Search Results

Search found 3019 results on 121 pages for 'arrange act assert'.

Page 111/121 | < Previous Page | 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118  | Next Page >

• Activate a (COM Interop based) ActiveX contol using registration free com

  - by embnut

  I have a (COM Interop based) ActiveX contol that I am trying to use with registration free com. When the control loads the control is inactive (does not responds to events, control not fully rendered etc). After much search I discovered that COM objects using reg-free-com use the miscStatus attribute to set the initial state to get correctly activated. I know how to use it with a comClass which corresponds to a native COM Object. 1) What is the equivalent of the following for clrClass element which corresponds to a COM-interop object? <comClass clsid="{qqqqqqqq-wwww-eeee-rrrr-00C0F0283628}" tlbid="{xxxxxxxx-yyyy-zzzz-aaaa-0000F8754DA1}" threadingModel="Both" progid="SomeCompany.SomeOleControl" description="Some ActiveX Control" miscStatus="recomposeonresize,insideout,activatewhenvisible,nouiactivate" > 2) The COM client I am using is Visual FoxPro. If the (1) is not possible what can I do in VFP to activate the inactive ActiveX control. (I dont mind VB or C# input too if I can use it to find the equivalent foxpro) Currently I tried the following this.AddObject('OleControl1', 'oleControl', 'SomeCompany.SomeOleControl') this.OleControl1.AutoActivate = 3 this.OleControl1.Visible = .T. this.OleControl1.SetFocus But I the OleControl1 gets focus before passing events like mouse click to its subelements. So I have to click twice on it to do the necessary action, any time it does not have focus. I would like the control to act as if the "nouiactivate" of the miscStatus value is set. 3) Is there any other way of accomplishing what I want to do? Hans Passant, here is the listing of current Assembly.dll.manifest. The formatting in the comment made it unreadable. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity name="Assembly" version="1.0.0.0" type="win32" publicKeyToken="wwwwwwwwwwwwwwww"/> <clrClass name="SomeCompany.SomeOleControl" clsid="{qqqqqqqq-wwww-eeee-rrrr-00C0F0283628}" progid="SomeCompany.SomeOleControl" threadingModel="Both"/> <file name="Assembly.tlb"> <typelib tlbid="{xxxxxxxx-yyyy-zzzz-aaaa-0000F8754DA1}" version="1.0" helpdir="" flags="hasdiskimage"/> </file> </assembly>

  Read the article

• What is the best python module skeleton code?

  - by user213060

  == Subjective Question Warning == Looking for well supported opinions or supporting evidence. Let us assume that skeleton code can be good. If you disagree with the very concept of module skeleton code then fine, but please refrain from repeating that opinion here. Many python IDE's will start you with a template like: print 'hello world' That's not enough... So here's my skeleton code to get this question started: My Module Skeleton, Short Version: #!/usr/bin/env python """ Module Docstring """ # ## Code goes here. # def test(): """Testing Docstring""" pass if __name__=='__main__': test() and, My Module Skeleton, Long Version: #!/usr/bin/env python # -*- coding: ascii -*- """ Module Docstring Docstrings: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-0257/ """ __author__ = 'Joe Author ([email protected])' __copyright__ = 'Copyright (c) 2009-2010 Joe Author' __license__ = 'New-style BSD' __vcs_id__ = '$Id$' __version__ = '1.2.3' #Versioning: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-0386/ # ## Code goes here. # def test(): """ Testing Docstring""" pass if __name__=='__main__': test() Notes: """ ===MODULE TYPE=== Since the vast majority of my modules are "library" types, I have constructed this example skeleton as such. For modules that act as the main entry for running the full application, you would make changes such as running a main() function instead of the test() function in __main__. ===VERSIONING=== The following practice, specified in PEP8, no longer makes sense: __version__ = '$Revision: 1.2.3 $' for two reasons: (1) Distributed version control systems make it neccessary to include more than just a revision number. E.g. author name and revision number. (2) It's a revision number not a version number. Instead, the __vcs_id__ variable is being adopted. This expands to, for example: __vcs_id__ = '$Id: example.py,v 1.1.1.1 2001/07/21 22:14:04 goodger Exp $' ===VCS DATE=== Likewise, the date variable has been removed: __date__ = '$Date: 2009/01/02 20:19:18 $' ===CHARACTER ENCODING=== If the coding is explicitly specified, then it should be set to the default setting of ascii. This can be modified if necessary (rarely in practice). Defaulting to utf-8 can cause anomalies with editors that have poor unicode support. """ There are a lot of PEPs that put forward coding style recommendations. Am I missing any important best practices? What is the best python module skeleton code? Update Show me any kind of "best" that you prefer. Tell us what metrics you used to qualify "best".

  Read the article

• How to use CFNetwork to get byte array from sockets?

