL it should point to (say, www.example.com = v3.2 or test.example.com = v3.3). Wouldn't it be nicer if the test runner itself had a way of giving it a base URL and letting it download say a zip file, unpack it and edit a configuration file automatically before running any test fixtures it found in there? Is there an open source app that would do that? Is there a need for one? Is there a solution using something other than nUnit, maybe Fitnesse? For the record, I'm looking at .NET-based tools first because most of the developers are primarily .NET developers, but we're not married to it. If such a tool exists using other languages to write the tests, we'll happily adapt, as long as there is a test runner that works on Windows.

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  • MySQL error problem

    - by comma
    I keep getting the error listed below but it only says line 1 what does this mean and how do I fix it? Here is the error I keep getting? You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '1' at line 1 here is the code. if (isset($_POST['info_submitted'])) { $user_id = '5'; $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT learned_skills.*, users_skills.* FROM learned_skills INNER JOIN users_skills ON learned_skills.id = users_skills.skill_id WHERE user_id='$user_id'"); $skill = $_POST['skill']; $experience = $_POST['experience']; $year = $_POST['year']; if (mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $query1 = mysqli_query($mysqli,"INSERT INTO learned_skills (skill, experience, year) VALUES ('" . $skill . "', '" . $experience . "', '" . $year . "')"); } if (!mysqli_query($mysqli, $query1)) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT id FROM learned_skills WHERE id='" . $skill . "' AND experience='" . $experience . "' AND year='" . $year . "'"); if (!$dbc) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); } else { while($row = mysqli_fetch_array($dbc)){ $id = $row["id"]; } } $query2 = "INSERT INTO users_skills (skill_id, user_id, date_created) VALUES ('$id', '$user_id', NOW())"; if (!mysqli_query($mysqli, $query2)) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } if ($dbc == TRUE) { $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"UPDATE learned_skills JOIN users_skills ON (users_skills.skill_id = learned_skills.id) SET skill = '$skill', experience = '$experience', year = '$year'"); echo '<p class="changes-saved">Your changes have been saved!</p>'; } if (!$dbc) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } }

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  • Access violation when running native C++ application that uses a /clr built DLL

    - by doobop
    I'm reorganzing a legacy mixed (managed and unmanaged DLLs) application so that the main application segment is unmanaged MFC and that will call a C++ DLL compiled with /clr flag that will bridge the communication between the managed (C# DLLs) and unmanaged code. Unfortuantely, my changed have resulted in an Access violation that occurs before the application InitInstance() is called. This makes it very difficult to debug. The only information I get is the following stack trace. > 64006108() ntdll.dll!_ZwCreateMutant@16() + 0xc bytes kernel32.dll!_CreateMutexW@12() + 0x7a bytes So, here are some sceanrios I've tried. - Turned on Exceptions-Win32 Exceptions-c0000005 Access Violation to break when Thrown. Still the most detail I get is from the above stack trace. I've tried the application with F10, but it fails before any breakpoints are hit and fails with the above stack trace. - I've stubbed out the bridge DLL so that it only has one method that returns a bool and that method is coded to just return false (no C# code called). bool DllPassthrough::IsFailed() { return false; } If the stubbed out DLL is compiled with the /clr flag, the application fails. If it is compiled without the /clr flag, the application runs. - I've created a stub MFC application using the Visual Studio wizard for multidocument applications and call DllPassthrough::IsFailed(). This succeeds even with the /clr flag used to compile the DLL. - I've tried doing a manual LoadLibrary on winmm.lib as outlined in the following note Access violation when using c++/cli. The application still fails. So, my questions are how to solve the problem? Any hints, strategies, or previous incidents. And, failing that, how can I get more information on what code segment or library is causing the access exception? If I try more involved workarounds like doing LoadLibrary calls, I'd like to narrow it to the failing libraries. Thanks. BTW, we are using Visual Studio 2008 and the project is being built against the .NET 2.0 framework for the managed sections.

