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• Is it possible to write map/reduce jobs for Amazon Elastic MapReduce using .NET?

  - by Chris

  Is it possible to write map/reduce jobs for Amazon Elastic MapReduce (http://aws.amazon.com/elasticmapreduce/) using .NET languages? In particular I would like to use C#. Preliminary research suggests not. The above URL's marketing text suggests you have a "choice of Java, Ruby, Perl, Python, PHP, R, or C++", without mentioning .NET languages. This Amazon thread (http://developer.amazonwebservices.com/connect/thread.jspa?messageID=136051 -- "Support for C# / F# map/reducers") explicitly says that "currently Amazon Elastic MapReduce does not support Mono platform or languages such as C# or F#." The above suggests that it can't be done. I'm wondering if there are any workarounds, though. For example, can I modify the Elastic MapReduce machine image for my account, and install Mono on there? An alternative, suggested by Amazon FAQs "Using Other Software Required by Your Jar" (http://docs.amazonwebservices.com/ElasticMapReduce/latest/DeveloperGuide/index.html?CHAP_AdvancedTopics.html) and "How to Use Additional Files and Libraries With the Mapper or Reducer" (http://docs.amazonwebservices.com/ElasticMapReduce/latest/DeveloperGuide/index.html?addl_files.html), is to make the first step of the Map/Reduce job be to install Mono on the local instance. That sounds kind of inefficient, but maybe it could work? Maybe a saner alternative would be to try to forgo the convenience of Elastic MapReduce, and manually set up my own Hadoop cluster on EC2. Then I assume I could install Mono without difficulty.

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• Is it possible to use 2 versions of jQuery on the same page?

  - by Ben McCormack

  NOTE: I know similar questions have already been asked here and here, but I'm looking for additional clarification as to how to make this work. I'm adding functionality to an existing web site that is already using an older version of the jQuery library (1.1.3.1). I've been writing my added functionality against the newest version of the jQuery library (1.4.2). I've tested the website using only the newer version of jQuery and it breaks functionality, so now I'm looking at using both versions on the same page. How is this possible? What do I need to do in my code to specify that I'm using one version of jQuery instead of another? For example, I'll put <script> tags for both versions of jQuery in the header of my page, but what do I need to do so that I know for sure in my calling code that I'm calling one version of the library or another? Maybe something like this: //Put some code here to specify a variable that will be using the newer //version of jquery: var $NEW = jQuery.theNewestVersion(); //Now when I use $NEW, I'll know it's the newest version and won't //conflict with the older version. $NEW('#personName').text('Ben'); //And when I use the original $ in code, or simply 'jquery', I'll know //it's the older version. $('#personName').doSomethingWithTheOlderVersion();

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• SQL Is it possible to setup a column that will contain a value dependent on another column?

  - by Wesley

  I have a table (A) that lists all bundles created off a machine in a day. It lists the date created and the weight of the bundle. I have an ID column, a date column, and a weight column. I also have a table (B) that holds the details related to that machine for the day. In that table (B), I want a column that lists a sum of weights from the other table (A) that the dates match on. So if the machine runs 30 bundles in a day, I'll have 30 rows in table (A) all dated the same day. In table (B) I'll have 1 row detailing other information about the machine for the day plus the column that holds the total bundle weight created for the day. Is there a way to make the total column in table (B) automatically adjust itself whenever a row is added to table (A)? Is this possible to do in the table schema itself rather than in an SQL statement each time a bundle is added? If it's not, what sort of SQL statement do I need? Wes

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• [android] Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget?

  - by cappuccino

  [Android] Hi, everyone. Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget? I saw android sample soucrce(API Demos). In API Demos, ExampleAppWidgetProvider class extends AppWidgetProvider, not Activity. So, I guess it is impossible to regist SMS Receiver like this, rcvIncoming = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Log.i("telephony", "SMS received"); Bundle data = intent.getExtras(); if (data != null) { // SMS uses a data format known as a PDU Object pdus[] = (Object[]) data.get("pdus"); String message = "New message:\n"; String sender = null; for (Object pdu : pdus) { SmsMessage part = SmsMessage.createFromPdu((byte[])pdu); message += part.getDisplayMessageBody(); if (sender == null) { sender = part.getDisplayOriginatingAddress(); } } Log.i(sender, message); } } }; registerReceiver(rcvIncoming, new IntentFilter("android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED")); My goal is to receive SMS message on my custom appWidget. any help would be appreciated!!