  - by Vic

  Hi, I'm working in a project for the iPad, it is a small program and I need it to communicate with another software that runs on windows and act like a server; so the application that I'm creating for the iPad will be the client. I'm using CFNetwork to do sockets communication, this is the way I'm establishing the connection: char ip[] = "192.168.0.244"; NSString *ipAddress = [[NSString alloc] initWithCString:ip]; /* Build our socket context; this ties an instance of self to the socket */ CFSocketContext CTX = { 0, self, NULL, NULL, NULL }; /* Create the server socket as a TCP IPv4 socket and set a callback */ /* for calls to the socket's lower-level connect() function */ TCPClient = CFSocketCreate(NULL, PF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, IPPROTO_TCP, kCFSocketDataCallBack, (CFSocketCallBack)ConnectCallBack, &CTX); if (TCPClient == NULL) return; /* Set the port and address we want to listen on */ struct sockaddr_in addr; memset(&addr, 0, sizeof(addr)); addr.sin_len = sizeof(addr); addr.sin_family = AF_INET; addr.sin_port = htons(PORT); addr.sin_addr.s_addr = inet_addr([ipAddress UTF8String]); CFDataRef connectAddr = CFDataCreate(NULL, (unsigned char *)&addr, sizeof(addr)); CFSocketConnectToAddress(TCPClient, connectAddr, -1); CFRunLoopSourceRef sourceRef = CFSocketCreateRunLoopSource(kCFAllocatorDefault, TCPClient, 0); CFRunLoopAddSource(CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), sourceRef, kCFRunLoopCommonModes); CFRelease(sourceRef); CFRunLoopRun(); And this is the way I sent the data, which basically is a byte array /* The native socket, used for various operations */ // TCPClient is a CFSocketRef member variable CFSocketNativeHandle sock = CFSocketGetNative(TCPClient); Byte byteData[3]; byteData[0] = 0; byteData[1] = 4; byteData[2] = 0; send(sock, byteData, strlen(byteData)+1, 0); Finally, as you may have noticed, when I create the server socket, I registered a callback for the kCFSocketDataCallBack type, this is the code. void ConnectCallBack(CFSocketRef socket, CFSocketCallBackType type, CFDataRef address, const void *data, void *info) { // SocketsViewController is the class that contains all the methods SocketsViewController *obj = (SocketsViewController*)info; UInt8 *unsignedData = (UInt8 *) CFDataGetBytePtr(data); char *value = (char*)unsignedData; NSString *text = [[NSString alloc]initWithCString:value length:strlen(value)]; [obj writeToTextView:text]; [text release]; } Actually, this callback is being invoked in my code, the problem is that I don't know how can I get the data that the windows client sent me, I'm expecting to receive an array of bytes, but I don't know how can I get those bytes from the data param. If anyone can help me to find a way to do this, or maybe me point me to another way to get the data from the server in my client application I would really appreciate it. Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to code a keyboard button to switch between 2 modes?

  - by le.shep20

  Hi! i'm doing a project, i'm not going to details but i will simplify my idea, i'm using Morse Code ( dot and dash) and i have 2 methods: convert_MorseToChar() and Convert_MorseTonum() in the convert_MorseToChar() method there is swich to compare the input from a user which will be Morse codes and mapping it to characters: private String convert_MorseToChar(ref string Ch) { switch (Ch) { Case ".-": MorsetoChar = "a" break; Case "-...": MorsetoChar = "b" break; Case "-.-.": MorsetoChar = "c" break; Case "-..": MorsetoChar = "d" break; Case ".": MorsetoChar = "e" break; } } and the other method Convert_MorseToNum(), ues the SAME combinations of Morse codes but mapping them to numbers: private String Convert_MorseToNum(ref string Ch) { switch (Ch) { Case ".-": MorsetoChar = "1" break; Case "-...": MorsetoChar = "2" break; Case "-.-.": MorsetoChar = "3" break; Case "-..": MorsetoChar = "4" break; Case ".": MorsetoChar = "5" break; } } now the senario is: there are 2 Textbox, one the user will write Morse codes in it and the other is for the output. The user will write dot "." and dash "-" from the keyboard and press Enter then the program will go to ONE of the 2 methods to convert the Morse codes. Now what tells the program where to go to convert?? my question is: I want to create mode key to swich between 2 modes: MorseTochar and MorseToNum. i want the down arrow key to act like a mode, when a user press the down arrow then it the program will be in MorseToChar mode, when ever the user input the program directly use the method convert_MorseToChar to convert to characters. and when the user press the down arrow agian, the prohram will swich to MorseToNum mode here when ever the user input as morsecode, the program will directly use the method Convert_MorseToNum() to convert to numbers. HOW I CAN DO THAT Pleaaaas!!! help me! Please excuse my English, English is not my native language :)

  Read the article

• Making a Grid in an NSView

  - by Hooligancat

  I currently have an NSView that draws a grid pattern (essentially a guide of horizontal and vertical lines) with the idea being that a user can change the spacing of the grid and the color of the grid. The purpose of the grid is to act as a guideline for the user when lining up objects. Everything works just fine with one exception. When I resize the NSWindow by dragging the resize handle, if my grid spacing is particularly small (say 10 pixels). the drag resize becomes lethargic in nature. My drawRect code for the grid is as follows: -(void)drawRect:(NSRect)dirtyRect { NSRect thisViewSize = [self bounds]; // Set the line color [[NSColor colorWithDeviceRed:0 green:(255/255.0) blue:(255/255.0) alpha:1] set]; // Draw the vertical lines first NSBezierPath * verticalLinePath = [NSBezierPath bezierPath]; int gridWidth = thisViewSize.size.width; int gridHeight = thisViewSize.size.height; int i; while (i < gridWidth) { i = i + [self currentSpacing]; NSPoint startPoint = {i,0}; NSPoint endPoint = {i, gridHeight}; [verticalLinePath setLineWidth:1]; [verticalLinePath moveToPoint:startPoint]; [verticalLinePath lineToPoint:endPoint]; [verticalLinePath stroke]; } // Draw the horizontal lines NSBezierPath * horizontalLinePath = [NSBezierPath bezierPath]; i = 0; while (i < gridHeight) { i = i + [self currentSpacing]; NSPoint startPoint = {0,i}; NSPoint endPoint = {gridWidth, i}; [horizontalLinePath setLineWidth:1]; [horizontalLinePath moveToPoint:startPoint]; [horizontalLinePath lineToPoint:endPoint]; [horizontalLinePath stroke]; } } I suspect this is entirely to do with the way that I am drawing the grid and am open to suggestions on how I might better go about it. I can see where the inefficiency is coming in, drag-resizing the NSWindow is constantly calling the drawRect in this view as it resizes, and the closer the grid, the more calculations per pixel drag of the parent window. I was thinking of hiding the view on the resize of the window, but it doesn't feel as dynamic. I want the user experience to be very smooth without any perceived delay or flickering. Does anyone have any ideas on a better or more efficient method to drawing the grid? All help, as always, very much appreciated.