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  • Migrating from hand-written persistence layer to ORM

    - by Sergey Mikhanov
    Hi community, We are currently evaluating options for migrating from hand-written persistence layer to ORM. We have a bunch of legacy persistent objects (~200), that implement simple interface like this: interface JDBC { public long getId(); public void setId(long id); public void retrieve(); public void setDataSource(DataSource ds); } When retrieve() is called, object populates itself by issuing handwritten SQL queries to the connection provided using the ID it received in the setter (this usually is the only parameter to the query). It manages its statements, result sets, etc itself. Some of the objects have special flavors of retrive() method, like retrieveByName(), in this case a different SQL is issued. Queries could be quite complex, we often join several tables to populate the sets representing relations to other objects, sometimes join queries are issued on-demand in the specific getter (lazy loading). So basically, we have implemented most of the ORM's functionality manually. The reason for that was performance. We have very strong requirements for speed, and back in 2005 (when this code was written) performance tests has shown that none of mainstream ORMs were that fast as hand-written SQL. The problems we are facing now that make us think of ORM are: Most of the paths in this code are well-tested and are stable. However, some rarely-used code is prone to result set and connection leaks that are very hard to detect We are currently squeezing some additional performance by adding caching to our persistence layer and it's a huge pain to maintain the cached objects manually in this setup Support of this code when DB schema changes is a big problem. I am looking for an advice on what could be the best alternative for us. As far as I know, ORMs has advanced in last 5 years, so it might be that now there's one that offers an acceptable performance. As I see this issue, we need to address those points: Find some way to reuse at least some of the written SQL to express mappings Have the possibility to issue native SQL queries without the necessity to manually decompose their results (i.e. avoid manual rs.getInt(42) as they are very sensitive to schema changes) Add a non-intrusive caching layer Keep the performance figures. Is there any ORM framework you could recommend with regards to that?

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  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • Java: Combination of recursive loops which has different FOR loop inside; Output: FOR loops indexes

    - by vvinjj
    currently recursion is fresh & difficult topic for me, however I need to use it in one of my algorithms. Here is the challenge: I need a method where I specify number of recursions (number of nested FOR loops) and number of iterations for each FOR loop. The result should show me, something simmilar to counter, however each column of counter is limited to specific number. ArrayList<Integer> specs= new ArrayList<Integer>(); specs.add(5); //for(int i=0 to 5; i++) specs.add(7); specs.add(9); specs.add(2); specs.add(8); specs.add(9); public void recursion(ArrayList<Integer> specs){ //number of nested loops will be equal to: specs.size(); //each item in specs, specifies the For loop max count e.g: //First outside loop will be: for(int i=0; i< specs.get(0); i++) //Second loop inside will be: for(int i=0; i< specs.get(1); i++) //... } The the results will be similar to outputs of this manual, nested loop: int[] i; i = new int[7]; for( i[6]=0; i[6]<5; i[6]++){ for( i[5]=0; i[5]<7; i[5]++){ for(i[4] =0; i[4]<9; i[4]++){ for(i[3] =0; i[3]<2; i[3]++){ for(i[2] =0; i[2]<8; i[2]++){ for(i[1] =0; i[1]<9; i[1]++){ //... System.out.println(i[1]+" "+i[2]+" "+i[3]+" "+i[4]+" "+i[5]+" "+i[6]); } } } } } } I already, killed 3 days on this, and still no results, was searching it in internet, however the examples are too different. Therefore, posting the programming question in internet first time in my life. Thank you in advance, you are free to change the code efficiency, I just need the same results.

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  • How to query data from a password protected https website

    - by Addie
    I'd like my application to query a csv file from a secure website. I have no experience with web programming so I'd appreciate detailed instructions. Currently I have the user login to the site, manually query the csv, and have my application load the file locally. I'd like to automate this by having the user enter his login information, authenticating him on the website, and querying the data. The application is written in C# .NET. The url of the site is: https://www2.emidas.com/default.asp. I've tested the following code already and am able to access the file once the user has already authenticated himself and created a manual query. System.Net.WebClient Client = new WebClient(); Stream strm = Client.OpenRead("https://www3.emidas.com/users/<username>/file.csv"); Here is the request sent to the site for authentication. I've angle bracketed the real userid and password. POST /pwdVal.asp HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, application/x-shockwave-flash, */* User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Cookie: ASPSESSIONID<unsure if this data contained password info so removed>; ClientId=<username> Host: www3.emidas.com Content-Length: 36 Connection: Keep-Alive Cache-Control: no-cache Accept-Language: en-US client_id=<username>&password=<password>

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  • How to change source order of <div> in less steps/automatically?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    How can i do this task automate. i need to change source order of div, which has same id in above 100 pages. i created example This is default condition <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 1</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 2</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 3</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 4</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 5</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 6</div> </div> I need lik this <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 1</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 3</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 2</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 6</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 4</div> </div> <div class="identification"> <div class="number">Number 5</div> </div> Is the manual editing only option? I use dreamweaver.