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• Is it possible to do A/B testing by page rather than by individual?

  - by mojones

  Lets say I have a simple ecommerce site that sells 100 different t-shirt designs. I want to do some a/b testing to optimise my sales. Let's say I want to test two different "buy" buttons. Normally, I would use AB testing to randomly assign each visitor to see button A or button B (and try to ensure that that the user experience is consistent by storing that assignment in session, cookies etc). Would it be possible to take a different approach and instead, randomly assign each of my 100 designs to use button A or B, and measure the conversion rate as (number of sales of design n) / (pageviews of design n) This approach would seem to have some advantages; I would not have to worry about keeping the user experience consistent - a given page (e.g. www.example.com/viewdesign?id=6) would always return the same html. If I were to test different prices, it would be far less distressing to the user to see different prices for different designs than different prices for the same design on different computers. I also wonder whether it might be better for SEO - my suspicion is that Google would "prefer" that it always sees the same html when crawling a page. Obviously this approach would only be suitable for a limited number of sites; I was just wondering if anyone has tried it?

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• Apache RewriteRule: it is possible to 'detect' the first and second path segment?

  - by DaNieL

  Im really really a newbie in regexp and I can’t figure out how to do that. My goal is to have the RewriteRule to 'slice' the request URL path in 3 parts: example.com/foo #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=&c= example.com/foo/bar #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c= example.com/foo/bar/baz #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters In short, the first segment in the URL path (foo) should be given to a, the second segment (bar) to b, and the rest of the string in c I wroted this one <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !=/favicon.ico RewriteRule ^(([a-z0-9/]))?(([a-z0-9/]+))?(([a-z0-9]+))(.*)$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA] </IfModule> But obviously doesn’t work, and I don’t even know if what I want is possible. Any suggestion? EDIT: After playing with coach manager, I got this one working too: RewriteRule ^([^/]*)?/?([^/]*)?/?(.*)?$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA]

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• Is it possible to group records belonging to an entity in dbunit?

  - by Joshua

  Our JPA entity model auto-generates primary key identifiers for user, user_address tables. Would it be possible to group these entities given below via dbunit, so that I don't need to provide neither the primary key as well as the foreign key reference from user_address.user_id. It is getting very hard to maintain these keys (i.e. I would prefer to group the primary record 'user' and the child records 'user_address' so that dbunit can group them automatically by looking up the entity metadata). Is it achievable? <user id="1" first_name="Josh" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address id="1" user_id="1" address="Main St" city="Los Angeles"/> I would prefer something like this <!-- First user --> <user first_name="Josh" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address address="Main St" city="Los Angeles"/> <!-- Second user --> <user first_name="Mary" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address address="Taylors St" city="San Jose"/>

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• 1k of Program Space, 64 bytes of RAM. Is 1 wire communication possible?

  - by Earlz

  (If your lazy see bottom for TL;DR) Hello, I am planning to build a new (prototype) project dealing with physical computing. Basically, I have wires. These wires all need to have their voltage read at the same time. More than a few hundred microseconds difference between the readings of each wire will completely screw it up. The Arduino takes about 114 microseconds. So the most I could read is 2 or 3 wires before the latency would skew the accuracy of the readings. So my plan is to have an Arduino as the "master" of an array of ATTinys. The arduino is pretty cramped for space, but it's a massive playground compared to the tinys. An ATTiny13A has 1k of flash ROM(program space), 64 bytes of RAM, and 64 bytes of (not-durable and slow) EEPROM. (I'm choosing this for price as well as size) The ATTinys in my system will not do much. Basically, all they will do is wait for a signal from the Master, and then read the voltage of 1 or 2 wires and store it in RAM(or possibly EEPROM if it's that cramped). And then send it to the Master using only 1 wire for data.(no room for more than that!). So far then, all I should have to do is implement trivial voltage reading code (using built in ADC). But this communication bit I'm worried about. Do you think a communication protocol(using just 1 wire!) could even be implemented in such constraints? TL;DR: In less than 1k of program space and 64 bytes of RAM(and 64 bytes of EEPROM) do you think it is possible to implement a 1 wire communication protocol? Would I need to drop to assembly to make it fit? I know that currently my Arduino programs linking to the Wiring library are over 8k, so I'm a bit concerned.