  Read the article

• javascript select box hanging on second select in ie7

  - by bsandrabr

  I have a drop down select box inside a div. When the user clicks on change, a dropdown box appears next to the change/submit button and the user makes a selection which then updates the db and the selection appears instead of the dropdown. All works fine in IE8 and firefox but in IE7 it allows one selection (there are several identical dropdowns) but the second time a selection is made it hangs on please wait. This is the relevant code <td width=200> <input type="button" onclick="startChanging(this)" value="Change" /></td> <script type="text/javascript"> var selectBox, isEditing = false; var recordvalue; if( window.XMLHttpRequest ) { recordvalue = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if( window.ActiveXObject ) { try { recordvalue = new ActiveXObject('Microsoft.XMLHTTP'); } catch(e) {} } window.onload = function () { selectBox = document.getElementById('changer'); selectBox.id = ''; selectBox.parentNode.removeChild(selectBox); }; function startChanging(whatButton) { if( isEditing && isEditing != whatButton ) { return; } //no editing of other entries if( isEditing == whatButton ) { changeSelect(whatButton); return; } //this time, act as "submit" isEditing = whatButton; whatButton.value = 'Submit'; var theRow = whatButton.parentNode.parentNode; var stateCell = theRow.cells[3]; //the cell that says "present" stateCell.className = 'editing'; //so you can use CSS to remove the background colour stateCell.replaceChild(selectBox,stateCell.firstChild); //PRESENT is replaced with the select input selectBox.selectedIndex = 0; } function changeSelect(whatButton) { isEditing = true; //don't allow it to be clicked until submission is complete whatButton.value = 'Change'; var stateCell = selectBox.parentNode; var theRow = stateCell.parentNode; var editid = theRow.cells[0].firstChild.firstChild.nodeValue; //text inside the first cell var value = selectBox.firstChild.options[selectBox.firstChild.selectedIndex].value; //the option they chose selectBox.parentNode.replaceChild(document.createTextNode('Please wait...'),selectBox); if( !recordvalue ) { //allow fallback to basic HTTP location.href = 'getupdate.php?id='+editid+'&newvalue='+value; } else { recordvalue.onreadystatechange = function () { if( recordvalue.readyState != 4 ) { return; } if( recordvalue.status >= 300 ) { alert('An error occurred when trying to update'); } isEditing = false; newState = recordvalue.responseText.split("|"); stateCell.className = newState[0]; stateCell.firstChild.nodeValue = newState[1] || 'Server response was not correct'; }; recordvalue.open('GET', "getupdate.php?id="+editid+"&newvalue="+value, true); recordvalue.send(null); } } </script> If anyone has any idea why this is happening I'd be very grateful

  Read the article

• Inherited TShape.Paint does not work after overriding Shape property

  - by DarkWalker

  I'm to code a TExpandedShape class inherited from TShape. TExpandedShape must act like TShape and be able to draw extra shapes: Polygon and Star. Here is my code unit ExpandedShape; interface uses SysUtils, WinTypes, WinProcs, Messages, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, ExtCtrls, Windows; type TExpandedShapeType = ( stRectangle, stSquare, stRoundRect, stRoundSquare, stEllipse, stCircle, stPolygon, stStar ); TExpandedShape = class(TShape) private FShape: TExpandedShapeType; FEdgeCount: integer; procedure SetShape(const Value: TExpandedShapeType); procedure SetEdgeCount(const Value: integer); public procedure Paint; override; published property Shape : TExpandedShapeType read FShape write SetShape;// default stPolygon; property EdgeCount : integer read FEdgeCount write SetEdgeCount default 5; end; procedure Register; implementation procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Course', [TExpandedShape]); end; // TExpandedShape procedure TExpandedShape.Paint; begin case Shape of stStar : begin {Draw Star} end; stPolygon : begin {Draw Polygon} end; else begin {It is supposed to draw Circle, Rectangle etc, but it does not} inherited; end; end; end; procedure TExpandedShape.SetEdgeCount(const Value: integer); begin FEdgeCount := Value; Repaint; end; procedure TExpandedShape.SetShape(const Value: TExpandedShapeType); begin FShape := Value; Repaint; end; end. So, what is wrong? IMO TShape.Paint checks private value like FShape in case section and then decides what to draw. When inherited Paint method is called in my code it checks FShape value sees default 0 value [stRectangle] in there and draws it. PS: I did solve it with blackmagic way using Shape1 property instead of Shape one and if Shape1 value is not stPolygon or stStar i do like this: begin Shape := TShapeType(Shape1); inherited end; But this option is not really an option. I need a good short nice-looking one.

  Read the article

• jQuery ajaxSubmit ignored by IE8

  - by George Burrell

  Hi there, I am combing the jQuery validation plug-in with the jQuery Form Plugin to submit the form via AJAX. This works perfectly in Firefox & Chrome, but (as usual) Internet Explorer is being a pain. For reasons that are alluding me, IE is ignoring the ajaxSubmit, as a result it submits the form in the normal fashion. I've followed the validation plug-in's documentation when constructing my code: JS: $(document).ready(function() { var validator = $("#form_notify").validate({ messages: { email: { required: 'Please insert your email address. Without your email address we will not be able to contact you!', email:'Please enter a valid email address. Without a valid email address we will not be able to contact you!' } }, errorLabelContainer: "#error", success: "valid", submitHandler: function(form) {$(form).ajaxSubmit();} }); $('#email').blur(function() { if (validator.numberOfInvalids() 0) { $("#label").addClass("label_error"); return false; } else {$("#label").removeClass("label_error");} }); $('#form_notify').submit(function() { if (validator.numberOfInvalids() == 0) { $(this).fadeOut('fast', function() {$('#thank-you').fadeIn();}); return true; } return false; }); }); Form HTML: <form id="form_notify" class="cmxform" name="form_notify" action="optin.pl" method="get"> <fieldset> <div class="input"> <label id="label" for="email">Email Address:</label> <input type="text" id="email" name="email" value="" title="email address" class="{required:true, email:true}"/> <div class="clearfix"></div> </div> <input type="hidden" name="key" value="sub-745-9.224;1.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0;;subscribe-224.htm"> <input type="hidden" name="followup" value="19"> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit-button" value="Notify Me"> <div id="error"></div> </fieldset> </form> I can't understand what is causing IE to act differently, any assistance would be greatly appreciated. I can provide more information if needed. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• conversion of DNA to Protein - c structure issue