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  • One Controller is Sometimes Bound Twice with Ninject

    - by Dusda
    I have the following NinjectModule, where we bind our repositories and business objects: /// <summary> /// Used by Ninject to bind interface contracts to concrete types. /// </summary> public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { /// <summary> /// Loads this instance. /// </summary> public override void Load() { //bindings here. //Bind<IMyInterface>().To<MyImplementation>(); Bind<IUserRepository>().To<SqlUserRepository>(); Bind<IHomeRepository>().To<SqlHomeRepository>(); Bind<IPhotoRepository>().To<SqlPhotoRepository>(); //and so on //business objects Bind<IUser>().To<Data.User>(); Bind<IHome>().To<Data.Home>(); Bind<IPhoto>().To<Data.Photo>(); //and so on } } And here are the relevant overrides from our Global.asax, where we inherit from NinjectHttpApplication in order to integrate it with Asp.Net Mvc (The module lies in a separate dll called Thing.Web.Configuration): protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); //routes and areas AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //Initializes a singleton that must reference this HttpApplication class, //in order to provide the Ninject Kernel to the rest of Thing.Web. This //is necessary because there are a few instances (currently Membership) //that require manual dependency injection. NinjectKernel.Instance = new NinjectKernel(this); //view model factory. NinjectKernel.Instance.Kernel.Bind<IModelFactory>().To<MasterModelFactory>(); } protected override NinjectControllerFactory CreateControllerFactory() { return base.CreateControllerFactory(); } protected override Ninject.IKernel CreateKernel() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load("Thing.Web.Configuration.dll"); return kernel; } Now, everything works great, with one exception: For some reason, sometimes Ninject will bind the PhotoController twice. This leads to an ActivationException, because Ninject can't discern which PhotoController I want. This causes all requests for thumbnails and other user images on the site to fail. Here is the PhotoController in it's entirety: public class PhotoController : Controller { public PhotoController() { } public ActionResult Index(string id) { var dir = Server.MapPath("~/" + ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["UserPhotos"]); var path = Path.Combine(dir, id); return base.File(path, "image/jpeg"); } } Every controller works in exactly the same way, but for some reason the PhotoController gets double-bound. Even then, it only happens occasionally (either when re-building the solution, or on staging/production when the app pool kicks in). Once this happens, it continues to happen until I redeploy without changing anything. So...what's up with that?

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  • Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

    - by Mason
    I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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  • how to deal with the position in a c# stream

    - by CapsicumDreams
    The (entire) documentation for the position property on a stream says: When overridden in a derived class, gets or sets the position within the current stream. The Position property does not keep track of the number of bytes from the stream that have been consumed, skipped, or both. That's it. OK, so we're fairly clear on what it doesn't tell us, but I'd really like to know what it in fact does stand for. What is 'the position' for? Why would we want to alter or read it? If we change it - what happens? In a pratical example, I have a a stream that periodically gets written to, and I have a thread that attempts to read from it (ideally ASAP). From reading many SO issues, I reset the position field to zero to start my reading. Once this is done: Does this affect where the writer to this stream is going to attempt to put the data? Do I need to keep track of the last write position myself? (ie if I set the position to zero to read, does the writer begin to overwrite everything from the first byte?) If so, do I need a semaphore/lock around this 'position' field (subclassing, perhaps?) due to my two threads accessing it? If I don't handle this property, does the writer just overflow the buffer? Perhaps I don't understand the Stream itself - I'm regarding it as a FIFO pipe: shove data in at one end, and suck it out at the other. If it's not like this, then do I have to keep copying the data past my last read (ie from position 0x84 on) back to the start of my buffer? I've seriously tried to research all of this for quite some time - but I'm new to .NET. Perhaps the Streams have a long, proud (undocumented) history that everyone else implicitly understands. But for a newcomer, it's like reading the manual to your car, and finding out: The accelerator pedal affects the volume of fuel and air sent to the fuel injectors. It does not affect the volume of the entertainment system, or the air pressure in any of the tires, if fitted. Technically true, but seriously, what we want to know is that if we mash it to the floor you go faster..

