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  • ajax form handling an array

    - by moata_u
    am trying to handle an array comes from php file after submitting the form data , the value of data after submitting the form is = ARRAY but i cant use this array in any way , any idea how can i handle this array !!!! Javascript : $('#file').live('change',function(){ $('#preview').html(''); $('#preview').html('<img src="loader.gif" />'); $('#data').ajaxForm(function(data){ $(data['toshow']).insertBefore('.pic_content').hide().fadeIn(1000); }).submit(); }); PHP : .... ....etc echo json_encode(array('toshow'=>somedata,'data'=>somedata)); data come from php file {"toshow":"\r\n\t\t\t\t\r\n\t\t<table class=\"out\">\r\n\t\t\t<tr ><td class=\"img\"><a title=\"2012-06-02 01-22-09\" rel=\"prettyPhoto\" href=\"img\/2012-06-02 01-22-09.284.jpg\"><img src=\"img\/thumb\/2012-06-02 01-22-09.284.jpg\"\/><\/a><\/td><\/tr>\r\n\t\t\t\r\n\t\t\t<td>\r\n\t\t\t\t<table cellSpacing=\"1\" cellPadding=\"0\">\r\n\t\t\t\t\t<tr><td class=\"data\"><span class=\"click\">2012-06-02 01-22-09<\/span><\/td><\/tr>\r\n\t\t\t\t\t<tr><td class=\"data\"><span class=\"click\">Download<\/span><\/td><\/tr>\r\n\t\t\t\t\t<tr><td class=\"data\"><a href=\"img\/2012-06-02 01-22-09.284.jpg\"><span class=\"click\">View<\/span><\/a><\/td><\/tr>\r\n\t\t\t\t<\/table>\r\n\t\t\t<\/td>\r\n\t\t\t<\/tr>\r\n\t\t<\/table>","span":"<span class='text'><img src='greencheck.png'\/>2012-06-02 01-22-09 Uploaded ,File Size =152Kb <\/span>"}

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  • Doubt regarding usage of array as a pointer in C

    - by Som
    For eg. I have an array of structs 'a' as below: struct mystruct{ int b int num; }; struct bigger_struct { struct my_struct a[10]; } struct bigger_struct *some_var; i know that the name of an array when used as a value implicitly refers to the address of the first element of the array.(Which is how the array subscript operator works at-least) Can i know do the other way around i.e if i do: some_var->a->b, it should be equivalent to some_var->a[0]->b, am i right? I have tested this and it seems to work , but is this semantically 100% correct?

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  • Accessing array elements in PHP

    - by Elliot B.
    I have an array $aMethods whose print_r output is this: Array ( [0] => Array ( [pattern] => [return_media] => 1 [return_name] => ) ) I'm trying to access 'return_media' with this code: $iReturnMedia = $aMethods[0]->return_media; echo $iReturnMedia; Also, when I tried this: $iReturnMedia = $aMethods[0]['return_media']; I get an error stating: Cannot use string offset as an array in... But it's not working, $iReturnMedia comes back as blank. Could someone tell me what I'm doing wrong here?

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  • ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException double array size

    - by Andy
    I'm going to preface this question with this statement: I know that I can easily handle this problem by reading the amount of lines in a file and making an array that size. I am not allowed to do this. Anyway, here is my question. I need to double my array's size whenever my program encounters an ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException and then copy all the previous read in information into the larger array. Here is my code public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { Scanner inScan, fScan = null; int [] A = new int[5]; inScan = new Scanner(System.in); System.out.print("Please enter the file to read from: "); while(true) { try{ String fName = inScan.nextLine(); fScan = new Scanner(new File(fName)); break; } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { System.out.println("Your file is invalid -- please re-enter"); } } String nextItem; int nextInt = 0; int i = 0; while (fScan.hasNextLine()) { try { nextItem = fScan.nextLine(); nextInt = Integer.parseInt(nextItem); A[i] = nextInt; i++; } catch (NumberFormatException e) { System.out.println("Found an invalid int -- ignored"); } catch (ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException e) { //double the size of array A until //copy all previous read in information to the larger array } } System.out.println("Here are your " + i + " items:"); for (int j = 0; j < i; j++) { System.out.println(A[j] + " "); } } }