  - by sam

  I am working on conversion of DNA sequence to Protein sequence. I had completed all program only one error I found there is of structure. dna_codon is a structure and I am iterating over it.In first iteration it shows proper values of structure but from next iteration, it dont show the proper value stored in structure. Its a small error so do not think that I havnt done anything and downvote. I am stucked here because I am new in c for structures. CODE : #include <stdio.h> #include<string.h> void main() { int i, len; char short_codons[20]; char short_slc[1000]; char sequence[1000]; struct codons { char amino_acid[20], slc[20], dna_codon[40]; }; struct codons c1 [20]= { {"Isoleucine", "I", "ATT, ATC, ATA"}, {"Leucine", "L", "CTT, CTC, CTA, CTG, TTA, TTG"}, {"Valine", "V", "GTT, GTC, GTA, GTG"}, {"Phenylalanine", "F", "TTT, TTC"}, {"Methionine", "M", "ATG"}, {"Cysteine", "C", "TGT, TGC"}, {"Alanine", "A", "GCT, GCC, GCA, GCG"}, {"Proline", "P", "CCT, CCC, CCA,CCG "}, {"Threonine", "T", "ACT, ACC, ACA, ACG"}, {"Serine", "S", "TCT, TCC, TCA, TCG, AGT, AGC"}, {"Tyrosine", "Y", "TAT, TAC"}, {"Tryptophan", "W", "TGG"}, {"Glutamine", "Q", "CAA, CAG"}, {"Aspargine","N" "AAT, AAC"}, {"Histidine", "H", "CAT, CAC"}, {"Glutamic acid", "E", "GAA, GAG"}, {"Aspartic acid", "D", "GAT, GAC"}, {"Lysine", "K", "AAA, AAG"}, {"Arginine", "R", "CGT, CGC, CGA, CGG, AGA, AGG"}, {"Stop codons", "Stop", "AA, TAG, TGA"} }; int count = 0; printf("Enter the sequence: "); gets(sequence); char *input_string = sequence; char *tmp_str = input_string; int k; char *pch; while (*input_string != '\0') { char string_3l[4] = {'\0'}; strncpy(string_3l, input_string, 3); printf("\n-----------%s & %s----------", string_3l, tmp_str ); for(k=0;k<20;k++) { //printf("@REAL - %s", c1[0].dna_codon); printf("@ %s", c1[k].dna_codon); int x; x = c1[k].dna_codon; pch = strtok(x, ","); while (pch != NULL) { printf("\n%d : %s with %s", k, string_3l, pch); count=strcmp(string_3l, pch); if(count==0) { strcat(short_slc, c1[k].slc); printf("\n==>%s", short_slc); } pch = strtok (NULL, " ,.-"); } } input_string = input_string+3; } printf("\nProtien sequence is : %s\n", short_slc); } INPUT : TAGTAG OUTPUT : If you see output of printf("\n-----------%s & %s----------", string_3l, tmp_str ); in both iterations, we found that values defined in structure are reduced. I want to know why structure reduces it or its my mistake? because I am stucked here

  Read the article

• GUI Application becomes unresponsive while http request is being done

  - by JW

  I have just made my first proper little desktop GUI application that basically wraps a GUI (php-gtk) interface around a SimpleTest Web Test case to make it act as a remote testing client. Each time the local The Web Test case runs, it sends an HTTP request to another SimpleTest case (that has an XHTML interface) sitting on my server. The application, allows me to run one local test that collates information from multiple remote tests. It just has a 'Start Test' button, 'Stop Test' button and a setting to increase/decrease the number of remote tests conducted in each HTTP Request. Each test-run takes about an hour to complete. The trouble is, most of the time the application is making http requests. Furthermore, whenever an HTTP Request is being made, the application's GUI is unresponsive. I have taken to making the application wait a few seconds (iterating through the Gtk::main_iteration ) between requests in order to give the user time to re-size the window, press the Stop button, etc. But, this makes the whole test run take a lot a longer than is necessary. <?php require_once('simpletest/web_tester.php'); class TestRemoteTestingClient extends WebTestCase { function testRunIterations() { ... $this->assertTrue($this->get($nextUrl), 'getting from pointer:'. $this->_remoteMementoPointer); $this->assertResponse(200, "checking response for " . $nextUrl ); $this->assertText('RemoteNodeGreen'); $this->doGtkIterationsForMinNSeconds($secs); ... } public function doGtkIterationsForMinNSeconds($secs) { $this->appendStatusMessage("Waiting " . $secs); $start = time(); $end = $start + $secs; while( (time() < $end) ) { $this->appendStatusMessage("Waiting " . ($end - time())); while(gtk::events_pending()) Gtk::main_iteration(); } } } Is there a way to keep the application responsive whilst, at the same time making an HTTP request? I am considering splitting the application into two, where: Test Controller Application - Acts as a settings-writer / report-reader and this writes to settings file and reads a report file. Test Runner Application - Acts as a settings-reader / report-writer and, for each iteration reads the settings file, Runs the test, then write a report. So to tell it to close down - I'd: Press the Stop Button on the 'Test Controller Application', which writes to the settings file, which is read by the 'Test Runner Application' which stops, then writes to the report file to say it stopped the 'Test Controller Application' reads the report and updates the status and so on... However, before I go ahead and split the application in two - I am wondering if there is any other obvious way to deal with, this issue. I suspect it is probably quite common and a well-trodden path. Also is there an easier way to send messages between two applications?

