Search Results

Search found 13586 results on 544 pages for 'trusted domain'.

Page 112/544 | < Previous Page | 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119  | Next Page >

  • SharePoint 2007 Enabling Incoming Email Error

    - by Cherie Riesberg
    Symptom: When configuring incoming e-mail, the e-mails come through just fine if the server name is in the e-mail address: [email protected] but when you change it to a vanity name [email protected], the message is bounced back and you get this error: Delivery has failed to these recipients or distribution lists: [email protected] Your message wasn't delivered because of security policies. Microsoft Exchange will not try to redeliver this  message for you.    Please provide the following diagnostic text to your system administrator. The following organization rejected your message: servername01.fqdn.com.   Problem: The SharePoint server relay rejects the message because it doesn't recognize the name.  You have set it up in Exchange, but you need to set up an alias in the SMTP service on the SharePoint server;   Solution: Configure an Alias Domain An alias domain is an alias of the default domain. You can set up alias domains that use the same settings as the default domain. Messages that are received by the SMTP Service for an alias domain are placed in the Drop folder that is designated for the default domain. To configure an alias domain, follow these steps: Start IIS Manager or open the IIS snap-in. Expand Server_name, where Server_name is the name of the server, and then expand the SMTP virtual server that you want (for example, Default SMTP Virtual Server). Right-click Domains, point to New, and then click Domain. The New SMTP Domain Wizard starts. Click Alias, and then click Next. Type a name for the alias domain in the Name box, and then click Finish. Quit IIS Manager or close the IIS snap-in.

    Read the article

  • LDoms with Solaris 11

    - by Orgad Kimchi
    Oracle VM Server for SPARC (LDoms) release 2.2 came out on May 24. You can get the software, see the release notes, reference manual, and admin guide here on the Oracle VM for SPARC page. Oracle VM Server for SPARC enables you to create multiple virtual systems on a single physical system.Each virtual system is called alogical domain and runs its own instance of Oracle Solaris 10 or Oracle Solaris 11. The version of the Oracle Solaris OS software that runs on a guest domain is independent of the Oracle Solaris OS version that runs on the primary domain. So, if you run the Oracle Solaris 10 OS in the primary domain, you can still run the Oracle Solaris 11 OS in a guest domain, and if you run the Oracle Solaris 11 OS in the primary domain, you can still run the Oracle Solaris 10 OS in a guest domain In addition to that starting with the Oracle VM Server for SPARC 2.2 release you can migrate guest domain even if source and target machines have different processor type. You can migrate guest domain from a system with UltraSPARC  T2+ or SPARC T3 CPU to a system with a SPARC T4 CPU.The guest domain on the source and target system must run Solaris 11 In order to enable cross CPU migration.In addition to that you need to change the cpu-arch property value on the source system. For more information about Oracle VM Server for SPARC (LDoms) with Solaris 11 and  Cross CPU Migration refer to the following white paper

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to get free web host for my registered domain? [closed]

    - by Ahmed Alsayadi
    Possible Duplicate: How to find web hosting that meets my requirements? I searched online for many free web hosting websites like NetFirms, most of them asking you to register for their sub-domain or to buy a new domain, but I already have one which I bought through GoDaddy. Now I hope to find a free web host for my website (site's size less than 20 MB). Any idea which web hosting can meet such requirements?

    Read the article

  • configure postfix to send as different domains

    - by Cerales
    I have postfix configured to receive mail for multiple domains. The primary domain goes through a standard postfix setup, whereas a secondary domain is handed by a /etc/postfix/virtual.db file which maps addresses for the secondary domain to other unix users. Incoming mail works perfectly, but when I send mail as users on the secondary domain, the mail receiver still sees it as coming from [unix username]@[primarydomain].net. Can anyone help me figure out how to configure the virtual postfix domain to send mail through the same domain it receives it as?

    Read the article

  • The server principal '<domain>\User' already exists. But it doesn’t

    - by simonsabin
    Interesting little situation occurred today, the person I was working with was trying to add a login to a server and was getting the following error. “The server principal '<domain>\User' already exists” They were using a command like this and couldn’t figure out why they were getting the error above because when they looked at the logins setup on the system the login definitely didn’t exist. CREATE LOGIN [<domain>\<user>] FROM WINDOWS WITH DEFAULT_DATABASE = [master] The...(read more)

    Read the article

  • Howto I get the user domain\username and Display name From SharePoint People Picker InternalId?

    - by Benjamin Wong
    I have been trying to user sharepoint designer to retrieve the user's full name and even the domain\username from the people pucker field but the problem is I tend to get numbers. It looks like the intetrnal Id. In my case I am getting 14 instead of domain\username from the list form's field. Any idea on where I can get the dmain\username or even better the full name? Thanks !! I am using SharePoint Designer and Windows Sharepoint Services 3/SharePoint 2007. Update : I have managed to get the domain\username now. I just had to change the people picker's show field to ID. However now I am getting a weird prefix on my domain\username. I am getting this -1;#domain\username instead of just domain\username. Anybody know how I can overcome this? Thanks !!

