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• Deploying DotNetNuke and separate ASP.NET Application together - Possible Issues?

  - by TheTXI

  I am making this in a proactive attempt to head off any potential problems which could arise from this. The situation is that we are developing an ASP.NET application for a client which will handle the online ordering from their customers. This application is going to be using the same database that their current WinForms application uses (no real issue here). At the same time we are developing a new front-end website for them using DotNetNuke. The DotNetNuke app will simply be linking to the ASP.NET application for the customers to submit their orders (no need for them to communicate back and forth, etc.) The plan is to host both applications on the same box at the client location. What I am looking for are potential problems or setup tips which would prevent possible conflict between the two apps (web.config conflicts, etc.) Is there a problem with having both hosted on the same location, how should IIS be set up, etc.? If there are any external resources also available which could address this, please feel free to link them as well.

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• Is it possible to create an Android Service that listens for hardware key presses?

  - by VoteBrian

  I'd like to run an Android background service that will act as a keylistener from the home screen or when the phone is asleep. Is this possible? From semi-related examples online, I put together the following service, but get the error, "onKeyDown is undefined for the type Service". Does this mean it can't be done without rewriting Launcher, or is there something obvious I'm missing? public class ServiceName extends Service { @Override public void onCreate() { //Stuff } public IBinder onBind(Intent intent) { //Stuff return null; } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if(event.getAction() == KeyEvent.ACTION_DOWN) { switch(keyCode) { case KeyEvent.KEYCODE_A: //Stuff return true; case KeyEvent.KEYCODE_B: //Stuff return true; //etc. } } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); } } I realize Android defaults to the search bar when you type from the home screen, but this really is just for a very particular use. I don't really expect anyone but me to want this. I just think it'd be nice, for example, to use the camera button to wake the phone.

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• Is it possible to specify Jquery File Upload to post back only once (for multiple files)?

  - by JaJ

  When I upload multiple files (per bluimp jquery file upload) the [httppost] action is entered once per file. Is it possible to specify one and only one postback with an enumerated file container to iterate? View: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.ui.widget.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.iframe-transport.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.fileupload.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <input id="fileupload" type="file" name="files" multiple="multiple"/> Controller: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> files) { // This is posted back for every file that gets uploaded...I would prefer it only post back once // with a actual collection of files to iterate. foreach (var file in files) // There is only ever one file in files { var filename = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data"), file.FileName); file.SaveAs(filename); } return View(); }

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• Same IL code, different output - how is it possible?

  - by Hali

  When I compile this code with mono (gmcs) and run it, it outputs -1 (both with mono and .Net framework). When I compile it with VS (csc), it outputs -1 when I run it with mono, and 0 when I run it with the .Net framework. The code in question is: using System; public class Program { public static void Main() { Console.WriteLine(string.Compare("alo\0alo\0", "alo\0alo\0\0", false, System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture)); } } Compiled with VS: .method public hidebysig static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint // Code size 29 (0x1d) .maxstack 8 IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 ) // a.l.o...a.l.o... IL_0006: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 // a.l.o...a.l.o... 00 00 ) IL_000b: ldc.i4.0 IL_000c: call class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo::get_InvariantCulture() IL_0011: call int32 [mscorlib]System.String::Compare(string, string, bool, class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo) IL_0016: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_001b: nop IL_001c: ret } // end of method Program::Main Compiled with mono: .method public hidebysig static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint // Code size 27 (0x1b) .maxstack 8 IL_0000: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 ) // a.l.o...a.l.o... IL_0005: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 // a.l.o...a.l.o... 00 00 ) IL_000a: ldc.i4.0 IL_000b: call class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo::get_InvariantCulture() IL_0010: call int32 [mscorlib]System.String::Compare(string, string, bool, class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo) IL_0015: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_001a: ret } // end of method Program::Main The only difference is the two extra NOP instructions in the VS version. How is it possible?

