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  • F# ref-mutable vars vs object fields

    - by rwallace
    I'm writing a parser in F#, and it needs to be as fast as possible (I'm hoping to parse a 100 MB file in less than a minute). As normal, it uses mutable variables to store the next available character and the next available token (i.e. both the lexer and the parser proper use one unit of lookahead). My current partial implementation uses local variables for these. Since closure variables can't be mutable (anyone know the reason for this?) I've declared them as ref: let rec read file includepath = let c = ref ' ' let k = ref NONE let sb = new StringBuilder() use stream = File.OpenText file let readc() = c := stream.Read() |> char // etc I assume this has some overhead (not much, I know, but I'm trying for maximum speed here), and it's a little inelegant. The most obvious alternative would be to create a parser class object and have the mutable variables be fields in it. Does anyone know which is likely to be faster? Is there any consensus on which is considered better/more idiomatic style? Is there another option I'm missing?

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  • InputManager ignores cut/copy/paste when initiated from menu

    - by Wallstreet Programmer
    I'm using the InputManager to check if changes to controls are done by user or code. This works fine, except when user uses the context menu for cut/copy/paste. If the user do ctrl+v in a textbox, InputManager correctly notices it. However, if the paste is done from the context menu of the textbox, the InputManager never fires the PreNotifyInput or PostNotifyInput events. Anyone knows why? Or how to detect that these user actions? Below is a working sample. The lower textblock never gets updated when user uses the cut/copy/paste menu in the above textbox since PreNotifyInput never fires. XAML: <Window x:Class="InputMgrDemo.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <TextBox TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" /> <TextBlock Name="_text" /> </StackPanel> </Window> Code behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputMgrDemo { public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); InputManager.Current.PreNotifyInput += ((sender, e) => _userInput = true); InputManager.Current.PostNotifyInput += ((sender, args) => _userInput = false); } private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (_userInput) { _text.Text = (sender as TextBox).Text; } } private bool _userInput; } }

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  • checking mongo database for data

    - by user1647484
    I'm playing around with this tutorial that uses Sinatra, backbone.js, and mongodb for the database. It's my first time using mongo. As far as I understand it the app uses both local storage and a database. it has these routes for the database. For example, it has these routes get '/api/:thing' do DB.collection(params[:thing]).find.to_a.map{|t| from_bson_id(t)}.to_json end get '/api/:thing/:id' do from_bson_id(DB.collection(params[:thing]).find_one(to_bson_id(params[:id]))).to_json end post '/api/:thing' do oid = DB.collection(params[:thing]).insert(JSON.parse(request.body.read.to_s)) "{\"_id\": \"#{oid.to_s}\"}" end After turning the server off and then on, I could see in the server getting data from the database routes 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Sep/2012 08:21:58] "GET /api/todos HTTP/1.1" 200 430 0.0033 My question is, how can I check from within the mongo shell whether the data's in the database? I started the mongo shell ./bin/mongo I selected the database 'use mydb' and then looking at the docs (http://www.mongodb.org/display/DOCS/Tutorial) I tried commands such as > var cursor = db.things.find(); > while (cursor.hasNext()) printjson(cursor.next()); but they didn't return anything.

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  • How to limit TCP writes to particular size and then block untlil the data is read

    - by ustulation
    {Qt 4.7.0 , VS 2010} I have a Server written in Qt and a 3rd party client executable. Qt based server uses QTcpServer and QTcpSocket facilities (non-blocking). Going through the articles on TCP I understand the following: the original implementation of TCP mentioned the negotiable window size to be a 16-bit value, thus maximum being 65535 bytes. But implementations often used the RFC window-scale-extension that allows the sliding window size to be scalable by bit-shifting to yield a maximum of 1 gigabyte. This is implementation defined. This could have resulted in majorly different window sizes on receiver and sender end as the server uses Qt facilities without hardcoding any window size limit. Client 1st asks for all information it can based on the previous messages from the server before handling the new (accumulating) incoming messages. So at some point Server receives a lot of messages each asking for data of several MB's. This the server processes and puts it into the sender buffer. Client however is unable to handle the messages at the same pace and it seems that client’s receiver buffer is far smaller (65535 bytes maybe) than sender’s transmit window size. The messages thus get accumulated at sender’s end until the sender’s buffer is full too after which the TCP writes on sender would block. This however does not happen as sender buffer is much larger. Hence this manifests as increase in memory consumption on the sender’s end. To prevent this from happening, I used Qt’s socket’s waitForBytesWritten() with timeout set to -1 for infinite waiting period. This as I see from the behaviour blocks the thread writing TCP data until the data has actually been sensed by the receiver’s window (which will happen when earlier messages have been processed by the client at application level). This has caused memory consumption at Server end to be almost negligible. is there a better alternative to this (in Qt) if i want to restrict the memory consumption at server end to say x MB's? Also please point out if any of my understandings is incorrect.