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  • Problem with echoing my array data in PHP

    - by ggfan
    I want to create an array of numbers: 10, 9,8...to 1. But when I echo $numbers, I get "Array" as the output as to the numbers. There is probably a simple thing I missed, can you please tell me. thanks! $numbers=array(); for ($i=10; $i>0; $i--){ array_push($numbers, $i); } echo $numbers;

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  • Strange PHP array behavior overwriting values with all the same values

    - by dasdas
    Im doing a simple mysqli query with code ive used many times before but have never had this problem happen to me. I am grabbing an entire table with an unknown number of columns (it changes often so i dont know the exact value, nor the column names). I have some code that uses metadata to grab everything and stick it in an array. This all works fine, but the output is messed up: $stmt -> execute(); //the query is legit, no problems there $meta = $stmt->result_metadata(); while ($field = $meta->fetch_field()) { $params[] = &$row[$field->name]; } call_user_func_array(array($stmt, 'bind_result'), $params); while ($stmt->fetch()) { $pvalues[++$i] = $row; //$pvalues is an array of arrays. row is an array //print_r($row); print_r($pvalues[$i-1]); } $stmt -> close(); I would assume that $pvalues has the results that I am looking for. My table currently has 2 rows. $pvalues has array length 2. Both rows in $pvalues are exactly the same. If i use the: print_r($row) it prints out the correct values for both rows, but if later on i check what is in $pvalues it is incorrect (1 row is assigned to both indices of $pvalues). If i use the print_r($pvalues[$i-1]) it prints exactly as I expect, the same row in the table twice. Why isnt the data getting assigned to $pvalues? I know $row holds the right information at one point, but it is getting overwritten or lost.

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  • Number of the different elements in an array.

    - by AB
    Is it possible to compute the number of the different elements in an array in linear time and constant space? Let us say it's an array of long integers, and you can not allocate an array of length sizeof(long). P.S. Not homework, just curious. I've got a book that sort of implies that it is possible.

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  • Are "strings.xml" string arrays always parsed/deserialized in the same order?

    - by PhilaPhan80
    Can I count on string arrays within the "strings.xml" resource file to be parsed/deserialized in the same order every time? If anyone can cite any documentation that clearly spells out this guarantee, I'd appreciate it. Or, at the very least, offer a significant amount of experience with this topic. Also, is this a best practice or am I missing a simpler solution? Note: This will be a small list, so I'm not looking to implement a more complicated database or custom XML solution unless I absolutely have to. <!--KEYS (ALWAYS CORRESPONDS TO LIST BELOW ??)--> <string-array name="keys"> <item>1</item> <item>2</item> <item>3</item> </string-array> <!--VALUES (ALWAYS CORRESPONDS TO LIST ABOVE ??)--> <string-array name="values"> <item>one</item> <item>two</item> <item>three</item> </string-array>

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  • Removing an element from an array (PHP)

    - by morpheous
    I want to remove an element from a PHP array (and shrink the array size). Just looking at the PHP docs, it seems this can be done using array_slice() and array_merge() so I am guessing (off the top of my head) that some combination of array_merge() and array_slice will work. However, array_slice() requires an index (not a key), so I'm not sure how to quickly cobble these functions together for a solution. Has anyone implemented such a function before?. I'm sure it must be only a few lines long, but I cant somehow get my head around it (its been one of those days) ... Actually, I just came up with this cheesy hack when writing up this question.... function remove_from_array(array $in, value) { return array_diff($in, (array)$value); } too ugly? or will it work (without any shocking side effects)?