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• Cross domain javascript to access localhost. Possible?

  - by Earlz

  Hello, for one reason or another I need for javascript to access a webserver on the localhost. This localhost webserver is under our control so we can have whatever software running in it. How would you do this? I've seen things like YQL but this accesses another domain from the internet. This kind of access causes a lot of problems with firewalls and such. So I want to access the same computer that the browser is running on. How would you do this with javascript and whatever software running on the localhost server? Also, the javascript is being run from an internet site. And the localhost server will not be running on the same port are the internet website is. Is this possible to do? I know about the cross-domain restrictions but I've also seen there are ways around them such as YQL. How does something like YQL work? How would you reimplement it?

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• Conditional references in .NET project, possible to get rid of warning?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have two references to a SQLite assembly, one for 32-bit and one for 64-bit, which looks like this (this is a test project to try to get rid of the warning, don't get hung up on the paths): <Reference Condition=" '$(Platform)' == 'x64' " Include="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.61.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139, processorArchitecture=AMD64"> <SpecificVersion>True</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\..\LVK Libraries\SQLite3\version_1.0.65.0\64-bit\System.Data.SQLite.DLL</HintPath> </Reference> <Reference Condition=" '$(Platform)' == 'x86' " Include="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.65.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139, processorArchitecture=x86"> <SpecificVersion>True</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\..\LVK Libraries\SQLite3\version_1.0.65.0\32-bit\System.Data.SQLite.DLL</HintPath> </Reference> This produces the following warning: Warning 1 The referenced component 'System.Data.SQLite' could not be found. Is it possible for me to get rid of this warning? One way I've looked at it to just configure my project to be 32-bit when I develop, and let the build machine fix the reference when building for 64-bit, but this seems a bit awkward and probably prone to errors. Any other options? The reason I want to get rid of it is that the warning is apparently being picked up by TeamCity and periodically flagged as something I need to look into, so I'd like to get completely rid of it.

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• Is is possible to do an end-run around generics covariance in C# < 4 in this hypothetical situation?

  - by John Feminella

  Suppose I have a small inheritance hierarchy of Animals: public interface IAnimal { string Speak(); } public class Animal : IAnimal { public Animal() {} public string Speak() { return "[Animal] Growl!"; } } public class Ape : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Ape] Rawrrrrrrr!"; } } public class Bat : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Bat] Screeeeeee!"; } } Next, here's an interface offering a way to turn strings into IAnimals. public interface ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal { T Transmogrify(string s); } And finally, here's one strategy for doing that: public class Transmogrifier<T> : ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal, new() { public T Transmogrify(string s) { T t = default(T); if (typeof(T).Name == s) t = new T(); return t; } } Now, the question. Is it possible to replace the sections marked [1], [2], and [3] such that this program will compile and run correctly? If you can't do it without touching parts other than [1], [2], and [3], can you still get an IAnimal out of each instance of a Transmogrifier in a collection containing arbitrary implementations of an IAnimal? Can you even form such a collection to begin with? static void Main(string[] args) { var t = new Transmogrifier<Ape>(); Ape a = t.Transmogrify("Ape"); Console.WriteLine(a.Speak()); // Works! // But can we make an arbitrary collection of such animals? var list = new List<Transmogrifier< [1] >>() { // [2] }; // And how about we call Transmogrify() on each one? foreach (/* [3] */ transmogrifier in list) { IAnimal ia = transmogrifier.Transmogrify("Bat"); } } }

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• Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

  - by Rob Flaherty

  I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

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• Is it possible to De-Serialize a new Derived class using Old Binary?