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  • Avoid using InetAddress - Getting a raw IP address in network byte order

    - by Mylo
    Hey, I am trying to use the MaxMind GeoLite Country database on the Google App Engine. However, I am having difficulty getting the Java API to work as it relies on the InetAddress class which is not available to use on the App Engine. However, I am not sure if there is a simple workaround as it appears it only uses the InetAddress class to determine the IP of a given hostname. In my case, the hostname is always an IP anyway. What I need is a way to convert an IP address represented as a String into a byte array of network byte order (which the addr.getAddress() method of the InetAddress class provides). This is the code the current API uses, I need to find a way of removing all references to InetAddress whilst ensuring it still works! Thanks for your time. /** * Returns the country the IP address is in. * * @param ipAddress String version of an IP address, i.e. "127.0.0.1" * @return the country the IP address is from. */ public Country getCountry(String ipAddress) { InetAddress addr; try { addr = InetAddress.getByName(ipAddress); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { return UNKNOWN_COUNTRY; } return getCountry(bytesToLong(addr.getAddress())); }

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  • File upload fails when user is authenticated. Using IIS7 Integrated mode.

    - by Nikkelmann
    These are the user identities my website tells me that it uses: Logged on: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE (Can not write any files at all) and Not logged on: WSW32\IUSR_77 (Can write files to any folder) I have a ASP.NET 4.0 website on a shared hosting IIS7 web server running in Integrated mode with 32-bit applications support enabled and MSSQL 2008. Using classic mode is not an option since I need to secure some static files and I use Routing. In my web.config file I have set the following: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> </system.webServer> My hosting company says that Impersonation is enabled by default on machine level, so this is not something I can change. I asked their support and they referred me to this article: http://www.codinghub.net/2010/08/differences-between-integrated-mode-and.html Citing this part: Different windows identity in Forms authentication When Forms Authentication is used by an application and anonymous access is allowed, the Integrated mode identity differs from the Classic mode identity in the following ways: * ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"] is filled. * Request.LogognUserIdentity uses the credentials of the [NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE] account instead of the [NT AUTHORITY\INTERNET USER] account. This behavior occurs because authentication is performed in a single stage in Integrated mode. Conversely, in Classic mode, authentication occurs first with IIS 7.0 using anonymous access, and then with ASP.NET using Forms authentication. Thus, the result of the authentication is always a single user-- the Forms authentication user. AUTH_USER/LOGON_USER returns this same user because the Forms authentication user credentials are synchronized between IIS 7.0 and ASP.NET. A side effect is that LOGON_USER, HttpRequest.LogonUserIdentity, and impersonation no longer can access the Anonymous user credentials that IIS 7.0 would have authenticated by using Classic mode. How do I set up my website so that it can use the proper identity with the proper permissions? I've looked high and low for any answers regarding this specific problem, but found nil so far... I hope you can help!

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  • Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

    - by Michal Bachman
    I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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  • asp.net gridview bind dateformat not working with update

    - by Brabbeldas
    I have a GridView with a TemplateField column which shows a DateTime from a DataSource. <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Start Date"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDateStart" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'</asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> Displaying the date in the correct format works as it should. Note that the format starts with DAY followed by MONTH. When I switch to edit mode, change the date in the TextBox to '31-01-2013' and press the GridView's update-link i get an error: Cannot convert value of parameter 'dtDateStart' from 'System.String' to 'System.DateTime' The error is generated by the GridView not my own code. It happens before the UpdateMethod of my DataSource is called. When i type '01-31-2012' the data is processed correctly and the value is updated into the database. Somehow when the date is displayed it uses format dd-MM-yyyy (just as I need it to) But when it reads the new value form the TextBox it uses MM-dd-yyyy Can somebody please help me?