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  • how to get the value of an php array in jQuery

    - by user1933824
    i have a PHP code that will obtain the total images of a certain website via CURL, and put it inside an PHP loop. $z=1; for ($i=0;$i<=sizeof($images_array);$i++) { ....<img src = "$images_array[$i]" id="$z"> .. $z++; } a user can then scan through the array with a prev/next button and the current image being shown will be displayed in my $('$current_image').val(1); $.post("curl_fetch.php?url="+ extracted_url, { }, function(response){ $('#loader').html($(response).fadeIn('slow')); $('#current_image').val(1); // insert loop value in .val() when i click a button, i want to get the value of the array, and not the loop value $(function() { $(document).on('click','.submit', function () { var img = $('#current_image').val(); //get the array value, not the loop value alert(img); });}); now, how do i properly get the array value in my $('#current_image').val(1); in Jquery.

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  • iPad Safari's mapping of mouse events to touch events in image-maps

    - by Tim
    My website makes extensive use of image-maps. The images are of pages from a medieval manuscript. The mouseOver event of the AREA tags has a tooltip attached to it, which displays a modern typographic transcription of the ancient script for the line the mouse is hovering over. I just checked my website out on the iPad at the Apple store. The iPad is many respects a joy to use, however, I am wondering about Apple's mapping of the mouseEvents to the finger-touch events. Apple probably had a good reason for doing things as they did, but their choices seem counterintuitive an overly complicated to me. Specifically, the iPad Safari browser clearly was responding to both fingerDown and fingerTap, and in different ways. When I tapped an area of the image-map, the tooltip wired to the mouse-over event pf the AREA tag was displayed, and remained visible until I tapped somewhere else. When I held my finger down on an area of the image-map, the area changed color. So if iPad Safari detects a mouseOver eventhandler, it executes the mouseOver code and apparently prevents the "click" event from propagating, so that if you also have something wired to the click event, it doesn't work? Is that right? But more importantly, why isn't fingerDown the iPad-Safari counterpart for mouseOver? FingerDown seems a more likely candidate than Tap when mapping the mousePOver event. I would have expected things to be mapped in this way: MouseClick : FingerTap (i.e. finger down and then immediately up) MouseOver : FingerDown (finger down and stays on the spot) If Apple had treated fingerDown as the counterpart to mouseOver, then the tooltip could be displayed upon FingerDown and made invisible again on fingerUp, which would be the counterpart to mouseOut. Perhaps someone could enlighten me about the thinking process that led Apple to these particular mouse-to-touch event-mappings? Thanks

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  • Multiple overlay items in android

    - by Bostjan
    I seem to be having a problem with using ItemizedOverlay and OveralyItems in it. I can get the first overlayItem to appear on the map but not any items after that. Code sample is on: http://www.anddev.org/multiple_overlay_items-t12171.html Quick overview here: public class Markers extends ItemizedOverlay { private Context ctx; private ArrayList<OverlayItem> mOverlays = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); public Markers(Drawable defaultMarker, Context cont) { super(boundCenterBottom(defaultMarker)); this.ctx = cont; // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int i) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return mOverlays.get(i); } @Override public boolean onTap(GeoPoint p, MapView mapView) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return super.onTap(p, mapView); } @Override protected boolean onTap(int index) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(this.ctx, mOverlays.get(index).getTitle().toString()+", Latitude: "+mOverlays.get(index).getPoint().getLatitudeE6(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); return super.onTap(index); } @Override public int size() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return mOverlays.size(); } public void addOverlay(OverlayItem item) { mOverlays.add(item); setLastFocusedIndex(-1); populate(); } public void clear() { mOverlays.clear(); setLastFocusedIndex(-1); populate(); }} Markers usersMarker = new Markers(user,overview.this); GeoPoint p = new GeoPoint((int) (lat * 1E6),(int) (lon * 1E6)); OverlayItem item = new OverlayItem(p,userData[0],userData[3]); item.setMarker(this.user); usersMarker.addOverlay(item); The lines after the class are just samples of how it's used the first marker shows up on the map but if I add any more they don't show up? Is there a problem with the populate() method? I tried calling it manually after adding all markers but it still didn't help. Please, if you have any idea what could be wrong, say so.