  - by Anand

  In my project I have a class which I Serialize in Binary format to the disk. Due to some new requirement I need to create a new class which is derived from the original class. eg [Serializable] public class Sample { String someString; int someInt; public Sample() { } public Sample(String _someString, int _someInt) { this.someInt = _someInt; this.someString = _someString; } public String SomeString { get { return someString; } } public int SomeInt { get { return someInt; } } } [Serializable] public class DerivedSample : Sample { String someMoreString; int someMoreInt; public DerivedSample () : base() { } public DerivedSample (String _someString, int _someInt, String _someMoreString, int _someMoreInt) : base(_someString, _someInt) { this.someMoreString = _someMoreString; this.someMoreInt = _someMoreInt; } public String SomeMoreString { get { return someMoreString; } } public int SomeMoreInt { get { return someMoreInt; } } } When I try to De serialize an old file which contains only object of Sample it works fine, in the current assembly. That means backward compatibility is there. But when I try to deserialize the file which contains object of DerivedSample using the previous version of the assembly application crashes. Which means forward compatibilty needs to be taken care off... It it possible to say read only the base class part of the object from new version of the file?

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• jQuery + form + textinput > Is it possible to display one value in a textinput and submit another?

  - by Ivan Kruchkoff

  I'm working on an application where dates are passed as yyyy-mm-dd but displayed to the client as mm-dd-yyyy (US based client). I'm using a jQuery datepicker for selecting from/to dates in a report and would like to show the dates to the client as mm-dd-yyyy but when the form is submitted, submit as yyyy-mm-dd. Is it possible to display one value in a textinput textbox and have another submitted without needing to hook into onSubmit? I've come up with the following alternatives: Hide the text input for the from and to fields, create dummy fields and make use of the following jQuery date picker functions: altField and altFormat to display the value to the client in their preferred way and deal only with the submitted values which are set through the alt functions. Have an onSubmit javascript call to change the dates from mm-dd-yyyy to dd-mm-yyyy and also change the value=" to change the date to the client's preferred format. Rewrite the app to handle all dates in mm-dd-yyyy and hope the client never has non-US customers that would like their dates in a specific format. Change all dates to dd-Mon-YYYY e.g. 26-May-2010 as all of our client's customers are guaranteed to be English only.

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• How can I map to a field that is joined in via one of three possible tables

  - by Mongus Pong

  I have this object : public class Ledger { public virtual Person Client { get; set; } // .... } The Ledger table joins to the Person table via one of three possible tables : Bill, Receipt or Payment. So we have the following tables : Ledger LedgerID PK Bill BillID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Receipt ReceiptID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Payment PaymentID PK, LedgerID, ClientID If it was just the one table, I could map this as : Join ( "Bill", x => { x.ManyToOne ( ledger => ledger.Client, mapping => mapping.Column ( "ClientID" ) ); x.Key ( l => l.Column ( "LedgerID" ) ); } ); This won't work for three tables. For a start the Join performs an inner join. Since there will only ever be one of Bill, Receipt or Payment - an inner join on these tables will always return zero rows. Then it would need to know to do a Coalesce on the ClientID of each of these tables to know the ClientID to grab the data from. Is there a way to do this? Or am I asking too much of the mappings here?

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• Is it possible to dynamically insert rows in an existing DataTable (No DataSource used)?

  - by aparnakarthik

  Hi... I have created a datatable with three fields namely TimeTask, TaskItem and Count (count of user) eg; {"12:30AM-01:00AM" , T1 , 3}. dataTable.Columns.Add("Task Time", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("Task", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("Count", typeof(int)); dataTable.Rows.Add("12:00AM-12:15AM", "T1", 6); dataTable.Rows.Add("12:45AM-01:00AM", "T1", 5); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:00AM-01:15AM", "T1", 1); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:15AM-01:30AM", "T2", 4); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:30AM-01:45AM", "T2", 9); GridView1.DataSource = dataTable; GridView1.DataBind(); In this there is no task for the TimeTask "12:15AM-12:30AM" and "12:30AM-12:45AM" yet the TimeTask should be inserted as, TimeTask TaskItem Count 12:00AM-12:15AM T1 6 12:15AM-12:30AM - - 12:30AM-12:45AM - - 12:45AM-01:00AM T1 5 01:00AM-01:15AM T1 1 01:15AM-01:30AM T2 4 01:30AM-01:45AM T2 9 How to chk for the missing rows? Is it possible to dynamically insert rows in an existing DataTable (No DataSource used) in this scenario.pls help.Thanks :-)