    Read the article

  • SQL 2008 R2 login/network issue

    - by martinjd
    I have a Windows Server 2008 R2 new clean install , not a VM, that I have added to a Windows Server 2003 based domain using my account which has domain admin rights. The domain functional level is 2003. I performed a clean install of SQL Server 2008 R2 using my account which has domain admin rights. The installation completed without any errors. I logged into SSMS locally and attempted to add another domain account by clicking Search, Advanced and finding the user in the domain. When I return to the "Dialog - New" window and click OK I receive the following error: Create failed for Login 'Domain\User'. (Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo) An exception occurred while executing a Transact-SQL statement or batch. (Microsoft.SqlServer.ConnectionInfo) Windows NT user or group 'Domain\User' not found. Check the name again. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 15401) I have verified that the firewall is off, tried adding a different domain user, tried using SA to add a user, installed the hotfix for KB 976494 and verified that the Local Security Policy for Domain Member: Digitally encrypt or sign secure channel Domain Member: Digitally encrypt secure channel Domain Member: Digitally sign secure channel are disabled none of which have made a difference. I can RDP to a Server 2003 server running SQL 2008 and add the same domain user without issue. Also if I try to connect with SSMS to the sql server from another system on the domain using my account I get the following error: Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18452) and on the database server I see the following in the security event log: An account failed to log on. Subject: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: - Account Domain: - Logon ID: 0x0 Logon Type: 3 Account For Which Logon Failed: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: myUserName Account Domain: MYDOMAIN Failure Information: Failure Reason: An Error occured during Logon. Status: 0xc000018d Sub Status: 0x0 Process Information: Caller Process ID: 0x0 Caller Process Name: - Network Information: Workstation Name: MYWKS Source Network Address: - Source Port: - Detailed Authentication Information: Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Transited Services: - Package Name (NTLM only): - Key Length: 0 I am sure that the "NULL SID" has some significant meaning but have no idea at this point what the issue could be.

    Read the article

  • Cross domain form submit does not work on Chrome and IE

    - by Debiprasad
    I am having an unexpected issue while submitting a from. The action of the form is a different domain. And the method is get. Here to the code of the from: <div style="width: 100%; background-color: #09334D; margin: 0 0 15px 0; padding: 10px; -webkit-border-radius: 5px; -moz-border-radius: 5px; border-radius: 5px;" <form action="http://www.flipkart.com/search-book" method="get"> <a href="http://www.flipkart.com/?affid=debiprasad"> <img alt="Flipkart.com" style="vertical-align:middle" src="http://static.fkcdn.com/www/270/images/flipkart_india.png" /> </a> <input type="hidden" name="affid" value="debiprasad"> <input type="text" name="query" style="height:25px; width: 400px; font-size: 16px;"> <select onchange="$(this).closest('form').attr('action', 'http://www.flipkart.com/search-' + $(this).val());" style="height:25px; width: 150px; font-size: 16px;"> <option value='book' selected>Books</option> <option value='music'>Music</option> <option value='movie'>Movies & TV</option> <option value='game'>Games</option> <option value='mobile'>Mobiles</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="Search" style="height:25px; width: 100px; font-size: 16px; background: url('http://static.fkcdn.com/www/270/images/fkart/search_button_bg.png') repeat-x scroll 0 0 transparent; border: 1px solid #915A13; color: #3C2911; cursor: pointer; font-family: 'lucida grande',tahoma,verdana,arial,sans-serif; font-weight: bold; padding: 0 17px 0 15px; margin: 0; -webkit-border-radius: 5px; -moz-border-radius: 5px; border-radius: 5px;"> </form> The form is located at: http://wheretobuyonline.in/ When I click on the "Search" (submit) button, it does not submit. This problem happens in Chrome and IE (8). But works without any problem on Firefox.

    Read the article

  • Grails validateable not work for non-persistent domain class

    - by Hoàng Long
    I followed the instruction here: http://www.grails.org/doc/latest/guide/7.%20Validation.html and added into config.groovy: grails.validateable.classes = [liningtest.Warm'] Then added in src/groovy/Warm.groovy (it's a non-persistent domain class): package liningtest import org.codehaus.groovy.grails.validation.Validateable class Warm { String name; int happyCite; Warm(String n, int h) { this.name = n; this.happyCite = h; } static constraints = { name(size: 1..50) happyCite(min: 100) } } But it just doesn't work (both "blank false" & "size: 0..25") for the "hasErrors" function. It always returns false, even when the name is 25. Is this a Grails bug, if yes, is there any work-around? I'm using Grails 1.3.3 UPDATE: I have updated the simplified code. And now I know that constraint "size" can't be used with "blank", but still does not work. My test class in test/unit/liningtest/WarmTests.groovy package liningtest import grails.test.* class WarmTests extends GrailsUnitTestCase { protected void setUp() { super.setUp() } protected void tearDown() { super.tearDown() } void testSomething() { def w = new Warm('Hihi', 3) assert (w.happyCite == 3) assert (w.hasErrors() == true) } } And the error I got: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <testsuite errors="1" failures="0" hostname="evolus-50b0002c" name="liningtest.WarmTests" tests="1" time="0.062" timestamp="2010-12-16T04:07:47"> <properties /> <testcase classname="liningtest.WarmTests" name="testSomething" time="0.062"> <error message="No signature of method: liningtest.Warm.hasErrors() is applicable for argument types: () values: [] Possible solutions: hashCode()" type="groovy.lang.MissingMethodException">groovy.lang.MissingMethodException: No signature of method: liningtest.Warm.hasErrors() is applicable for argument types: () values: [] Possible solutions: hashCode() at liningtest.WarmTests.testSomething(WarmTests.groovy:18) </error> </testcase> <system-out><![CDATA[--Output from testSomething-- ]]></system-out> <system-err><![CDATA[--Output from testSomething-- ]]></system-err> </testsuite> UPDATE 2: When I don't use Unit test, but try to call hasErrors in the controller, it runs but return false value. (hasErrors return false with Warm('Hihi', 3) ). Does anyone has a clue?