  Read the article

• How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by Jiho Han

  I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

  Read the article

• Properly Establishing an ApplicationEndpoint in UCMA 3.0

  - by user570720

  I've been struggling with getting an application endpoint working on UCMA 3.0. I am trying to run an application on a server separate from the Lync server which uses a registered ApplicationEndpoint to monitor presence and act as a bot which can send other users messages. I used to have my code working with a UserEndpoint (which was fine for monitoring presence), but did not have the capabilities to send IMs to other Lync users. After searching the web, I'm finally at the point where I'm getting this error when running my code: System.ArgumentException was unhandled Message=An ApplicationEndpoint can be registered only if proxy and Multual Tls have been specified. Source=Microsoft.Rtc.Collaboration StackTrace: at Microsoft.Rtc.Collaboration.ApplicationEndpoint..ctor(CollaborationPlatform platform, ApplicationEndpointSettings settings) at Waldo.endpointHelper.CreateApplicationEndpoint(ApplicationEndpointSettings applicationEndpointSettings) in C:\Users\l1m5\Desktop\waldoproject\trunk\WaldoSoln\waldoGrabPresence\endpointHelper.cs:line 117 at Waldo.endpointHelper.CreateEstablishedApplicationEndpoint(String endpointFriendlyName) in C:\Users\l1m5\Desktop\waldoproject\trunk\WaldoSoln\waldoGrabPresence\endpointHelper.cs:line 228 at Waldo.waldoGrabPresence.Run() in C:\Users\l1m5\Desktop\waldoproject\trunk\WaldoSoln\waldoGrabPresence\waldoGrabPresence.cs:line 60 at Waldo.waldoGrabPresence.Main(String[] args) in C:\Users\l1m5\Desktop\waldoproject\trunk\WaldoSoln\waldoGrabPresence\waldoGrabPresence.cs:line 42 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException: After some searching, I followed the instructions here: http://blogs.claritycon.com/blogs/michael_greenlee/archive/2009/03/21/installing-a-certificate-for-ucma-v2-0-applications.aspx to import a certificate onto the server that I'm trying to run the application on, but to no avail. So at this point, I think that there must be something wrong with how I'm setting up the ApplicationEndpointSettings, CollaberationPlatform or ApplicationEndpoint objects. Here's how I'm doing it: ApplicationEndpointSettings settings = new ApplicationEndpointSettings(_ownerURIPrompt, _serverFQDNPrompt, _trustedPortPrompt); ServerPlatformSettings settings = new ServerPlatformSettings(null, _serverFQDNPrompt, _trustedPortPrompt, _trustedApplicationGRUU); _collabPlatform = new CollaborationPlatform(settings); _applicationEndpoint = new ApplicationEndpoint(_collabPlatform, applicationEndpointSettings); Does anyone see any problems with what I'm doing? Or, better yet, does anyone know of a blog that walks you through establishing an application endpoint in the situation I'm in? I work really well with tutorials or samples, but have not found one that seems to accomplish what I'm trying to do. Thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• DriverManager always returns my custom driver regardless of the connection URL

  - by JGB146

  I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

  Read the article

• Why does Python's math.factorial not play nice with threads?

  - by W1N9Zr0

  Why does math.factorial act so weird in a thread? Here is an example, it creates three threads: thread that just sleeps for a while thread that increments an int for a while thread that does math.factorial on a large number. It calls start on the threads, then join with a timeout The sleep and spin threads work as expected and return from start right away, and then sit in the join for the timeout. The factorial thread on the other hand does not return from start until it runs to the end! import sys from threading import Thread from time import sleep, time from math import factorial # Helper class that stores a start time to compare to class timed_thread(Thread): def __init__(self, time_start): Thread.__init__(self) self.time_start = time_start # Thread that just executes sleep() class sleep_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): sleep(15) print "st DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # Thread that increments a number for a while class spin_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): x = 1 while x < 120000000: x += 1 print "sp DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # Thread that calls math.factorial with a large number class factorial_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): factorial(50000) print "ft DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # the tests print print "sleep_thread test" time_start = time() st = sleep_thread(time_start) st.start() print "st.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) st.join(2) print "st.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "sleep alive:\t%r" % st.isAlive() print print "spin_thread test" time_start = time() sp = spin_thread(time_start) sp.start() print "sp.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) sp.join(2) print "sp.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "sp alive:\t%r" % sp.isAlive() print print "factorial_thread test" time_start = time() ft = factorial_thread(time_start) ft.start() print "ft.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) ft.join(2) print "ft.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "ft alive:\t%r" % ft.isAlive() And here is the output on Python 2.6.5 on CentOS x64: sleep_thread test st.start: 0.000675 st.join: 2.006963 sleep alive: True spin_thread test sp.start: 0.000595 sp.join: 2.010066 sp alive: True factorial_thread test ft DONE: 4.475453 ft.start: 4.475589 ft.join: 4.475615 ft alive: False st DONE: 10.994519 sp DONE: 12.054668 I've tried this on python 2.6.5 on CentOS x64, 2.7.2 on Windows x86 and the factorial thread does not return from start on either of them until the thread is done executing. I've also tried this with PyPy 1.8.0 on Windows x86, and there result is slightly different. The start does return immediately, but then the join doesn't time out! sleep_thread test st.start: 0.001000 st.join: 2.001000 sleep alive: True spin_thread test sp.start: 0.000000 sp DONE: 0.197000 sp.join: 0.236000 sp alive: False factorial_thread test ft.start: 0.032000 ft DONE: 9.011000 ft.join: 9.012000 ft alive: False st DONE: 12.763000

  Read the article

• Powershell $LastExitCode=0 but $?=False . Redirecting stderr to stdout gives NativeCommandError