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• In ASP.NET, is it possible to output cache by host name? ie varybyhost or varbyhostheader?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I've got a website that has a number of host headers. Depending on the host header, the results are different - both visually (theme'd) and data. So lets imagine i have a website called 'Foo' - that returns search results (original, eh?). Now, the same code runs both sites. It is physically the same server/website (using Host Headers) :- www.foo.com www.foo.com.au Now, if i goto '.com', the site is theme'd in blue. if i goto the '.com.au' site, it's theme'd in red. And the data is different for the same search result, based on the host name (ie. us results for .com, au results for .com.au) SO .. if i wish to use OutputCaching .. can this be handled / differ by the host name? I don't want to have the first person goto the .com site .. grab the results ... and the a second person goto my .com.au .. same search data .. and get the theme and results for the .com site. Possible?

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• jQuery - How to animate click function without clicking (Slide-show like) - Is this possible?

  - by iamtheratio

  Hello, I have created a jQuery script (with help) that works great however I need it to automate/animate itself without using the click function, I just want to know is this possible and if so, how? Similar to a slide-show. Basically the code allows me to click on an image and hide/show a DIV, while changing a list of elements such as class/id name. Here's my code: JQUERY: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ //if this is not the first tab, hide it jQuery(".imgs:not(:first)").hide(); //to fix u know who jQuery(".imgs:first").show(); //when we click one of the tabs jQuery(".img_selection a").click(function(){ //get the ID of the element we need to show stringref = jQuery(this).attr("href").split('#')[1]; // adjust css on tabs to show active tab $('.img_selection a').removeAttr('id'); // remove all ids $(this).attr('id', this.className + "_on") // create class+_on as this id. //hide the tabs that doesn't match the ID jQuery('.imgs:not(#'+stringref+')').hide(); //fix if (jQuery.browser.msie && jQuery.browser.version.substr(0,3) == "6.0") { jQuery('.imgs#' + stringref).show(); } else //display our tab fading it in jQuery('.imgs#' + stringref).show(); //stay with me return false; }); });

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• Is it possible to persist two profiles with the Profile Provider Model?

  - by NickGPS

  I have a website that needs to store two sets of user data into separate data stores. The first set of data is used by the SiteCore CMS and holds information about the user. The second set of data is used by a personalisation application that stores its own user data. The reason they aren't stored together in the same profile object is because the personalisation application is used across multiple websites that do not all use SiteCore. I am able to create multiple Profile Providers - I currently have one from SiteCore and a custom provider that I have written and these both work in isolation. The problem exists when you try to configure both in the same web.config file. It seems you can only specify a single Profile object in the web.config file, rather than one for each provider. This means that regardless of which provider is being used the .Net framework sends through the profile object that is specified in the "inherits" parameter in the profile section of the web.config file. My questions are - Is it possible to specify a different Profile object for each Profile Provider? If so, how and where is this specified? Thanks, Nick

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• Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

  - by Bago

  Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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• Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

  - by Bago

  Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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• MySQL running on an EC2 m1.small instance has high load but low memory usage, possible resolutions?