    Read the article

  • nhibernate says 'mapping exception was unhandled' no persister for: MyNH.Domain.User

    - by mrblah
    Hi, I am using nHibernate and fluent. I created a User.cs: public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Username { get; set; } public virtual string Password { get; set; } public virtual string Email { get; set; } public virtual DateTime DateCreated { get; set; } public virtual DateTime DateModified { get; set; } } Then in my mappinds folder: public class UserMapping : ClassMap<User> { public UserMapping() { WithTable("ay_users"); Not.LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Username).Not.Nullable().WithLengthOf(256); Map(x => x.Password).Not.Nullable().WithLengthOf(256); Map(x => x.Email).Not.Nullable().WithLengthOf(100); Map(x => x.DateCreated).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.DateModified).Not.Nullable(); } } Using the repository pattern for the nhibernate blog: public class UserRepository : Repository<User> { } public class Repository<T> : IRepository<T> { public ISession Session { get { return SessionProvider.GetSession(); } } public T GetById(int id) { return Session.Get<T>(id); } public ICollection<T> FindAll() { return Session.CreateCriteria(typeof(T)).List<T>(); } public void Add(T product) { Session.Save(product); } public void Remove(T product) { Session.Delete(product); } } public interface IRepository<T> { T GetById(int id); ICollection<T> FindAll(); void Add(T entity); void Remove(T entity); } public class SessionProvider { private static Configuration configuration; private static ISessionFactory sessionFactory; public static Configuration Configuration { get { if (configuration == null) { configuration = new Configuration(); configuration.Configure(); configuration.AddAssembly(typeof(User).Assembly); } return configuration; } } public static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if (sessionFactory == null) sessionFactory = Configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); return sessionFactory; } } private SessionProvider() { } public static ISession GetSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } My config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2005Dialect</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">Server=.\SqlExpress;Initial Catalog=TestNH;User Id=dev;Password=123</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> I created a console application to test the output: static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("starting..."); UserRepository users = new UserRepository(); User user = users.GetById(1); Console.WriteLine("user is null: " + (null == user)); if(null != user) Console.WriteLine("User: " + user.Username); Console.WriteLine("ending..."); Console.ReadLine(); } Error: nhibernate says 'mapping exception was unhandled' no persister for: MyNH.Domain.User What could be the issue, I did do the mapping?

    Read the article

  • DSP - Filtering in the frequency domain via FFT

    - by Trap
    I've been playing around a little with the Exocortex implementation of the FFT, but I'm having some problems. Whenever I modify the amplitudes of the frequency bins before calling the iFFT the resulting signal contains some clicks and pops, especially when low frequencies are present in the signal (like drums or basses). However, this does not happen if I attenuate all the bins by the same factor. Let me put an example of the output buffer of a 4-sample FFT: // Bin 0 (DC) FFTOut[0] = 0.0000610351563 FFTOut[1] = 0.0 // Bin 1 FFTOut[2] = 0.000331878662 FFTOut[3] = 0.000629425049 // Bin 2 FFTOut[4] = -0.0000381469727 FFTOut[5] = 0.0 // Bin 3, this is the first and only negative frequency bin. FFTOut[6] = 0.000331878662 FFTOut[7] = -0.000629425049 The output is composed of pairs of floats, each representing the real and imaginay parts of a single bin. So, bin 0 (array indexes 0, 1) would represent the real and imaginary parts of the DC frequency. As you can see, bins 1 and 3 both have the same values, (except for the sign of the Im part), so I guess bin 3 is the first negative frequency, and finally indexes (4, 5) would be the last positive frequency bin. Then to attenuate the frequency bin 1 this is what I do: // Attenuate the 'positive' bin FFTOut[2] *= 0.5; FFTOut[3] *= 0.5; // Attenuate its corresponding negative bin. FFTOut[6] *= 0.5; FFTOut[7] *= 0.5; For the actual tests I'm using a 1024-length FFT and I always provide all the samples so no 0-padding is needed. // Attenuate var halfSize = fftWindowLength / 2; float leftFreq = 0f; float rightFreq = 22050f; for( var c = 1; c < halfSize; c++ ) { var freq = c * (44100d / halfSize); // Calc. positive and negative frequency indexes. var k = c * 2; var nk = (fftWindowLength - c) * 2; // This kind of attenuation corresponds to a high-pass filter. // The attenuation at the transition band is linearly applied, could // this be the cause of the distortion of low frequencies? var attn = (freq < leftFreq) ? 0 : (freq < rightFreq) ? ((freq - leftFreq) / (rightFreq - leftFreq)) : 1; // Attenuate positive and negative bins. mFFTOut[ k ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ k + 1 ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ nk ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ nk + 1 ] *= (float)attn; } Obviously I'm doing something wrong but can't figure out what. I don't want to use the FFT output as a means to generate a set of FIR coefficients since I'm trying to implement a very basic dynamic equalizer. What's the correct way to filter in the frequency domain? what I'm missing? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • php, mySQL & AJAX: Unable to use sessions across the scripts in the same domain