  - by Colonel Panic

  Can anyone explain Powershell's surprising behaviour in the second example below? First, a example of sane behaviour: PS C:\> & cmd /c "echo Hello from standard error 1>&2"; echo "`$LastExitCode=$LastExitCode and `$?=$?" Hello from standard error $LastExitCode=0 and $?=True No surprises. I print a message to standard error (using cmd's echo). I inspect the variables $? and $LastExitCode. They equal to True and 0 respectively, as expected. However, if I ask Powershell to redirect standard error to standard output over the first command, I get a NativeCommandError: PS C:\> & cmd /c "echo Hello from standard error 1>&2" 2>&1; echo "`$LastExitCode=$LastExitCode and `$?=$?" cmd.exe : Hello from standard error At line:1 char:4 + cmd <<<< /c "echo Hello from standard error 1>&2" 2>&1; echo "`$LastExitCode=$LastExitCode and `$?=$?" + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (Hello from standard error :String) [], RemoteException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : NativeCommandError $LastExitCode=0 and $?=False My first question, why the NativeCommandError ? Secondly, why is $? False when cmd ran successfully and $LastExitCode is 0? Powershell's docs about_Automatic_Variables don't explicitly define $?. I always supposed it is True if and only if $LastExitCode is 0 but my example contradicts that. Here's how I came across this behaviour in the real-world (simplified). It really is FUBAR. I was calling one Powershell script from another. The inner script: cmd /c "echo Hello from standard error 1>&2" if (! $?) { echo "Job failed. Sending email.." exit 1 } # do something else Running this simply .\job.ps1, it works fine, no email is sent. However, I was calling it from another Powershell script, logging to a file .\job.ps1 2>&1 > log.txt. In this case, an email is sent! Here, the act of observing a phenomenon changes its outcome. This feels like quantum physics rather than scripting! [Interestingly: .\job.ps1 2>&1 may or not blow up depending on where you run it]

  Read the article

• Managing multiple AJAX calls to PHP scripts

  - by relativelycoded

  I have a set of 5 HTML dropdowns that act as filters for narrowing results returned from a mySQL database. The three pertinent filters are for "Province", "Region", and "City" selection, respectively. I have three functions: findSchools(), which runs when any of the filters (marked with CSS class .filter) are changed, and fetches the results via AJAX from a PHP script. Once that is done, two other functions are called... changeRegionOptions(), which, upon changing the "Province" filter, and updates the available options using the same method as the first function, but posting to a different script. changeCityOptions(), which runs if the "Region" filter was changed, and updates options, again using the same method. The problem is that since I want these AJAX functions to run simultaneously, and they by nature run asynchronously, I've tried using $.when to control the execution of the functions, but it doesn't fix the problem. The functions run, but the Region and City filters return blank (no options); the FireBug report shows absolutely no output, even though the POST request went through. The posted parameter for filter_province gets sent normally, but the one for region gets cut off at the end -- it sends as filter_region=, with no value passed. So I'm presuming my logic is wrong somewhere. The code is below: // When any of the filters are changed, let's query the database... $("select.filter").change(function() { findSchools(); }); // First, we see if there are any results... function findSchools() { var sch_province = document.filterform.filter_province.value; var sch_region = document.filterform.filter_region.value; var sch_city = document.filterform.filter_city.value; var sch_cat = document.filterform.filter_category.value; var sch_type = document.filterform.filter_type.value; $.post("fetch_results.php", { filter_province : sch_province, filter_region : sch_region, filter_city : sch_city, filter_category : sch_cat, filter_type : sch_type }, function(data) { $("#results").html(""); $("#results").hide(); $("#results").html(data); $("#results").fadeIn(600); } ); // Once the results are fetched, we want to see if the filter they changed was the one for Province, and if so, update the Region and City options to match that selection... $("#filter_province").change(function() { $.when(findSchools()) .done(changeRegionOptions()); $.when(changeRegionOptions()) .done(changeCityOptions()); }); }; This is just one of the ways I've tried to solve it; I've tried using an IF statement, and tried calling the functions directly inside the general select.filter.change() function (after findSchools(); ), but they all return the same result. Any help with this would be great!

  Read the article

• Why does my ko computed observable not update bound UI elements when its value changes?

  - by Allen

  I'm trying to wrap a cookie in a computed observable (which I'll later turn into a protectedObservable) and I'm having some problems with the computed observable. I was under the opinion that changes to the computed observable would be broadcast to any UI elements that have been bound to it. I've created the following fiddle JavaScript: var viewModel = {}; // simulating a cookie store, this part isnt as important var cookie = function () { // simulating a value stored in cookies var privateZipcode = "12345"; return { 'write' : function (val) { privateZipcode = val; }, 'read': function () { return privateZipcode; } } }(); viewModel.zipcode = ko.computed({ read: function () { return cookie.read(); }, write: function (value) { cookie.write(value); }, owner: viewModel }); ko.applyBindings(viewModel);? HTML: zipcode: <input type='text' data-bind="value: zipcode"> <br /> zipcode: <span data-bind="text: zipcode"></span>? I'm not using an observable to store privateZipcode since that's really just going to be in a cookie. I'm hoping that the ko.computed will provide the notifications and binding functionality that I need, though most of the examples I've seen with ko.computed end up using a ko.observable underneath the covers. Shouldn't the act of writing the value to my computed observable signal the UI elements that are bound to its value? Shouldn't these just update? Workaround I've got a simple workaround where I just use a ko.observable along side of my cookie store and using that will trigger the required updates to my DOM elements but this seems completely unnecessary, unless ko.computed lacks the signaling / dependency type functionality that ko.observable has. My workaround fiddle, you'll notice that the only thing that changes is that I added a seperateObservable that isn't used as a store, its only purpose is to signal to the UI that the underlying data has changed. // simulating a cookie store, this part isnt as important var cookie = function () { // simulating a value stored in cookies var privateZipcode = "12345"; // extra observable that isnt really used as a store, just to trigger updates to the UI var seperateObservable = ko.observable(privateZipcode); return { 'write' : function (val) { privateZipcode = val; seperateObservable(val); }, 'read': function () { seperateObservable(); return privateZipcode; } } }(); This makes sense and works as I'd expect because viewModel.zipcode depends on seperateObservable and updates to that should (and does) signal the UI to update. What I don't understand, is why doesn't a call to the write function on my ko.computed signal the UI to update, since that element is bound to that ko.computed? I suspected that I might have to use something in knockout to manually signal that my ko.computed has been updated, and I'm fine with that, that makes sense. I just haven't been able to find a way to accomplish that.