  - by Tosh

  I have a MySQL server 5.0.75 Ubuntu, on an m1.small instance running on Amazon's EC2 as part of an application. During peak usage the server load will rise very high, while the memory usage stays low and the application server is no longer responsive since it's waiting for query results. The application server has only 5-8 apache processes running (mod_perl processes). The data directory uses only 140MB of data so the MyIsam tables aren't very big. The queries are pretty complicated with some big joins being performed, and the application makes a lot of queries. mysqltuner reports everything OK except "Maximum possible memory usage: 1.7G (99% of installed RAM)" but I'm nowhere close to using that. My question is, where should I be looking to fix this? Is this something that can be tuned away, or do I just need a larger instance/server? Googling indicates either or also upgrading MySQL server. Any pointers in the right direction would be greatly appreciated, thanks! EDIT: I just discovered this in my slow queries log: # Time: 101116 11:17:00 # User@Host: user[pass] @ [host] # Query_time: 4063 Lock_time: 1035 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 19960174 SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacts.contact_id IN (SELECT external_id FROM contact_relations WHERE external_table = 'contacts' AND contact_id IN (SELECT contact_id FROM contacts WHERE (company_name like '%%butan%%%' OR country like '%%butan%%%' OR city like '%%butan%%%' OR email1 like '%%butan%%%') AND (company_name is not null and company_name != ''))); Which actually brings up a different but related question: If I have a contact table containing: John Smith,The Fun Factory,555-1212,[email protected] What's the best way to search for that record using "factory" as a search key? Fulltext rarely seems to find items in the middle of a word, for example "actor" should bring up "Factory"

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• Is it possible to limit outside connections to a subdomain with .htaccess or similar?

  - by digidave0205

  I host a web application. This application serves static html pages that are refreshed at various intervals. Some as often as every 30 secs. At this time I have about 300 unique pages that are accessed via 300 unique subdomains. Some clients have at most 50 visitors to their unique page and it refreshes every 30 secs, no problem. Other clients have up to 1000 or more visitors to their page. These clients are killing my server. There was no predefined limit upon signup but now I have to impose such a limit to remain afloat financially. I would like to define a finite number of connections allowed for each individual subdomain in my hosting account. Connections attempted out of range of this finite value would either be rejected or redirected. I have access to .htaccess and php.ini. Is something of this nature possible? Oh, I have a dedicated/managed server at 1and1.

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• Is it possible to load an entire SQL Server CE database into RAM?

  - by DanM

  I'm using LinqToSql to query a small SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table via a foreign key, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of the appeal of LinqToSql. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view.

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• Cross-platform build UNC share (Windows->Linux) - possible to be case-sensitive on CIFS share?

  - by holtavolt

  To optimize builds between Windows and Linux (Ubuntu 10.04), I've got a UNC share of the source tree that is shared between systems, and all build output goes to local disk on each system. This mostly works great, as source updates and changes can quickly be tested on both systems, but there's one annoying limitation I can't find a way around, which is that the Linux CIFS mount is case-insensitive. Consequently, a test compile of code that has an error like: #include "Foo.h" for a file foo.h, will not be caught by a test build (until a local compile is done on the Linux box, e.g. nightly builds) Is it possible to have case-sensitivity of the Windows UNC share on the Linux box? I've tried a variety of fstab and mount combinations with no success, as well as editing the smb.config to set "case sensitive = yes" Given what the Ubuntu man page info states on this: nocase Request case insensitive path name matching (case sensitive is the default if the server suports it). I suspect that this is a limitation from the Windows UNC side, and there's nothing to be done short of switching to some other mechanism (is NFS still viable anywhere?) If anyone has already solved this to support optimized cross-platform build environments, I'd appreciate hearing about it!

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• Is it possible to create a null function that will not produce warnings?

  - by bbazso

  I have a logger in a c++ application that uses defines as follows: #define FINEST(...) Logger::Log(FINEST, _FILE, __LINE, __func, __VA_ARGS_) However what I would like to do is to be able to switch off these logs since they have a serious performance impact on my system. And, it's not sufficient to simply have my Logger not write to the system log. I really need to get rid of the code produced by the logs. In order to do this, I changed the define to: #define FINEST(...) Which works, but this produces a whole bunch of warning in my code since variables are unused now. So what I would like to have is a sort of NULL FUNCTION that would not actually exist, but would not produce warnings for the unused variables. So, said another way, I would like it to compile with no warnings (i.e. the compiler thinks that the variables are used for a function) but the function does not actually exist in the application (i.e. produces no performance hit). Is this possible? Thanks!