    - by Devner
    Hi all, I have the following pages: page1.php, page2.php and page3.php. Code in each of them is as below CODE: page1.php <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $('#imgID').upload({ submit_to_url: "page2.php", file_name: 'myfile1', description : "Image", limit : 1, file_types : "*.jpg", }) }); </script> <body> <form action="page3.php" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data" name="frm1" id="frm1"> //Some other text fields <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> page2.php <?php session_start(); $a = $_SESSION['a']; $b = $_SESSION['b']; $c = $_SESSION['c']; $res = mysql_query("SELECT col FROM table WHERE col1 = $a AND col2 = $b AND col3 = $c LIMIT 1"); $num_rows = mysql_num_rows($res); echo $num_rows; //echos 0 when in fact it should have been 1 because the data in the Session exists. //Ok let's proceed further //... Do some stuff... //Store some more values and create new session variables (and assume that page1.php is going to be able to use it) $_SESSION['d'] = 'd'; $_SESSION['e'] = 'e'; $_SESSION['f'] = 'f'; if (move_uploaded_file($_FILES['file']['tmp_name'], $file)) { echo "success"; } else { echo "error ".$_FILES['file']['error']; } ?> page3.php <?php session_start(); if( isset($_POST['submit']) ) { //These sessions are non-existent although the AJAX request //to page2.php may have created them when called via AJAX from within page1.php echo $_SESSION['d'].$_SESSION['e'].$_SESSION['f']; ?> } ?> As the code says it I am posting some info via AJAX call from page1.php to page2.php. page2.php is supposed to be able to use the session values from page1.php i.e. $_SESSION['a'], $_SESSION['b'] and $_SESSION['c'] but it does not. Why? How can I fix this? page2.php is creating some more sessions after some processing is done and a response is sent back to page1.php. The submit button of the form on page1.php is hit and the page gets POST'ed to page3.php. But when the SESSION info that gets created in page2.php is echoed, it's blank signifying that SESSIONS from page2.php are not used. How can I fix this? I looked over a lot of information and have spent about 50 hours trying to do different things with my scripts before arriving at the above conclusions. My app. is custom made using function (not OOPS) and does not use any PHP frameworks & I am not even about to use any as my knowledge of OOP concepts is limited any many frameworks are object oriented. I came across race conditions, but the solutions provided don't help too much. One more solution of using DB to hold sessions and seek and retrieve from DB is the last thing on my mind and I really want to avoid creating table, coding and maintaining code for a task as simple as just keeping sessions across pages in the same domain. So my request is: Is there a way that I can solve the above problem(s) via simple coding in present conditions? Any help is appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • No data when attempting to get JSONP data from cross domain PHP script

    - by Alex
    I am trying to pull latitude and longitude values from another server on a different domain using a singe id string. I am not very familiar with JQuery, but it seems to be the easiest way to go about getting around the same origin problem. I am unable to use iframes and I cannot install PHP on the server running this javascript, which is forcing my hand on this. My queries appear to be going through properly, but I am not getting any results back. I was hoping someone here might have an idea that could help, seeing as I probably wouldn't recognize most obvious errors here. My javascript function is: var surl = "http://...omitted.../pull.php"; var idnum = 5a; //in practice this is defined above alert("BEFORE"); $.ajax({ url: surl, data: {id: idnum}, dataType: "jsonp", jsonp : "callback", jsonp: "jsonpcallback", success: function (rdata) { alert(rdata.lat + ", " + rdata.lon); } }); alert("BETWEEN"); function jsonpcallback(rtndata) { alert("CALLED"); alert(rtndata.lat + ", " + rtndata.lon); } alert("AFTER"); When my javascript is run, the BEFORE, BETWEEN and AFTER alerts are displayed. The CALLED and other jsonpcallback alerts are not shown. Is there another way to tell if the jsoncallback function has been called? Below is the PHP code I have running on the second server. I added the count table to my database just so that I can tell when this script is run. Every time I call the javascript, count has had an extra item inserted and the id number is correct. <?php header("content-type: application/json"); if (isset($_GET['id']) || isset($_POST['id'])){ $db_handle = mysql_connect($server, $username, $password); if (!$db_handle) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } $db_found = mysql_select_db($database, $db_handle); if ($db_found) { if (isset($_POST['id'])){ $SQL = sprintf("SELECT * FROM %s WHERE loc_id='%s'", $loctable, mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['id'])); } if (isset($_GET['id'])){ $SQL = sprintf("SELECT * FROM %s WHERE loc_id='%s'", $loctable, mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['id'])); } $result = mysql_query($SQL, $db_handle); $db_field = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $rtnjsonobj -> lat = $db_field["lat"]; $rtnjsonobj -> lon = $db_field["lon"]; if (isset($_POST['id'])){ echo $_POST['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; } if (isset($_GET['id'])){ echo $_GET['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; } $SQL = sprintf("INSERT INTO count (bullshit) VALUES ('%s')", $_GET['id']); $result = mysql_query($SQL, $db_handle); $db_field = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); } mysql_close($db_handle); } else { $rtnjsonobj -> lat = 404; $rtnjsonobj -> lon = 404; echo $_GET['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; }?> I am not entirely sure if the jsonp returned by this PHP is correct. When I go directly to the PHP script without including any parameters, I do get the following. ({"lat":404,"lon":404}) The callback function is not included, but that much can be expected when it isn't included in the original call. Does anyone have any idea what might be going wrong here? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • python: how to design a container with elements that must reference their container