  Read the article

• Why do some questions get closed for no reason? [closed]

  - by IVlad

  Recently there was a question asking about generating all subsets of a set using a stack and a queue, which was closed (and now deleted it seems) as not a real question for no good reason, since it didn't fit into any of these conditions: It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. No, it was clear what was being asked. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. Not ambiguous, not vague, not incomplete, definitely not rhetorical and could easily be answered if one knew the solution. Now, the exact same thing has happened with this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2791982/a-shortest-path-problem-with-superheroes-and-intergalactic-journeys/2793746#2793746 I am interested in hearing a logical argument for why that question is either ambiguous, vague, incomplete, rhetorical or cannot reasonably be answered in its current form. It seems that (the same bunch of) people like to close questions that they think are homework questions, especially when they think people want to be served the solution on a platter, which is also not the case: Any suggestions or ideas of how this problem might be solved would be most welcomed. Most of the time the people asking these questions are very reasonable and appreciate even the most vague idea, yet their question is closed. Let's go further and assume that it IS a homework problem. So what? When I registered here I didn't see any rule that said not to post homework problems, nor do I see such a rule now. What is wrong with posting homework problems that makes people hunt them down with a passion to close them without even reading the entire question body? This site is full of questions asked by people who get paid to know the things they are asking, yet their questions are considered fine. How is solving someone's homework problem worse? In some places (like where I live), computer science is a mandatory high school subject, and not everyone is interested in it. How is helping at least those people worse than doing someone's JOB? Not answering homework questions is fine and it's everyone's choice, but I consider closing them to be an act of power abuse, selfishness, and an insult to the fellow community members who are also interested in a solution or want feedback on their proposed solution. So my questions are: - Why do questions like the above get closed for reasons that do not apply? Why do you close them? Why don't you? - Why doesn't a vote to reopen a question reopen it automatically? Needing 5 votes for a reopen takes too long, and it's not fair because one reopen vote basically cancels out a close vote, making it 4 close votes (or 5 to 1, which is the same as only 4 people wanting to close the question), which isn't enough to close the question. I think a question should only be closed when CloseVotes - ReopenVotes >= 5. I'm hoping this will stay up, but I realize it probably won't. In either case, I think this is worth saying and discussing, since it IS community-related.

  Read the article

• How can I pass managed objects from one AppDomain to another?

  - by Dennis P

  I have two assemblies that I'm trying to link together. One is a sort of background process that's built with WinForms and will be designed to run as a Windows Service. I have a second project that will act as a UI for the background process whenever a user launches it. I've never tried attempting something like this with managed code before, so I've started trying to use windows messages to communicate between the two processes. I'm struggling when it comes to passing more than just IntPtrs back and forth, however. Here's the code from a control in my UI project that registers itself with the background process: public void Init() { IntPtr hwnd = IntPtr.Zero; Process[] ps = Process.GetProcessesByName("BGServiceApp"); Process mainProcess = null; if(ps == null || ps.GetLength(0) == 0) { mainProcess = LaunchApp(); } else { mainProcess = ps[0]; } SendMessage(mainProcess.MainWindowHandle, INIT_CONNECTION, this.Handle, IntPtr.Zero); } protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONFIRMED && InitComplete != null) { string message = Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(m.WParam); Marshal.FreeHGlobal(m.WParam); InitComplete(message, EventArgs.Empty); } base.WndProc(ref m); } This is the code from the background process that's supposed to receive a request from the UI process to register for status updates and send a confirmation message. protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONNECTION) { RegisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); Respond(m.WParam); } if(m.Msg == UNINIT_CONNECTION) { UnregisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); if(m_RegisteredDispatchers.Count == 0) { this.Close(); } } base.WndProc(ref m); } private void Respond(IntPtr caller) { string test = "Registration confirmed!"; IntPtr ptr = Marshal.StringToHGlobalAuto(test); SendMessage(caller, INIT_CONFIRMED, ptr, IntPtr.Zero); } } The UI process receives the INIT_CONFIRMED message from my background process, but when I try to marshal the IntPtr back into a string, I get an empty string. Is the area of heap I'm using out of scope to the other process or am I missing some security attribute maybe? Is there a better and cleaner way to go about something like this using an event driven model?

  Read the article

• STDOUT can not return to Screen

  - by rockyurock

  STDOUT can not return to Screen Hello all below is the part of my code, my code enters "if loop" with $value =1 and output of the process "iperf.exe" is getting into my_output.txt. As i am timing out the process after alram(20sec) time,also wanted to capture the output of this process only. then after i want to continue to the command prompt but i am not able to return to the command promt... not only this code itself does not PRINT on the command prompt , rather it is priniting on the my_output.txt file (i am looping this if loop through rest of my code) output.txt ========== inside value loop2 ------------------------------------------------------------ Server listening on UDP port 5001 Receiving 1470 byte datagrams UDP buffer size: 8.00 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [160] local 10.232.62.151 port 5001 connected with 10.232.62.151 port 1505 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth Jitter Lost/Total Datagrams [160] 0.0- 5.0 sec 2.14 MBytes 3.59 Mbits/sec 0.000 ms 0/ 1528 (0%) inside value loop3 clue1 clue2 inside value loop4 one iperf completed Transfer Transfer Starting: Intent { act=android.settings.APN_SETTINGS } ******AUTOMATION COMPLETED****** Looks some problem with reinitializing the STDOUT.. even i tried to use close(STDOUT); but again it did not return to STDOUT could sombbody please help out ?? /rocky CODE:: if($value) { my $file = 'my_output.txt'; use Win32::Process; print"inside value loop\n"; # redirect stdout to a file open STDOUT, '>', $file or die "can't redirect STDOUT to <$file> $!"; Win32::Process::Create(my $ProcessObj, "iperf.exe", "iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001", 0, NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, ".") || die ErrorReport(); $alarm_time = $IPERF_RUN_TIME+2; #20sec print"inside value loop2\n"; sleep $alarm_time; $ProcessObj->Kill(0); sub ErrorReport{ print Win32::FormatMessage( Win32::GetLastError() ); } print"inside value loop3\n"; print"clue1\n"; #close(STDOUT); print"clue2\n"; print"inside value loop4\n"; print"one iperf completed\n"; } my $data_file="my_output.txt"; open(ROCK, $data_file)|| die("Could not open file!"); @raw_data=<ROCK>; @COUNT_PS =split(/ /,$raw_data[7]); my $LOOP_COUNT_PS_4 = $COUNT_PS[9]; my $LOOP_COUNT_PS_5 = $COUNT_PS[10]; print "$LOOP_COUNT_PS_4\n"; print "$LOOP_COUNT_PS_5\n"; my $tput_value = "$LOOP_COUNT_PS_4"." $LOOP_COUNT_PS_5"; print "$tput_value"; close(ROCK); print FH1 "\n $count \| $tput_value \n"; regds rakesh

  Read the article

• LoaderContext and ApplicationDomain changes with Adobe AIR ?