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• Is it theoretically possible to emulate a human brain on a computer?

  - by JoelK

  Our brain consists of billions of neurons which basically work with all the incoming data from our senses, handle our consciousness, emotions and creativity as well as our hormone system, etc. So I'm completely new to this topic but doesn't each neuron have a fixed function? E.g.: If a signal of strength x enters, if the last signal was x ms ago, redirect it. From what I've learned in biology about our nerves system which includes our brain because both consist of simple neurons, it seems to me as our brain is one big, complicated computer. Maybe so complicated that things such as intelligence and cognition become possible? As the most complicated things about a neuron pretty much are the chemical aspects on generating an electric singal, keeping itself alive, and eventually segmenting itself, it should be pretty easy emulating some on a computer, or? You won't have to worry about keeping your virtual neuron alive, or? If you can emulate a single neuron on a computer, which shouldn't be too hard, could you theoretically emulate more than 1000 billions of them, recreating intelligence, cognition and maybe even creativity? In my question I'm leaving out the following aspects: Speed of our current (super) computers Actually writing a program for emulating neurons I don't know much about this topic, please tell me if I got anything wrong :) (My secret goal: Make a copy of my brain and store it on some 10 million TB HDD and make someone start it up in the future)

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• Is it possible to have a mysql table accept a null value for a primary_key column referencing a diff

  - by Dr.Dredel

  I have a table that has a column which holds the id of a row in another table. However, when table A is being populated, table B may or may not have a row ready for table A. My question is, is it possible to have mysql prevent an invalid value from being entered but be ok with a NULL? or does a foreign key necessitate a valid related value? So... what I'm looking for (in pseudo code) is this: Table "person" id | name Table "people" id | group_name | person_id (foreign key id from table person) insert into person (1, 'joe'); insert into people (1, 'foo', 1)//kosher insert into people (1, 'foo', NULL)//also kosher insert into people(1, 'foo', 7)// should fail since there is no id 7 in the person table. The reason I need this is that I'm having a chicken and egg issue where it makes perfect sense for the rows in the people table to be created before hand (in this example, I'm creating the groups and would like them to pre-exist the people who join them). And I realize that THIS example is silly and I would just put the group id in the person table rather than vice-versa, but in my real-world problem that is not workable. Just curious if I need to allow any and all values in order to make this work, or if there's some way to allow for null.

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• Is it possible to auto update only selected properties on an existent entity object without touching the others

  - by LaserBeak

  Say I have a bunch of boolean properties on my entity class public bool isActive etc. Values which will be manipulated by setting check boxes in a web application. I will ONLY be posting back the one changed name/value pair and the primary key at a time, say { isActive : true , NewsPageID: 34 } and the default model binder will create a NewsPage object with only those two properties set. Now if I run the below code it will not only update the values for the properties that have been set on the NewsPage object created by the model binder but of course also attempt to null all the other non set values for the existent entity object because they are not set on NewsPage object created by the model binder. Is it possible to somehow tell entity framework not to look at the properties that are set to null and attempt to persist those changes back to the retrieved entity object and hence database ? Perhaps there's some code I can write that will only utilize the non-null values and their property names on the NewsPage object created by model binder and only attempt to update those particular properties ? [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(NewsPage Np) { Np.ModifyDate = DateTime.Now; _db.NewsPages.Attach(Np); _db.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(Np, System.Data.EntityState.Modified); _db.SaveChanges(); _db.Dispose(); return PartialView("MonthNewsData"); } I can of course do something like below, but I have a feeling it's not the optimal solution. Especially considering that I have like 6 boolean properties that I need to set. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(int NewsPageID, bool isActive, bool isOnFrontPage) { if (isActive != null) { //Get entity and update this property } if (isOnFontPage != null) { //Get entity and update this property } }

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