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  • mysql changing delimiter

    - by jimsmith
    I'm trying to add this function using php myadmin, first off I get on error line 5, which is apparently because you need to change the delimiter from ; to something else so i tried this DELIMITER | CREATE FUNCTION LEVENSHTEIN (s1 VARCHAR(255), s2 VARCHAR(255)) RETURNS INT DETERMINISTIC BEGIN DECLARE s1_len, s2_len, i, j, c, c_temp, cost INT; DECLARE s1_char CHAR; DECLARE cv0, cv1 VARBINARY(256); SET s1_len = CHAR_LENGTH(s1), s2_len = CHAR_LENGTH(s2), cv1 = 0x00, j = 1, i = 1, c = 0; IF s1 = s2 THEN RETURN 0; ELSEIF s1_len = 0 THEN RETURN s2_len; ELSEIF s2_len = 0 THEN RETURN s1_len; ELSE WHILE j <= s2_len DO SET cv1 = CONCAT(cv1, UNHEX(HEX(j))), j = j + 1; END WHILE; WHILE i <= s1_len DO SET s1_char = SUBSTRING(s1, i, 1), c = i, cv0 = UNHEX(HEX(i)), j = 1; WHILE j <= s2_len DO SET c = c + 1; IF s1_char = SUBSTRING(s2, j, 1) THEN SET cost = 0; ELSE SET cost = 1; END IF; SET c_temp = CONV(HEX(SUBSTRING(cv1, j, 1)), 16, 10) + cost; IF c > c_temp THEN SET c = c_temp; END IF; SET c_temp = CONV(HEX(SUBSTRING(cv1, j+1, 1)), 16, 10) + 1; IF c > c_temp THEN SET c = c_temp; END IF; SET cv0 = CONCAT(cv0, UNHEX(HEX(c))), j = j + 1; END WHILE; SET cv1 = cv0, i = i + 1; END WHILE; END IF; RETURN c; END DELIMITER ; But I get this error: #1064 - You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'delimiter | Please help !?

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  • Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

    - by mtraut
    EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • Is it a good or bad practice to call instance methods from a java constructor?

    - by Steve
    There are several different ways I can initialize complex objects (with injected dependencies and required set-up of injected members), are all seem reasonable, but have various advantages and disadvantages. I'll give a concrete example: final class MyClass { private final Dependency dependency; @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { this.dependency = dependency; dependency.addHandler(new Handler() { @Override void handle(int foo) { MyClass.this.doSomething(foo); } }); doSomething(0); } private void doSomething(int foo) { dependency.doSomethingElse(foo+1); } } As you can see, the constructor does 3 things, including calling an instance method. I've been told that calling instance methods from a constructor is unsafe because it circumvents the compiler's checks for uninitialized members. I.e. I could have called doSomething(0) before setting this.dependency, which would have compiled but not worked. What is the best way to refactor this? Make doSomething static and pass in the dependency explicitly? In my actual case I have three instance methods and three member fields that all depend on one another, so this seems like a lot of extra boilerplate to make all three of these static. Move the addHandler and doSomething into an @Inject public void init() method. While use with Guice will be transparent, it requires any manual construction to be sure to call init() or else the object won't be fully-functional if someone forgets. Also, this exposes more of the API, both of which seem like bad ideas. Wrap a nested class to keep the dependency to make sure it behaves properly without exposing additional API:class DependencyManager { private final Dependency dependency; public DependecyManager(Dependency dependency) { ... } public doSomething(int foo) { ... } } @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { DependencyManager manager = new DependencyManager(dependency); manager.doSomething(0); } This pulls instance methods out of all constructors, but generates an extra layer of classes, and when I already had inner and anonymous classes (e.g. that handler) it can become confusing - when I tried this I was told to move the DependencyManager to a separate file, which is also distasteful because it's now multiple files to do a single thing. So what is the preferred way to deal with this sort of situation?

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  • Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

    - by Justin
    Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

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