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  • Parallel doseq for Clojure

    - by andrew cooke
    I haven't used multithreading in Clojure at all so am unsure where to start. I have a doseq whose body can run in parallel. What I'd like is for there always to be 3 threads running (leaving 1 core free) that evaluate the body in parallel until the range is exhausted. There's no shared state, nothing complicated - the equivalent of Python's multiprocessing would be just fine. So something like: (dopar 3 [i (range 100)] ; repeated 100 times in 3 parallel threads... ...) Where should I start looking? Is there a command for this? A standard package? A good reference? So far I have found pmap, and could use that (how do I restrict to 3 at a time? looks like it uses 32 at a time - no, source says 2 + number of processors), but it seems like this is a basic primitive that should already exist somewhere. clarification: I really would like to control the number of threads. I have processes that are long-running and use a fair amount of memory, so creating a large number and hoping things work out OK isn't a good approach (example which uses a significant chunk available mem). update: Starting to write a macro that does this, and I need a semaphore (or a mutex, or an atom i can wait on). Do semaphores exist in Clojure? Or should I use a ThreadPoolExecutor? It seems odd to have to pull so much in from Java - I thought parallel programming in Clojure was supposed to be easy... Maybe I am thinking about this completely the wrong way? Hmmm. Agents?

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  • Java program using a class from a JAR file

    - by Myn
    Hi guys, I'll try to phrase this as best I can. I have a program which has an API-like functionality - it uses reflection to dynamically call methods from within a class. In this instance: Server.java public static void main(String[] args) { Class<?> clazz = Class.forName("DiHandler"); StHandler out = (StHandler) clazz; out.read(); DiHandler.java // implements StHandler import edu.ds.*; public void read() { Ds aType = new Ds(); aType = "134"; } So DiHandler has a method read() which can contain anything, it doesn't matter to Server.java after compile time. My problem is: DiHandler.java uses the class Ds from a JAR file. When I'm working on DiHandler.java in Eclipse (in a separate project from the project Server.java is in) I can add this JAR without a problem. But when I move DiHandler.class, after it's compiled, to be used by Server.class, how can it still use the JAR file? I hope this makes some sense, I suppose another way to phrase it would be how can I allow DiHandler to call on a class from the JAR without editing the classpath? Thanks very much in advance and sorry for any confusion or poor phrasing, I can only offer thanks and the customary offer of a pint for any assistance. M

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  • Separation of business logic

    - by bruno
    When I was optimizing my architecture of our applications in our website, I came to a problem that I don't know the best solution for. Now at the moment we have a small dll based on this structure: Database <-> DAL <-> BLL the Dal uses Business Objects to pass to the BLL that will pass it to the applications that uses this dll. Only the BLL is public so any application that includes this dll, can see the bll. In the beginning, this was a good solution for our company. But when we are adding more and more applications on that Dll, the bigger the Bll is getting. Now we dont want that some applications can see Bll-logic from other applications. Now I don't know what the best solution is for that. The first thing I thought was, move and separate the bll to other dll's which i can include in my application. But then must the Dal be public, so the other dll's can get the data... and that I seems like a good solution. My other solution, is just to separate the bll in different namespaces, and just include only the namespaces you need in the applications. But in this solution, you can get directly access to other bll's if you want. So I'm asking for your opinions.

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  • getting windows username with javascript

    - by jbkkd
    I have a site which is built in ASP.net and C#. Let's call it webapp. it uses a Form system to log on into it, and cannot be changed easliy. I got a request to change the log in to some kind of windows authentication. I'll explain. Our windows login uses active directory for users to log into their windows account. their login name is sXXXXXXX. X are numbers. in my webapp, I want to take the users numbers from their active directory login, and check if those exist in the webapp database. if it exists, they will automatically log in. If it doesn't, they will be referred to the regular login page for the webapp system which is currently in use. I tried changing my IIS to disable anonymous login and enabling windows authentication, therefore making the user browser to send it's current logged in user name to my webapp. I changed the web config as well from "Forms" to "Windows", which made my whole webapp obsolete as the whole forms system did not work. My question is this - is there a different way for the browser only to send the username to my webapp? I thought maybe javascript, I just don't know how to implement that, if it's even possible. I know it's not very secure, but all this platform and system is built outside the internet, it's on a private network.