    - by Luke404
    (the title is admittedly not that great. Please forgive my English, this is the best I could think of) I'm writing a python script that will manage email domains and their accounts, and I'm also a newby at OOP design. My two (related?) issues are: the Domain class must do special work to add and remove accounts, like adding/removing them to the underlying implementation how to manage operations on accounts that must go through their container To solve the former issue I'd add a factory method to the Domain class that'll build an Account instance in that domain, and a 'remove' (anti-factory?) method to handle deletions. For the latter this seems to me "anti-oop" since what would logically be an operation on an Account (eg, change password) must always reference the containing Domain. Seems to me that I must add to the Account a reference back to the Domain and use that to get data (like the domain name) or call methods on the Domain class. Code example (element uses data from the container) that manages an underlying Vpopmail system: class Account: def __init__(self, name, password, domain): self.name = name self.password = password self.domain = domain def set_password(self, password): os.system('vpasswd %s@%s %s' % (self.name, self.domain.name, password) self.password = password class Domain: def __init__(self, domain_name): self.name = domain_name self.accounts = {} def create_account(self, name, password): os.system('vadduser %s@%s %s' % (name, self.name, password)) account = Account(name, password, self) self.accounts[name] = account def delete_account(self, name): os.system('vdeluser %s@%s' % (name, self.name)) del self.accounts[name] another option would be for Account.set_password to call a Domain method that would do the actual work - sounds equally ugly to me. Also note the duplication of data (account name also as dict key), it sounds logical (account names are "primary key" inside a domain) but accounts need to know their own name.

    Read the article

  • SCOM 2012 DNS Forwarder Availability Monitor

    - by Massimo
    Background: I have an environment with two different AD domains, each in its own forest, each with two Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controllers acting as DNS servers. There is no trust between the domains. Each DNS server manages the main DNS zone for its AD domain, and then some other zones, including the reverse lookup zone for its IP subnets; all zones are AD-integrated; all DNS servers which manages a zone are correctly listed as authoritative name servers for that zone. So, the situation is like this (using fake names and IP addresses): Domain A: DNS domain: a.dom IP subnet: 192.168.1.X DC/DNS Servers: serverA1.a.dom (192.168.1.1) and serverA2.a.dom (192.168.1.2) Authoritative zones: a.dom, 1.168.192.in-addr.arpa, somezone.local Domain B: DNS domain: b.dom IP subnet: 10.0.0.X DC/DNS Servers: serverB1.b.dom (10.0.0.1) and serverB2.b.dom (10.0.0.2) Authoritative zones: b.dom, 0.0.10.in-addr.arpa, someotherzone.local DNS servers in domain A have conditional forwarders defined for each zone managed by DNS servers in domain B, forwarding to both domain B's DNS servers; DNS servers in domain B have the opposite configuration. All forwarders are stored in Active Directory. All is working perfectly, and computers in each domain can resolve forward and reverse DNS queries for both domains, using their domain's DNS servers. The problem: I have SCOM 2012 deployed in domain A, with the SCOM agent installed on both DCs; the management packs for Active Directory and DNS Server are installed and up-to-date. I have a series of alerts like the following ones on both domain controllers; each alert is generated for each forwarded zone and for each forwarded server: Forwarder someotherzone.local (10.0.0.1) cannot resolve the host name 192.168.1.1,someotherzone.local for serverA1.a.dom Forwarder someotherzone.local (10.0.0.2) cannot resolve the host name 192.168.1.1,someotherzone.local for serverA1.a.dom Forwarder someotherzone.local (10.0.0.1) cannot resolve the host name 192.168.1.2,someotherzone.local for serverA2.a.dom Forwarder someotherzone.local (10.0.0.2) cannot resolve the host name 192.168.1.2,someotherzone.local for serverA2.a.dom Forwarder 0.0.10.in-addr.arpa (10.0.0.1) cannot resolve the host name 192.168.1.1,0.0.10.in-addr.arpa for serverA1.a.dom Forwarder 0.0.10.in-addr.arpa (10.0.0.2) cannot resolve the host name 192.168.1.1,0.0.10.in-addr.arpa for serverA1.a.dom Forwarder 0.0.10.in-addr.arpa (10.0.0.1) cannot resolve the host name 192.168.1.2,0.0.10.in-addr.arpa for serverA2.a.dom Forwarder 0.0.10.in-addr.arpa (10.0.0.2) cannot resolve the host name 192.168.1.2,0.0.10.in-addr.arpa for serverA2.a.dom The only exception is the main AD DNS zone managed by domain B's DNS servers (b.dom): for that conditional forwarder, no alert is generated and the forwarder availability monitor is green. Ok, what does this mean? What are those monitors trying to tell me? What are they checking? What's actually wrong? And why there is no error for the "b.dom" zone, which is configured in the exact same way as the other ones, both as a zone in domain B's DNS servers and as a forwarder in domain A's DNS servers?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 - Login failed for user 'user1' The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by difek
    I have installed SQL Server 2008 R2 on Windows XP. In installation process I selected 'SQL Server and Windows Authentication Mode' When I click right button of the mouse in SQL Server Management Studio on Server - Security tab 'SQL server and Windows Authentication Mode' is selected. But when I click on my Database - Properties - View connection properties Authentication Method is set on Windows Authentication. To my database was added one user1 with password user1. But I can't log in to my database from C# (Visual Studio 2008) because error occurs: Login failed for user 'user1' The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection What isn't right ? When I get: string connectionStr = @"Data Source=rmzcmp\SQLExpress;Initial Catalog=ResourcesTmp;Integrated Security=True"; I have following error: {"Cannot open database \"ResourcesTmp\" requested by the login. The login failed.\r\nLogin failed for user 'RMZCMP\rm'."} rm is my original user name on which I log in to my computer. When I get rm I have error: {"Login failed for user 'rm'. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection."} again. Regards