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• Designing a silverlight dashboard with mef - is it possible? (with dynamic loading of xaps)

  - by Tim Robbin

  Hello! I am just trying to wrap my head around MEF. And as I am really going to love it ( I guess ) I started my first sample project and immediatly stumbled into a big problem and now I am asking myself if I can use MEF for my scenario at all and that is the following: Imagine that one got some kind of dashboard with, let's say, five regions and above each region there are two comboboxes. The values in the first combobox represent different possible views (for example, chartControl, tableControl, pictureControl, ...) and the values of the second combobox represents the different data sources for the currently selected control. As the controls are very big in size one wants to download them as needed. If the user selects one comboboxitem the corresponding control xap should be loaded and displayed in this specific region. If the user selectes another control in the same combobox the control should be removed from the visualtree and the next control should be downloaded and displayed. If the user changes the selection in a different combobox the corresponding control should be loaded again only in this specific region, with perhaps different data. And to make it a little more interesting - as this is some kind of dashboard one can change the layout from five regions to - for example - ten regions. I've seen the video "MVVM with MEF in Silverlight Video Tutorial Part 2: Plugins and Metadata" ( http://csharperimage.jeremylikness.com/2010/03/mvvm-with-mef-in-silverlight-video_09.html ) but he is using an ItemsControl and is working with Visibility and he only got ONE region. So I think that this technique is not working for me... Puh, I hope I could make myself clear! Thanks a lot for any piece of information!!! Greetings, Tim.

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• Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget?

  - by cappuccino

  Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget? I saw android sample source(API Demos). In API Demos, ExampleAppWidgetProvider class extends AppWidgetProvider, not Activity. So, I guess it is impossible to regist SMS Receiver like this, rcvIncoming = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Log.i("telephony", "SMS received"); Bundle data = intent.getExtras(); if (data != null) { // SMS uses a data format known as a PDU Object pdus[] = (Object[]) data.get("pdus"); String message = "New message:\n"; String sender = null; for (Object pdu : pdus) { SmsMessage part = SmsMessage.createFromPdu((byte[])pdu); message += part.getDisplayMessageBody(); if (sender == null) { sender = part.getDisplayOriginatingAddress(); } } Log.i(sender, message); } } }; registerReceiver(rcvIncoming, new IntentFilter("android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED")); My goal is to receive SMS message on my custom appWidget. Any help would be appreciated!!

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• Is it possible to declare multiple static variable with same name in a single C file?

  - by Mohammed Khalid Kherani

  Hi Experts, Is it possible to declare multiple static variables of same name in a single C file with different scopes? I wrote a simple programme to check this and in gcc it got compiled and worked fine. code: static int sVar = 44; void myPrint2() { printf("sVar = %d\n", sVar++); } void myPrint() { static int sVar =88; printf("sVar = %d\n", sVar++); } int main(void) { static int sVar = 55; int i = 0; for (i = 0; i < 5; i++) myPrint(); printf("sVar = %d\n", sVar); myPrint2(); return(0); } Now my question is since all "static" variable will reside in same section (.data) then how we can have multiple variable with same name in one section? I used objdump to check the different section and found that all Static variables (sVar) were in .data section but with different names 0804960c l O .data 00000004 sVar 08049610 l O .data 00000004 sVar.1785 08049614 l O .data 00000004 sVar.1792 Why compiler is changing the name of variables (since C doesnt support name mangling)? Thanks in advance.

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• Should java try blocks be scoped as tightly as possible?