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  • Android - save/restore state of custom class

    - by user1209216
    I have some class for ssh support - it uses jsch internally. I use this class on main activity, this way: public class MainActivity extends Activity { SshSupport ssh = new SshSupport(); ..... @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); //Handle events for ssh ssh.eventHandler = new ISshEvents() { @Override public void SshCommandExecuted(SshCommandsEnum commandType, String result) { } //other overrides here } //Ssh operations on gui item click @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> arg0, View v, int position, long arg3) { if (ssh.IsConnected() == false) { try { ssh.ConnectAsync(/*parameters*/); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } try { ssh.ExecuteCommandAsync(SshCommandsEnum.values()[position]); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); } It works very well. My application connects to ssh, performs all needed operation in background thread and results are reported to gui, via events as shown above. But nothing works after user change device orientation. It's clear for me - activity is re-created and all state is lost. Unfortunately, my SshSupport class object is lost as well. It's pretty easy to store gui state for dynamically changed/added objects (using put/get serializable etc methods). But I have no idea how to prevent my ssh object, ssh connected session being lost. Since my class is not serializable, I can't save it to bundle. Also, even if I make my SshSupport class serializable, jsch objects it uses still are not serializable. So what is the best way to solve this?

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  • Chat app vs REST app - use a thread in an Activity or a thread in a Service?

    - by synic
    In Virgil Dobjanschi's talk, "Developing Android REST client applications" (link here), he said a few things that took me by surprise. Including: Don't run http queries in threads spawned by your activities. Instead, communicate with a service to do them, and store the information in a ContentProvider. Use a ContentObserver to be notified of changes. Always perform long running tasks in a Service, never in your Activity. Stop your Service when you're done with it. I understand that he was talking about a REST API, but I'm trying to make it fit with some other ideas I've had for apps. One of APIs I've been using uses long-polling for their chat interface. There is a loop http queries, most of which will time out. This means that, as long as the app hasn't been killed by the OS, or the user hasn't specifically turned off the chat feature, I'll never be done with the Service, and it will stay open forever. This seems less than optimal. Long question short: For a chat application that uses long polling to simulate push and immediate response, is it still best practice to use a Service to perform the HTTP queries, and store the information in a ContentProvider?

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  • [PHP] MySql Proccesslist filled with "Sleep" Entries leading to "To many Connections" ?

    - by edorian
    Hi, i'd like to ask your help on a longstanding issue with php/mysql connections. Every time i execute a "SHOW PROCESSLIST" command it shows me about 400 idle (Status: Sleep) connections to the database Server emerging from our 5 Webservers. That never was much of a problem (and i didn't find a quick solution) until recently traffic numbers increased and since then MySql reports the "to many connections" Problems repeatedly, even so 350+ of those connections are in "sleep" state. Also a server can't get a mysql connection even if there are sleeping connection to that same server. All those connections vanish when a apache server is restated. The PHP Code used to create the Database connections uses the normal "mysql" Module, the "mysqli" Module, PEAR::DB and Zend Framework Db Adapter. (Different projects). NONE of the projects uses persistent connections. Raising the connection-limit is possible but doesn't seem like a good solution since it's 450 now and there are only 20-100 "real" connections at a time anyways. My question: Why are there so many connections in sleep state and how can i prevent that. Thank you for your time, if theres anything unclear or missing please let me know

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  • Unsure how to come up with a good design

    - by Mewzer
    Hello there, I am having trouble coming up with a good design for a group of classes and was hoping that someone could give me some guidance on best practices. I have kept the classes and member functions generic to make the problem simpler. Essentially, I have three classes (lets call them A, B, and C) as follows: class A { ... int GetX( void ) const { return x; }; int GetY( void ) const { return y; }; private: B b; // NOTE: A "has-a" B int x; int y; }; class B { ... void SetZ( int value ) { z = value }; private: int z; C c; // NOTE: B "has-a" C }; class C { private: ... void DoSomething(int x, int y){ ... }; void DoSomethingElse( int z ){ ... }; }; My problem is as follows: Class A uses its member variables "x" and "y" a lot internally. Class B uses its member variable "z" a lot internally. Class B needs to call C::DoSomething(), but C::DoSomething() needs the values of X and Y in class A passed in as arguments. C::DoSomethingElse() is called from say another class (e.g. D), but it needs to invoke SetZ() in class B!. As you can see, it is a bit of a mess as all the classes need information from one another!. Are there any design patterns I can use?. Any ideas would be much appreciated ....