    Read the article

  • SQL Constraints &ndash; CHECK and NOCHECK

    - by David Turner
    One performance issue i faced at a recent project was with the way that our constraints were being managed, we were using Subsonic as our ORM, and it has a useful tool for generating your ORM code called SubStage – once configured, you can regenerate your DAL code easily based on your database schema, and it can even be integrated into your build as a pre-build event if you want to do this.  SubStage also offers the useful feature of being able to generate DDL scripts for your entire database, and can script your data for you too. The problem came when we decided to use the generate scripts feature to migrate the database onto a test database instance – it turns out that the DDL scripts that it generates include the WITH NOCHECK option, so when we executed them on the test instance, and performed some testing, we found that performance wasn’t as expected. A constraint can be disabled, enabled but not trusted, or enabled and trusted.  When it is disabled, data can be inserted that violates the constraint because it is not being enforced, this is useful for bulk load scenarios where performance is important.  So what does it mean to say that a constraint is trusted or not trusted?  Well this refers to the SQL Server Query Optimizer, and whether it trusts that the constraint is valid.  If it trusts the constraint then it doesn’t check it is valid when executing a query, so the query can be executed much faster. Here is an example base in this article on TechNet, here we create two tables with a Foreign Key constraint between them, and add a single row to each.  We then query the tables: 1 DROP TABLE t2 2 DROP TABLE t1 3 GO 4 5 CREATE TABLE t1(col1 int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY) 6 CREATE TABLE t2(col1 int NOT NULL) 7 8 ALTER TABLE t2 WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT fk_t2_t1 FOREIGN KEY(col1) 9 REFERENCES t1(col1) 10 11 INSERT INTO t1 VALUES(1) 12 INSERT INTO t2 VALUES(1) 13 GO14 15 SELECT COUNT(*) FROM t2 16 WHERE EXISTS17 (SELECT *18 FROM t1 19 WHERE t1.col1 = t2.col1) This all works fine, and in this scenario the constraint is enabled and trusted.  We can verify this by executing the following SQL to query the ‘is_disabled’ and ‘is_not_trusted’ properties: 1 select name, is_disabled, is_not_trusted from sys.foreign_keys This gives the following result: We can disable the constraint using this SQL: 1 alter table t2 NOCHECK CONSTRAINT fk_t2_t1 And when we query the constraints again, we see that the constraint is disabled and not trusted: So the constraint won’t be enforced and we can insert data into the table t2 that doesn’t match the data in t1, but we don’t want to do this, so we can enable the constraint again using this SQL: 1 alter table t2 CHECK CONSTRAINT fk_t2_t1 But when we query the constraints again, we see that the constraint is enabled, but it is still not trusted: This means that the optimizer will check the constraint each time a query is executed over it, which will impact the performance of the query, and this is definitely not what we want, so we need to make the constraint trusted by the optimizer again.  First we should check that our constraints haven’t been violated, which we can do by running DBCC: 1 DBCC CHECKCONSTRAINTS (t2) Hopefully you see the following message indicating that DBCC completed without finding any violations of your constraint: Having verified that the constraint was not violated while it was disabled, we can simply execute the following SQL:   1 alter table t2 WITH CHECK CHECK CONSTRAINT fk_t2_t1 At first glance this looks like it must be a typo to have the keyword CHECK repeated twice in succession, but it is the correct syntax and when we query the constraints properties, we find that it is now trusted again: To fix our specific problem, we created a script that checked all constraints on our tables, using the following syntax: 1 ALTER TABLE t2 WITH CHECK CHECK CONSTRAINT ALL

    Read the article

  • Hosting and domain registrations for multiple clients under a single hosting account of mine?

    - by letseatfood
    I am finally getting regular work designing, developing, and deploying websites for small businesses and individuals. So far the websites utilize single-user content management systems, so the websites create, as far as I know, minimal load on the shared servers. I have always required that each of my clients purchase annual shared hosting at Dreamhost. For domain registration, I ask that they register with Dreamhost, but some already have a registered domain elsewhere and this is fine with me. I do this so the billing issues are the client's responsibility, not mine. My question is: Since I can register unlimited domains and connect them to my one shared hosting account at Dreamhost, should I not be requiring clients to individually pay for shared hosting and a domain? Should I actually be paying for one hosting account and then hosting all of my client's websites on that account? As I said before, I currently have each client buy their own hosting, because I feel that, for example, if there is high traffic to their site, there would be less a chance of the site going down than if their site was hosted with many others on one account. I am famous for being long-winded, please let me know if I can clarify at all. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Should my web app have its own domain name?