  - by isme

  I've been told that there is some overhead in using the Java try-catch mechanism. So, while it is necessary to put methods that throw checked exception within a try block to handle the possible exception, it is good practice performance-wise to limit the size of the try block to contain only those operations that could throw exceptions. I'm not so sure that this is a sensible conclusion. Consider the two implementations below of a function that processes a specified text file. Even if it is true that the first one incurs some unnecessary overhead, I find it much easier to follow. It is less clear where exactly the exceptions come from just from looking at statements, but the comments clearly show which statements are responsible. The second one is much longer and complicated than the first. In particular, the nice line-reading idiom of the first has to be mangled to fit the readLine call into a try block. What is the best practice for handling exceptions in a funcion where multiple exceptions could be thrown in its definition? This one contains all the processing code within the try block: void processFile(File f) { try { // construction of FileReader can throw FileNotFoundException BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(f)); // call of readLine can throw IOException String line; while ((line = in.readLine()) != null) { process(line); } } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); } } This one contains only the methods that throw exceptions within try blocks: void processFile(File f) { FileReader reader; try { reader = new FileReader(f); } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); return; } BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(reader); String line; while (true) { try { line = in.readLine(); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); break; } if (line == null) { break; } process(line); } }

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• Deep Zoom in Ajax - Possible? Any examples out there?

  - by Phil

  I have an idea to implement a deep zoom type interface hosted in a browser for sports training data (speed, distance, heart rate etc.) However, rather than images I actually want to zoom into a hierarchy of information. For example, the initial display would contain a grid of years - hover over 2008, for example, and spin the mouse wheel (or click) will zoom into that year but during the zoom I want 2008 to fade out and be replaced with a calendar of months. Again zoom into a month and the months are replaced with the months calendar, zoom into a day and you finally see a chart with the training data plotted on it. All the time only dates with actual data would be highlighted in some fashion. My question is whether this would even be possible and whether anyone has seen examples of this already. I'm imagining that most of the time the next level of information could be cached in the browser (in fact, because this is calendar-based, I can calculate most of that and cache the dates to be highlighted.) I could also zoom into an empty chart whilst an Ajax thread is fetching the data to display. I've never tried anything like this before and I'm especially interested in whether DHTML would be capable of this sort of zoom (I suspect not and I would have to resort to Silverlight) and whether the Ajax execution would be uninterrupted whilst the browser rendering thread is kept busy zooming.

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• Is it possible for a function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope?

  - by Elliot Bonneville

  I can't think of a way to explain what I'm after more than I've done in the title, so I'll repeat it. Is it possible for an anonymous function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope? The following code block should explain what I'm trying to do better than I can: function myObj(testFunc) { this.testFunc = testFunc; this.Foo = function Foo(test) { this.test = test; this.saySomething = function(text) { alert(text); }; }; var Foo = this.Foo; this.testFunc.apply(this); } var test = new myObj(function() { var test = new Foo(); test.saySomething("Hello world"); }); When I run this, I get an error: "Foo is not defined." How do I ensure that Foo will be defined when I call the anonymous function? Here's a jsFiddle for further experimentation. Edit: I am aware of the fact that adding the line var Foo = this.Foo; to the anonymous function I pass in to my instance of myObj will make this work. However, I'd like to avoid having to expose the variable inside the anonymous function--do I have any other options?.

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• Is it possible to "trick" PrintScreen, swap out the contents of my form with something else before c

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have a bit of a challenge. In an earlier version of our product, we had an error message window (last resort, unhandled exception) that showed the exception message, type, stack trace + various bits and pieces of information. This window was printscreen-friendly, in that if the user simply did a printscreen-capture, and emailed us the screenshot, we had almost everything we needed to start diagnosing the problem. However, the form was deemed too technical and "scary" for normal users, so it was toned down to a more friendly one, still showing the error message, but not the stack trace and some of the more gory details that I'd still like to get. In addition, the form was added the capabilities of emailing us a text file containing everything we had before + lots of other technical details as well, basically everything we need. However, users still use PrintScreen to capture the contents of the form and email that back to us, which means I now have a less than optimal amount of information to go on. So I was wondering. Would it be possible for me to pre-render a bitmap the same size as my form, with everything I need on it, detect that PrintScreen was hit and quickly swap out the form contents with my bitmap before capture, and then back again afterwards? And before you say "just educate the users", yes, that's not going to work. These are not out users, they're users at our customers place, so we really cannot tell them to wisen up all that much. Or, barring this, is there a way for me to detect PrintScreen, tell Windows to ignore it, and instead react to it, by dumping the aformentioned prerendered bitmap onto the clipboard ready for placing into an email? The code is C# 3.0 in .NET 3.5, if it matters, but pointers for something to look at/for is good enough.