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  • How to query collections in NHibernate

    - by user305813
    Hi, I have a class: public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IDictionary<string, string> Attributes { get; set; } } and a mapping file: <class name="User" table="Users"> <id name="Id"> <generator class="hilo"/> </id> <property name="Name"/> <map name="Attributes" table="UserAttributes"> <key column="UserId"/> <index column="AttributeName" type="System.String"/> <element column="Attributevalue" type="System.String"/> </map> </class> So now I can add many attributes and values to a User. How can I query those attributes so I can get ie. Get all the users where attributename is "Age" and attribute value is "20" ? I don't want to do this in foreach because I may have millions of users each having its unique attributes. Please help

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  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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  • Four-color theorem in Prolog (using a dynamic predicate)

    - by outa
    Hi, I'm working on coloring a map according to the four-color theorem (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Four_color_theorem) with SWI-Prolog. So far my program looks like this: colour(red). colour(blue). map_color(A,B,C) :- colour(A), colour(B), colour(C), C \= B, C \= A. (the actual progam would be more complex, with 4 colors and more fields, but I thought I'd start out with a simple case) Now, I want to avoid double solutions that have the same structure. E.g. for a map with three fields, the solution "red, red, blue" would have the same structure as "blue, blue, red", just with different color names, and I don't want both of them displayed. So I thought I would have a dynamic predicate solution/3, and call assert(solution(A,B,C)) at the end of my map_color predicate. And then, for each solution, check if they already exist as a solution/3 fact. The problem is that I would have to assert something like solution(Color1,Color1,Color2), i.e. with variables in order to make a unification check. And I can't think of a way to achieve this. So, the question is, what is the best way to assert a found solution and then make a unification test so that "red, red, blue" would unify with "blue, blue, red"?

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  • Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

    - by nickname
    I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

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  • Applying a function that may fail to all values in a list

    - by Egwor
    I want to apply a function f to a list of values, however function f might randomly fail (it is in effect making a call out to a service in the cloud). I thought I'd want to use something like map, but I want to apply the function to all elements in the list and afterwards, I want to know which ones failed and which were successful. Currently I am wrapping the response objects of the function f with an error pair which I could then effectively unzip afterwards i.e. something like g : (a->b) -> a -> [ b, errorBoolean] f : a-> b and then to run the code ... map g (xs) Is there a better way to do this? The other alternative approach was to iterate over the values in the array and then return a pair of arrays, one which listed the successful values and one which listed the failures. To me, this seems to be something that ought to be fairly common. Alternatively I could return some special value. What's the best practice in dealing with this??

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  • Device cannot be added on software-raid-1 array on Ubuntu 12.04

    - by George Pligor
    Unfortunately all tutorials I have found online until now on how to setup software-raid-1 are outdated on ubuntu 12.40 My target is to setup it on a system with a secondary disk drive that is already running. Format is not an option! I am trying to follow and adapt from 11.10 to 12.04 the following tutorial: http://www.howtoforge.com/how-to-set-up-software-raid1-on-a-running-lvm-system-incl-grub2-configuration-ubuntu-11.10-p2 On the above tutorial there is a successful command which creates a raid-1 array by setting the first disk drive with the installed system as missing: mdadm --create /dev/md0 --level=1 --raid-disks=2 missing /dev/sdb1 But when the time comes to add the first main drive with the installed system on the raid-array with this command: mdadm --add /dev/md0 /dev/sda1 I receive an error message. The error message says that the device /dev/sda is (which makes sense) busy! Note: hardware raid solution is not available since the system is a laptop with two disk drives! Thank you

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  • mongoexport csv output array values

    - by 9point6
    I'm using mongoexport to export some collections into CSV files, however when I try to target fields which are members of an array I cannot get it to export correctly. command I'm using: mongoexport -d db -c collection -fieldFile fields.txt --csv > out.csv and the contents of fields.txt is similar to id name address[0].line1 address[0].line2 address[0].city address[0].country address[0].postcode where the BSON data would be: { "id": 1, "name": "example", "address": [ { "line1": "flat 123", "line2": "123 Fake St.", "city": "London", "country": "England", "postcode": "N1 1AA" } ] } what is the correct syntax for exporting the contents of an array?