    - by Daniero
    I'm going to get a domain name for my personal web page. It will contain my blog, photos and other personal stuff, plus different web apps and tools that I'm working on. I have put quite a lot of work in one of the web apps, and I think it has great potential. It covers a niche in a way that no other page has done before and I can see great possibilities to expand it. Via links to webstores and ads I think it could even make some money, and if I play it right this could be the place to go when you're into the specific niche that it covers (sorry for being so vague). My question is, would it be better for a (potentially great) web app like this to have its own domain name (nameofmyapp.com) instead of being a subpage of my personal page (mypersonaldomain.com/nameofmyapp)? Is the web app more likely to be found by others, via Google etc, with its own domain name? Could a "subpage" give more attention (visitors) to my personal page? pros and cons?

    Read the article

  • Public domain usage of imagery from films? [on hold]

    - by AdamJones
    I'm thinking of starting a small film site, which would begin as a simple blog. Imagery from films I discuss on the site would be vital to the look and feel of this site. Instantly though this makes me wonder about copyright/public domain rights for such imagery. I just wondered if anyone had general or specific advise about using imagery from this industry or another similar situation? On the one hand I know the film industry aggressively tries to protect its IP (fair enough), but on the other hand, surely film companies do release some imagery of their films in stills format into the public domain to simply help their distribution and advertising efforts? I have tried looking on stock photo galleries for images of film stills but only found moviestillsdb.com) which seemed very limited in its results. I've researched a bit about fair usage (http://fairuse.stanford.edu/overview/fair-use/) as well, which I know applies to the USA specifically. This seems to suggest that a still of a film is within these bounds. Still, any constructive advise others may have as a result of experience dealing with imagery, from film or another domain would be greatly appreciated, assuming it isn't "get a lawyer".

    Read the article

  • Communicate with the local machine from a web page

    - by Earlz
    Hello. We have a web application. There are physical devices that we need to be able to communicate with, and we have access to all of our clients computers to install whatever software we need. Now, for the question: Is there a way to make this browser-agnostic? As in, not requiring ActiveX controls? One of my ideas was to install a custom made webserver on each client and then have javascript on our webpage that communicates with that webserver. This could be done by the same way that http://earlz.biz.tm javascript can access subdomains assigned to 127.0.0.1 such as http://loopback.earlz.biz.tm The problem with this of course is that the client's custom made webserver would be forced to run on port 80(which will have conflicts at least sometimes), or we would have to use a nonstandard port for our web application, which is quite undesirable. Does anyone else have ideas on how to do this?

    Read the article

  • DDD: Aggregate Roots

    - by Mosh
    Hello, I need help with finding my aggregate root and boundary. I have 3 Entities: Plan, PlannedRole and PlannedTraining. Each Plan can include many PlannedRoles and PlannedTrainings. Solution 1: At first I thought Plan is the aggregate root because PlannedRole and PlannedTraining do not make sense out of the context of a Plan. They are always within a plan. Also, we have a business rule that says each Plan can have a maximum of 3 PlannedRoles and 5 PlannedTrainings. So I thought by nominating the Plan as the aggregate root, I can enforce this invariant. However, we have a Search page where the user searches for Plans. The results shows a few properties of the Plan itself (and none of its PlannedRoles or PlannedTrainings). I thought if I have to load the entire aggregate, it would have a lot of overhead. There are nearly 3000 plans and each may have a few children. Loading all these objects together and then ignoring PlannedRoles and PlannedTrainings in the search page doesn't make sense to me. Solution 2: I just realized the user wants 2 more search pages where they can search for Planned Roles or Planned Trainings. That made me realize they are trying to access these objects independently and "out of" the context of Plan. So I thought I was wrong about my initial design and that is how I came up with this solution. So, I thought to have 3 aggregates here, 1 for each Entity. This approach enables me to search for each Entity independently and also resolves the performance issue in solution 1. However, using this approach I cannot enforce the invariant I mentioned earlier. There is also another invariant that states a Plan can be changed only if it is of a certain status. So, I shouldn't be able to add any PlannedRoles or PlannedTrainings to a Plan that is not in that status. Again, I can't enforce this invariant with the second approach. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. Cheers, Mosh

    Read the article

  • How Do I Setup Multiple Stores Using Magento Like Their Demo?

    - by FergatROn
    I'm playing with Magento and I figured out how to create multiple websites and stores and store views, but when I go back to the home page it certainly doesn't look as cool as the Magento Demo (http://www.magento-mall.com/). Are the tabs something they did in the HTML and the store domains are really masking to the ugly store URL? Example: www.kayferg-store1.com = masks to beta.kayferg.com/magento/index.php/?___store=[STORE1] www.kayferg-store2.com = masks to beta.kayferg.com/magento/index.php/?___store=[STORE2]

    Read the article

  • Saving State Dynamic UserControls...Help!