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  • How to call shared_ptr<boost::signal> from a vector in a loop?

    - by BTR
    I've got a working callback system that uses boost::signal. I'm extending it into a more flexible and efficient callback manager which uses a vector of shared_ptr's to my signals. I've been able to successfully create and add callbacks to the list, but I'm unclear as to how to actually execute the signals. ... // Signal aliases typedef boost::signal<void (float *, int32_t)> Callback; typedef std::shared_ptr<Callback> CallbackRef; // The callback list std::vector<CallbackRef> mCallbacks; // Adds a callback to the list template<typename T> void addCallback(void (T::* callbackFunction)(float * data, int32_t size), T * callbackObject) { CallbackRef mCallback = CallbackRef(new Callback()); mCallback->connect(boost::function<void (float *, int32_t)>(boost::bind(callbackFunction, callbackObject, _1, _2))); mCallbacks.push_back(mCallback); } // Pass the float array and its size to the callbacks void execute(float * data, int32_t size) { // Iterate through the callback list for (vector<CallbackRef>::iterator i = mCallbacks.begin(); i != mCallbacks.end(); ++i) { // What do I do here? // (* i)(data, size); // <-- Dereferencing doesn't work } } ... All of this code works. I'm just not sure how to run the call from within a shared_ptr from with a vector. Any help would be neat-o. Thanks, in advance.

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  • What rules govern cross-version compatibility for .NET applications and the C# language?

    - by John Feminella
    For some reason I've always had trouble remembering the backwards/forwards compatibility guarantees made by the framework, so I'd like to put that to bed forever. Suppose I have two assemblies, A and B. A is older and references .NET 2.0 assemblies; B references .NET 3.5 assemblies. I have the source for A and B, Ax and Bx, respectively; they are written in C# at the 2.0 and 3.0 language levels. (That is, Ax uses no features that were introduced later than C# 2.0; likewise Bx uses no features that were introduced later than 3.0.) I have two environments, C and D. C has the .NET 2.0 framework installed; D has the .NET 3.5 framework installed. Now, which of the following can/can't I do? Running: run A on C? run A on D? run B on C? run C on D? Compiling: compile Ax on C? compile Ax on D? compile Bx on C? compile Bx on D? Rewriting: rewrite Ax to use features from the C# 3 language level, and compile it on D, while having it still work on C? rewrite Bx to use features from the C# 4 language level on another environment E that has .NET 4, while having it still work on D?' Referencing from another assembly: reference B from A and have a client app on C use it? reference B from A and have a client app on D use it? reference A from B and have a client app on C use it? reference A from B and have a client app on D use it? More importantly, what rules govern the truth or falsity of these hypothetical scenarios?

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  • boost::asio::io_service throws exception

    - by Ace
    Okay, I seriously cannot figure this out. I have a DLL project in MSVC that is attempting to use Asio (from Boost 1.45.0), but whenever I create my io_service, an exception is thrown. Here is what I am doing for testing purposes: void run() { boost::this_thread::sleep(boost::posix_time::seconds(5)); try { boost::asio::io_service io_service; } catch (std::exception & e) { MessageBox(NULL, e.what(), "Exception", MB_OK); } } BOOL WINAPI DllMain(HINSTANCE hinstDLL, DWORD fdwReason, LPVOID lpvReserved) { if (fdwReason == DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH) { boost::thread thread(run); } return TRUE; } This is what the message box shows: winsock: WSAStartup cannot function at this time because the underlying system it uses to provide network services is currently unavailable Here is what MSDN says about it (error code 10091, WSASYSNOTREADY): Network subsystem is unavailable. This error is returned by WSAStartup if the Windows Sockets implementation cannot function at because the underlying system it uses to provide network services is currently unavailable. Users should check: That the appropriate Windows Sockets DLL file is in the current path. That they are not trying to use more than one Windows Sockets implementation simultaneously. If there is more than one Winsock DLL on your system, be sure the first one in the path is appropriate for the network subsystem currently loaded. The Windows Sockets implementation documentation to be sure all necessary components are currently installed and configured correctly. Yet none of this seems to apply to me (or so I think). Here is my command line: /O2 /GL /D "_WIN32_WINNT=0x0501" /D "_WINDLL" /FD /EHsc /MD /Gy /Fo"Release\" /Fd"Release\vc90.pdb" /W3 /WX /nologo /c /TP /errorReport:prompt If anyone knows what might be wrong, please help me out! Thanks.