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  • Advantages of multiple SQL Server files with a single RAID array

    - by Dr Giles M
    Originally posted on stack overflow, but re-worded. Imagine the scenario : For a database I have RAID arrays R: (MDF) T: (transaction log) and of course shared transparent usage of X: (tempDB). I've been reading around and get the impression that if you are using RAID then adding multiple SQL Server NDF files sitting on R: within a filegroup won't yeild any more improvements. Of course, adding another raid array S: and putting an NDF file on that would. However, being a reasonably savvy software person, it's not unthinkable to hypothesise that, even for smaller MDFs sitting on one RAID array that SQL Server will perform growth and locking operations (for writes) on the MDF, so adding NDFs to the filegroup even if they sat on R: would distribute the locking operations and growth operations allowing more throughput? Or does the time taken to reconstruct the data from distributed filegroups outweigh the benefits of reduced locking? I'm also aware that the behaviour and benefits may be different for tables/indeces/log. Is there a good site that distinguishes the benefits of multiple files when RAID is already in place?

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  • How do I assign a number value to a non-numerical value in Excel

    - by Keyslinger
    Greetings I have an some survey responses with values like "VU" for "Very Unlikely" and "S" for Sometimes. Each survey response occupies a cell. For each cell containing a survey response, I want to fill another cell with a corresponding number. For example, for every cell containing "VU" I want to fill a corresponding cell with the number 1. How is this done?

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  • Database OR Array

    - by rezoner
    What is the exact point of using external database system if I have simple relations (95% querries are dependant on ID). I am storing users and their stats. Why would I use external database if I can have neat constructions like: db.users[32] = something Array of 500K users is not that big effort for RAM Pros are: no problematic asynchronity (instant results) easy export/import dealing with database like with a native object LITERALLY ps. and considerations: Would it be faster or slower to do collection[3] than db.query("select ... I am going to store it as a file/s There is only ONE application/process accessing this data, and the code is executed line by line - please don't elaborate about locking. Please don't answer with database propositions but why to use external DB over native array/object - I have experience in a few databases - that's not the case. What I am building is a client/gateway/server(s) game. Gateway deals with all users data, processing, authenticating, writing statistics e.t.c No other part of software needs to access directly to this data/database.

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  • cant recognize the path of hard drive which is not a part of an array

    - by Abhishek
    hi there, I have a problem on my server as below.. On my server i configured a raid array of 3 hard disks, in my c drive their is a web applications running on Apache Tomcat server. Now because of shortage of storage i entered a new hard disk to the server which is not a part of that raid array. Now through my web application i upload some images to new hard drive and file uploaded successfully but when through that same application, i try to retrieve those images and show on a web site i does not recognize that and dose not give any error. i try to access that drive with absolute path but it not works. Can any one help me to find the solution of this problem? Thank You in advance.

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  • I have a 21TB array but only 16TB is visible from Windows

    - by Relentim
    CONTROLLER Raid Controller: 3Ware 9650SE-24M8 Disks: 21 x 1TB RAID5 Stripe 64KB WINDOWS OS: Windows Server 2003 SP2 32x Disk: Dynamic 19557.44GB Volume: Capacity 15832.19GB I guess my array must have a 4KB block size which is limiting it to 16TB. I think I would have to switch to a 64KB block size to be able to see a maximum of 256TB. Or create another unit on my controller to go above 16TB of storage. Unfortunately I have already added over 16TB, ideally I would like to shrink the array and reclaim the 5 disks that aren't doing anything. I don't think this is possible. More likely, can I change the block size so 20TB becomes visible in windows?

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