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• Is it possible to replace values ina queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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• Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

  - by lerac

  <SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="&lt;View&gt;&lt;Query&gt;&lt;OrderBy&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;EventDate&quot;/&gt;&lt;/OrderBy&gt;&lt;Where&gt;&lt;Contains&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;lawyer_x0020_1&quot;/&gt;&lt;Value Type=&quot;Note&quot;&gt;F. Sanches&lt;/Value&gt;&lt;/Contains&gt;&lt;/Where&gt;&lt;/Query&gt;&lt;/View&gt;" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

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• Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

  - by Ed Harper

  I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

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• Is it possible to send OSC commands to an iPad via the Camera Connection Kit?

  - by HELVETICADE

  I'm building a small controller device that I'd like to partner with a computer. I've settled on using OSC out from my custom built hardware and am pretty satisfied with what I can get from WOscLib. Two goals I'd like to achieve are portability and a very nice ratio between battery:computing power, and this has lured me towards using iPhoneOS to accomplish my goals. I think the iPad would suit my needs perfectly, except that using wifi to broadcast OSC out from my device requires that device to be connected to a third device with a wifi chip, and this would destroy the goal of portability, whilst also introducing potential latency and stability headaches. My question is pretty simple: Can I push OSC commands FROM my controller TO an iPad via USB and the Camera Connection Kit? If I could accomplish this, the two major goals of my project would be fulfilled very nicely. This seems like it should be a simple little question, but researching this obsessively over the past few weeks has left me more almost more uncertain than if I had done no research at all. I'd really like some more confidence before I go down this route, and it seems like it should be possible. Any insight would be very, very appreciated.

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• Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

  - by MadhavanRP

  I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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• Is it possible to change 2-3 times f->SetSensor() ?

  - by Asen

  Hello there ! i use cocos2d-iphone-0.99.2 and integrated in it box2d. i have 2 kind of sprites with tags 1 and 2. Also i created bodies and shape definitions for them. what i'm trying to do is to make sprite1 kinds to act as solid or act as not solid when sprite2 colides with them. i tried this code : for(b2Body *b = _world->GetBodyList(); b; b=b->GetNext()) { if (b-GetUserData() != NULL) { CCSprite *sprite = (CCSprite )b-GetUserData(); if (sprite.tag == 1) { b2Fixture f = b-GetFixtureList(); f-SetSensor(solid); } } } Where solid is bool. The first time when i change fixture to sensor everything is just fine but when i try to revert and change again to solid my app crashes with the following error : Assertion failed: (manifold-pointCount 0), function b2ContactSolver, file /Documents/myapp/libs/Box2D/Dynamics/Contacts/b2ContactSolver.cpp, line 58. Is it possible somehow to change fixture-SetSensor several times and if so ... how ? Any help is highly appreciated.

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• Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

  - by somemorebytes

  Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

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• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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• Is this possible: JPA/Hibernate query with list property in result ?

  - by Kdeveloper

  In hibernate I want to run this JPQL / HQL query: select new org.test.userDTO( u.id, u.name, u.securityRoles) FROM User u WHERE u.name = :name userDTO class: public class UserDTO { private Integer id; private String name; private List<SecurityRole> securityRoles; public UserDTO(Integer id, String name, List<SecurityRole> securityRoles) { this.id = id; this.name = name; this.securityRoles = securityRoles; } ...getters and setters... } User Entity: @Entity public class User { @id private Integer id; private String name; @ManyToMany @JoinTable(name = "user_has_role", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "user_id") }, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "security_role_id") } ) private List<SecurityRole> securityRoles; ...getters and setters... } But when Hibernate 3.5 (JPA 2) starts I get this error: org.hibernate.hql.ast.QuerySyntaxException: Unable to locate appropriate constructor on class [org.test.UserDTO] [SELECT NEW org.test.UserDTO (u.id, u.name, u.securityRoles) FROM nl.test.User u WHERE u.name = :name ] Is a select that includes a list as a result not possible? Should I just create 2 seperate queries?

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• Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

  - by Geoffrey Stoel

  I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

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