  - by Tyn

  Hello, I'm currently experimenting with loading external SWF files from both an standard AS3 application, and an AIR application. It seems that the AIR application doesn't act the same way a standard SWF run by the Flash Player does. According to the documentation, the applicationDomain property of LoaderContext is usable in an AIR application too, but it just seems to be not working. I have the following code : package { import flash.display.Loader; import flash.display.LoaderInfo; import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.events.Event; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.system.ApplicationDomain; import flash.system.LoaderContext; public class Invoker extends Sprite { private var _ldr : Loader; public function Invoker() { _ldr = new Loader(); _ldr.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onChildOneComplete); var ldrC : LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(false, new ApplicationDomain(ApplicationDomain.currentDomain) ); _ldr.load(new URLRequest("otherSwf.swf"), ldrC); } private function onChildOneComplete(e : Event) : void { var c1ad : ApplicationDomain = (e.target as LoaderInfo).applicationDomain; var inad : ApplicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; trace("Child One parentDomain : " + c1ad.parentDomain); trace("Invoker parentDomain : " + inad.parentDomain); trace("Child One has Invoker : " + c1ad.hasDefinition("Invoker")); trace("Invoker has Invoker : " + inad.hasDefinition("Invoker")); } } } Compiling this code as an SWF file and launching it with the Flash Player does this output, which seems right : Child One parentDomain : [object ApplicationDomain] Invoker parentDomain : null Child One has Invoker : true Invoker has Invoker : true But the same code as an AIR application does a different output : Child One parentDomain : null Invoker parentDomain : null Child One has Invoker : false Invoker has Invoker : true According to the documentation, the first output (using a SWF with Flash Player, and not an AIR application) is the right one. Also, playing around with this snippet and changing the application domain to others possible configurations (like new ApplicationDomain(null), or ApplicationDomain.currentDomain) does exaclty what the documentation says with the SWF, but does not change the output of the AIR application. Any clue why AIR is simply ignoring the application domain passed to the loader context ? Any documentation about this particular issue ? Thank you very much.

  Read the article

• Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

  - by JGB146

  I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

  Read the article

• Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

  - by Ben Stock

  I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Remove never-run call to templated function, get allocation error on run-time

  - by Narfanator

  First off, I'm a bit at a loss as to how to ask this question. So I'm going to try throwing lots of information at the problem. Ok, so, I went to completely redesign my test project for my experimental core library thingy. I use a lot of template shenanigans in the library. When I removed the "user" code, the tests gave me a memory allocation error. After quite a bit of experimenting, I narrowed it down to this bit of code (out of a couple hundred lines): void VOODOO(components::switchBoard &board){ board.addComponent<using_allegro::keyInputs<'w'> >(); } Fundementally, what's weirding me out is that it appears that the act of compiling this function (and the template function it then uses, and the template functions those then use...), makes this bug not appear. This code is not being run. Similar code (the same, but for different key vals) occurs elsewhere, but is within Boost TDD code. I realize I certainly haven't given enough information for you to solve it for me; I tried, but it more-or-less spirals into most of the code base. I think I'm most looking for "here's what the problem could be", "here's where to look", etc. There's something that's happening during compile because of this line, but I don't know enough about that step to begin looking. Sooo, how can a (presumably) compilied, but never actually run, bit of templated code, when removed, cause another part of code to fail? Error: Unhandled exceptionat 0x6fe731ea (msvcr90d.dll) in Switchboard.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xcdcdcdc1. Callstack: operator delete(void * pUser Data) allocator< class name related to key inputs callbacks ::deallocate vector< same class ::_Insert_n(...) vector< " " ::insert(...) vector<" "::push_back(...) It looks like maybe the vector isn't valid, because _MyFirst and similar data members are showing values of 0xcdcdcdcd in the debugger. But the vector is a member variable...

  Read the article

• Why does std::map operator[] create an object if the key doesn't exist?

  - by n1ck

  Hi, I'm pretty sure I already saw this question somewhere (comp.lang.c++? Google doesn't seem to find it there either) but a quick search here doesn't seem to find it so here it is: Why does the std::map operator[] create an object if the key doesn't exist? I don't know but for me this seems counter-intuitive if you compare to most other operator[] (like std::vector) where if you use it you must be sure that the index exists. I'm wondering what's the rationale for implementing this behavior in std::map. Like I said wouldn't it be more intuitive to act more like an index in a vector and crash (well undefined behavior I guess) when accessed with an invalid key? Refining my question after seeing the answers: Ok so far I got a lot of answers saying basically it's cheap so why not or things similar. I totally agree with that but why not use a dedicated function for that (I think one of the comment said that in java there is no operator[] and the function is called put)? My point is why doesn't map operator[] work like a vector? If I use operator[] on an out of range index on a vector I wouldn't like it to insert an element even if it was cheap because that probably mean an error in my code. My point is why isn't it the same thing with map. I mean, for me, using operator[] on a map would mean: i know this key already exist (for whatever reason, i just inserted it, I have redundancy somewhere, whatever). I think it would be more intuitive that way. That said what are the advantage of doing the current behavior with operator[] (and only for that, I agree that a function with the current behavior should be there, just not operator[])? Maybe it give clearer code that way? I don't know. Another answer was that it already existed that way so why not keep it but then, probably when they (the ones before stl) choose to implement it that way they found it provided an advantage or something? So my question is basically: why choose to implement it that way, meaning a somewhat lack of consistency with other operator[]. What benefit do it give? Thanks

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118  | Next Page >