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  • Problem with configure script

    - by cube
    I am running into a problem with the ./configure script for ffmpeg. My linux environment uses busybox, which only allows for limited set of linux commands. One command which is used in the ffmpeg ./configure script is mktemp -u, the problem here is the busybox for linux does not recognize the -u switch as valid, so it complains about it and breaks the configure process. This is the relevant code in ./configure which uses the mktemp -u command: if ! check_cmd type mktemp; then # simple replacement for missing mktemp # NOT SAFE FOR GENERAL USE mktemp(){ echo "${2%XXX*}.${HOSTNAME}.${UID}.$$" } fi tmpfile(){ tmp=$(mktemp -u "${TMPDIR}/ffconf.XXXXXXXX")$2 && (set -C; exec > $tmp) 2>/dev/null || die "Unable to create temporary file in $TMPDIR." append TMPFILES $tmp eval $1=$tmp } I am not good with bash scripting at all, so I was wondering if anyone one had an idea on how I can force this configure script to not use mktemp -u and use the 'replacement' alternative option that is available in as per the snippet above. Thanks. btw... simply removing the -u switch does not work. Nor does replacing it with -t, or -p. I believe the mktemp has to be bypassed completely.

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  • Considering moving from Java/Spring MVC to Grails

    - by MDS
    I'm currently using Java & Spring (MVC) to create a webapp, and I'm considering moving to Grails. I'd appreciate feedback/insight on the following: I have multiple application contexts in the current Java/Spring webapp that I load through the web.xml ContextLoaderListener; is it possible to have multiple application contexts in Grails? If, yes, how? This webapp extensively uses a CXF restful web service and the current Java/Spring webapp uses the bundled CXF HTTP client. Can I continue to use the (Java) CXF HTTP Client in Grails? I implemented Spring Security using a custom implementation of UserDetails and UserDetailsService, can I re-use these implementations in Grails "as is" or must I re-implement them? There is an instance where I've relied on Spring's jdbc template (rather than the available ORM) and an additional data source I defined in app context, can I re-use this in Grails? I plan on using Maven as the project management tool; are there any issues of using Maven with Grails where there is a combination of groovy and java?

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  • .htaccess trickery multi-language website

    - by user1658741
    I have a website right now that uses two languages (french and english) The way it works right now is that if someone goes to mysite.com/folder/file.php for example, file.php is simply a script that figures out which language to use, get's it's own path and filename(file.php) and serves up mysite.com/en/folder/file.php (if the language is english). However what shows up in the URL is still mysite.com/folder/file.php. For any folder and any file the same script is used. If I want to add a new file I have to add the file to the folder the user types into the browser as well to the en and fr folders. Could I do some .htaccess trickery so that whatever URL is typed, one .php file gets open that checks the language and what folder/file was requested and then serves up the correct language file? here's the php file that is served up for any files in the URL. <?php // Get current document path which is mirrored in the language folders $docpath = $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; // Get current document name (Used when switching languages so that the same current page is shown when language is changed) $docname = GetDocName(); //call up lang.php which handles display of appropriate language webpage. //lang.php uses $docpath and $docname to give out the proper $langfile. //$docpath/$docname is mirrored in the /lang/en and /lang/fr folders $langfile = GetDocRoot()."/lang/lang.php"; include("$langfile"); //Call up the proper language file to display function GetDocRoot() { $temp = getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"); $localpath=realpath(basename(getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"))); $localpath=str_replace("\\","/",$localpath); $docroot=substr($localpath,0, strpos($localpath,$temp)); return $docroot; } function GetDocName() { $currentFile = $_SERVER["SCRIPT_NAME"]; $parts = Explode('/', $currentFile); $dn = $parts[count($parts) - 1]; return $dn; } ?>

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  • Move and rename file in android

    - by Andre Fróes
    I am trying to copy a file to another folder in the android, but so far, i got no success. I manage to do so with a selected image and when taking a photo, but not with files. I've read and tried several solutions passed by the community (searched over the forum and the internet), but none of it was able to solve my problem when copying. First things first. I added the permissions to my manifest: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.READ_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> after that, before copying a file, i print its filepath and the directory file path: 06-10 11:11:11.700: I/System.out(1442): /mimetype/storage/sdcard/Misc/Javascript erros for Submit and Plan buttons in IE.doc 06-10 11:11:11.710: I/System.out(1442): /storage/sdcard/mywfm/checklist-files both exists: to copy the file to the expected folder I used the FileUtils: try { FileUtils.copyFile(selectedFile, dir); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } The problem is: I get no exception and the file isn't there. I tried this solution either: How to move/rename file from internal app storage to external storage on Android? same thing, no exception, but no file either.