    - by Cognitronic
    I have page with a LinkButton on it that when clicked, I'd like to add a Usercontrol to the page. I need to be able to add/remove as many controls as the user would like. The Usercontrol consists of three dropdownlists. The first dropdownlist has it's auotpostback property set to true and hooks up the OnSelectedIndexChanged event that when fired will load the remaining two dropdownlists with the appropriate values. My problem is that no matter where I put the code in the host page, the usercontrol is not being loaded properly. I know I have to recreate the usercontrols on every postback and I've created a method that is being executed in the hosting pages OnPreInit method. I'm still getting the following error: The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases. Here is my code: Thank you!!!! bool createAgain = false; IList<FilterOptionsCollectionView> OptionControls { get { if (SessionManager.Current["controls"] != null) return (IList<FilterOptionsCollectionView>)SessionManager.Current["controls"]; else SessionManager.Current["controls"] = new List<FilterOptionsCollectionView>(); return (IList<FilterOptionsCollectionView>)SessionManager.Current["controls"]; } set { SessionManager.Current["controls"] = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Master.Page.Title = Title; LoadViewControls(Master.MainContent, Master.SideBar, Master.ToolBarContainer); } protected override void OnPreInit(EventArgs e) { base.OnPreInit(e); System.Web.UI.MasterPage m = Master; Control control = GetPostBackControl(this); if ((control != null && control.ClientID == (lbAddAndCondtion.ClientID) || createAgain)) { createAgain = true; CreateUserControl(control.ID); } } protected void AddAndConditionClicked(object o, EventArgs e) { var control = LoadControl("~/Views/FilterOptionsCollectionView.ascx"); OptionControls.Add((FilterOptionsCollectionView)control); control.ID = "options" + OptionControls.Count.ToString(); phConditions.Controls.Add(control); } public event EventHandler<Insight.Presenters.PageViewArg> OnLoadData; private Control FindControlRecursive(Control root, string id) { if (root.ID == id) { return root; } foreach (Control c in root.Controls) { Control t = FindControlRecursive(c, id); if (t != null) { return t; } } return null; } protected Control GetPostBackControl(System.Web.UI.Page page) { Control control = null; string ctrlname = Page.Request.Params["__EVENTTARGET"]; if (ctrlname != null && ctrlname != String.Empty) { control = FindControlRecursive(page, ctrlname.Split('$')[2]); } else { string ctrlStr = String.Empty; Control c = null; foreach (string ctl in Page.Request.Form) { if (ctl.EndsWith(".x") || ctl.EndsWith(".y")) { ctrlStr = ctl.Substring(0, ctl.Length - 2); c = page.FindControl(ctrlStr); } else { c = page.FindControl(ctl); } if (c is System.Web.UI.WebControls.CheckBox || c is System.Web.UI.WebControls.CheckBoxList) { control = c; break; } } } return control; } protected void CreateUserControl(string controlID) { try { if (createAgain && phConditions != null) { if (OptionControls.Count > 0) { phConditions.Controls.Clear(); foreach (var c in OptionControls) { phConditions.Controls.Add(c); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } } Here is the usercontrol's code: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="FilterOptionsCollectionView.ascx.cs" Inherits="Insight.Website.Views.FilterOptionsCollectionView" %> namespace Insight.Website.Views { [ViewStateModeById] public partial class FilterOptionsCollectionView : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { LoadColumns(); ddlColumns.SelectedIndexChanged += new RadComboBoxSelectedIndexChangedEventHandler(ColumnsSelectedIndexChanged); base.OnInit(e); } protected void ColumnsSelectedIndexChanged(object o, EventArgs e) { LoadCriteria(); } public void LoadColumns() { ddlColumns.DataSource = User.GetItemSearchProperties(); ddlColumns.DataTextField = "SearchColumn"; ddlColumns.DataValueField = "CriteriaSearchControlType"; ddlColumns.DataBind(); LoadCriteria(); } private void LoadCriteria() { var controlType = User.GetItemSearchProperties()[ddlColumns.SelectedIndex].CriteriaSearchControlType; var ops = User.GetItemSearchProperties()[ddlColumns.SelectedIndex].ValidOperators; ddlOperators.DataSource = ops; ddlOperators.DataTextField = "key"; ddlOperators.DataValueField = "value"; ddlOperators.DataBind(); switch (controlType) { case ResourceStrings.ViewFilter_ControlTypes_DDL: criteriaDDL.Visible = true; criteriaText.Visible = false; var crit = User.GetItemSearchProperties()[ddlColumns.SelectedIndex].SearchCriteria; ddlCriteria.DataSource = crit; ddlCriteria.DataBind(); break; case ResourceStrings.ViewFilter_ControlTypes_Text: criteriaDDL.Visible = false; criteriaText.Visible = true; break; } } public event EventHandler OnColumnChanged; public ISearchCriterion FilterOptionsValues { get; set; } } }

    Read the article

  • Technical/Programming/Non-SEO Pros and Cons of WWW or no-WWW?

    - by Ingenutrix
    What are technical/programming/non-SEO pros and cons of www or no-www, for domains as well as sub-domains? From Jeff Atwood's twitter at http://twitter.com/codinghorror/status/1637428313 : "sort of regretting the no-www choice because it causes full cookie submission to ALL subdomains. :(" What does this mean? Is there a blog post or article detailing this? What other specific issues and their reasons should be considered for www. vs no-www. Update: On searching for more info on this topic, I found following helpful ( in addition to Laurence Gonsalves answer ) : Dropping the WWW Prefix Impact on search results: Jivlain's and Isaac Lin's comments Use Cookie-free Domains for Components on StackOverflow : Should I default my website to www.foo or not? on StackOverflow : When should one use a ‘www’ subdomain?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119  | Next Page >