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  • How to document an existing small web site (web application), inside and out?

    - by Ricket
    We have a "web application" which has been developed over the past 7 months. The problem is, it was not really documented. The requirements consisted of a small bulleted list from the initial meeting 7 months ago (it's more of a "goals" statement than software requirements). It has collected a number of features which stemmed from small verbal or chat discussions. The developer is leaving very soon. He wrote the entire thing himself and he knows all of the quirks and underlying rules to each page, but nobody else really knows much more than the user interface side of it; which of course is the easy part, as it's made to be intuitive to the user. But if someone needs to repair or add a feature to it, the entire thing is a black box. The code has some minimal comments, and of course the good thing about web applications is that the address bar points you in the right direction towards fixing a problem or upgrading a page. But how should the developer go about documenting this web application? He is a bit lost as far as where to begin. As developers, how do you completely document your web applications for other developers, maintainers, and administrative-level users? What approach do you use, where do you start, do you have a template? An idea of magnitude: it uses PHP, MySQL and jQuery. It has about 20-30 main (frontend) files, along with about 15 included files and a couple folders of some assets. So overall it's a pretty small application. It interfaces with 7 MySQL tables, each one well-named, so I think the database end is pretty self-explanatory. There is a config.inc.php file with definitions of consts like the MySQL user details, some from/to emails, and URLs which PHP uses to insert into emails and pages (relative and absolute paths, basiecally). There is some AJAX via jQuery. Please comment if there is any other information that would help you help me and I will be glad to edit it in.

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  • The instruction at “0x7c910a19” referenced memory at “oxffffffff”. The memory could not be “read”

    - by ClareBear
    Hello guys/girls I have a small issue, I receive the following error before the .vbs terminates. I don't know why this error is thrown. Below is the process of the .vbs file: Call ImportTransactions() Call UpdateTransactions() Function ImportTransactions() Dim objConnection, objCommand, objRecordset, strOracle Dim strSQL, objRecordsetInsert Set objConnection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") objConnection.Open "DSN=*****;UID=*****;PWD==*****;" Set objCommand = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") Set objRecordset = CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") strOracle = "SELECT query here from Oracle database" objCommand.CommandText = strOracle objCommand.CommandType = 1 objCommand.CommandTimeout = 0 Set objCommand.ActiveConnection = objConnection objRecordset.cursorType = 0 objRecordset.cursorlocation = 3 objRecordset.Open objCommand, , 1, 3 If objRecordset.EOF = False Then Do Until objRecordset.EOF = True strSQL = "INSERT query here into SQL database" strSQL = Query(strSQL) Call RunSQL(strSQL, objRecordsetInsert, False, conTimeOut, conServer, conDatabase, conUsername, conPassword) objRecordset.MoveNext Loop End If objRecordset.Close() Set objRecordset = Nothing Set objRecordsetInsert = Nothing End Function Function UpdateTransactions() Dim strSQLUpdateVAT, strSQLUpdateCodes Dim objRecordsetVAT, objRecordsetUpdateCodes strSQLUpdateVAT = "UPDATE query here SET [value:costing output] = ([value:costing output] * -1)" Call RunSQL(strSQLUpdateVAT, objRecordsetVAT, False, conTimeOut, conServer, conDatabase, conUsername, conPassword) strSQLUpdateCodes = "UPDATE query here SET [value:costing output] = ([value:costing output] * -1) different WHERE clause" Call RunSQL(strSQLUpdateCodes, objRecordsetUpdateCodes, False, conTimeOut, conServer, conDatabase, conUsername, conPassword) Set objRecordsetVAT = Nothing Set objRecordsetUpdateCodes = Nothing End Function It does both the import and update and seems to throw this error after. If I comment out the ImportTransactions it doesnt throw a error, however I have produced similar code for another vbs file and this does not throw any errors Thanks in advance for any help, Clare

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