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• Problems running XNA game on 64-bit Windows 7

  - by Tesserex

  I'm having problems getting my game engine to run on my brother's machine, which is running 64-bit Windows 7. I'm developing on 32-bit XP SP2. My app uses XNA, FMOD.NET, and another dll I wrote entirely in C#. Everything is targeted to x86, not AnyCPU. I've read that this is required for XNA to work because there is no 64-bit xna framework. I recompiled FMOD.NET as x86 as well and made sure to be using the 32-bit version of the native dll. So I don't see any problems there. However when he tries to run my app, it gives an error which is mysterious, but not unheard of. A FileNotFoundException with an empty file name, and the top of the stack trace is in my main form constructor. The message is The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E) I found some threads online about this error, all with very vague, mixed, and fuzzy responses that don't really help me. Most remind people to target x86. Some say check that they have all the dlls necessary. I gave my brother Microsoft.Xna.Framework.dll, but does he need to install the entire XNA redistributable package? When I take everything I sent him and stick it in a random directory, it still runs fine for me. I developed the game in VS2008, not in game studio, using XNA 3.0 and a Windows Forms control that uses XNA drawing which I found in an msdn tutorial. I would also like to avoid requiring a full installer if possible. Any insight? Please?

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• Should tripwire be entering /proc?

  - by dsadinoff

  When initializing the db with tripwire --init it spat out a bunch of errors pertaining to /proc: ### Warning: File system error. ### Filename: /proc/16982/fd/4 ### No such file or directory ### Continuing... ### Warning: File system error. ### Filename: /proc/16982/fdinfo/4 ### No such file or directory ### Continuing... ### Warning: File system error. ### Filename: /proc/16982/task/16982/fd/4 ### No such file or directory ### Continuing... ### Warning: File system error. ### Filename: /proc/16982/task/16982/fdinfo/4 ### No such file or directory ### Continuing... ### Warning: Duplicate object encountered. ### /proc/sys/net/ipv6/neigh This feels like noise. The twpol.txt file has the following clause: # # Critical devices # ( rulename = "Devices & Kernel information", severity = $(SIG_HI), ) { /dev -> $(Device) ; /proc -> $(Device) ; } Which, if I understand it right, is going to cause tripwire to care deeply about the entire contents of /proc. Shouldn't it just care about the static parts of /proc like the drivers and such, and not the per-pid stuff? Why does it ship like this?

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• Reverse search in Hibernate Search

  - by Javi

  Hello, I'm using Hibernate Search (which uses Lucene) for searching some Data I have indexed in a directory. It works fine but I need to do a reverse search. By reverse search I mean that I have a list of queries stored in my database I need to check which one of these queries match with a Data object each time Data Object is created. I need it to alert the user when a Data Object matches with a Query he has created. So I need to index this single Data Object which has just been created and see which queries of my list has this object as a result. I've seen Lucene MemoryIndex Class to create an index in memory so I can do something like this example for every query in a list (though iterating in a Java list of queries would not be very efficient): //Iterating over my list<Query> MemoryIndex index = new MemoryIndex(); //Add all fields index.addField("myField", "myFieldData", analyzer); ... QueryParser parser = new QueryParser("myField", analyzer); float score = index.search(query); if (score > 0.0f) { System.out.println("it's a match"); } else { System.out.println("no match found"); } The problem here is that this Data Class has several Hibernate Search Annotations @Field,@IndexedEmbedded,... which indicated how fields should be indexed, so when I invoke index() method on the FullTextEntityManager instance it uses this information to index the object in the directory. Is there a similar way to index it in memory using this information? Is there a more efficient way of doing this reverse search? Thanks

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• Trouble with Unions in C program.

  - by Jordan S

  I am working on a C program that uses a Union. The union definition is in FILE_A header file and looks like this... // FILE_A.h**************************************************** xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; If I set the value of CurrentPosition.position in FILE_A.c and then call a function in FILE_B.c that uses the union, the data in the union is back to Zero. This is demonstrated below. // FILE_A.c**************************************************** int main.c(void) { CurrentPosition.position = 12345; SomeFunctionInFileB(); } // FILE_B.c**************************************************** void SomeFunctionInFileB(void) { // After the following lines execute I see all zeros in the flash memory. WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[0]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[1]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[2]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[3]; } Now, If I pass a long to SomeFunctionInFileB(long temp) and then store it into CurrentPosition.bytes within that function, and finally call WriteBytesToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[n]... it works just fine. It appears as though the CurrentPosition Union is not global. So I tried changing the union definition in the header file to include the extern keyword like this... extern xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; and then putting this in the source (.c) file... xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; but this causes a compile error that says: C:\SiLabs\Optec Programs\AgosRot\MotionControl.c:76: error 91: extern definition for 'CurrentPosition' mismatches with declaration. C:\SiLabs\Optec Programs\AgosRot\/MotionControl.h:48: error 177: previously defined here So what am I doing wrong? How do I make the union global?

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• Upstart can't determine my process' pid

  - by sirlark

  I'm writing an upstart script for a small service I've written for my colleagues. My upstart job can start the service, but when it does it only outputs queryqueue start/running; note the lack of a pid as given for other services. #/etc/init/queryqueue.conf description "Query Queue Daemon" author "---" start on started mysql stop on stopping mysql expect fork env DEFAULTFILE=/etc/default/queryqueue umask 007 kill timeout 30 pre-start script #if [ -f "$DEFAULTFILE" ]; then # . "$DEFAULTFILE" #fi [ ! -f /var/run/queryqueue.sock ] || rm -rf /var/run/queryqueue.sock #exec /usr/local/sbin/queryqueue -s /var/run/queryqueue.sock -d -l /tmp/upstart.log -p $PIDFILE -n $NUM_WORKERS $CLEANCACHE $FLUSHCACHE $CACHECONN end script script #Originally this stanza didn't exist at all if [ -f "$DEFAULTFILE" ]; then . "$DEFAULTFILE" fi exec /usr/local/sbin/queryqueue -s /var/run/queryqueue.sock -d -l /tmp/upstart.log -p $PIDFILE -n $NUM_WORKERS $CLEANCACHE $FLUSHCACHE $CACHECONN end script post-start script for i in `seq 1 5` ; do [ -S /var/run/queryqueue.sock ] && exit 0 sleep 1 done exit 1 end script The service in question is a python script, which when run without error, forks using the code below right after checking command line options and basic environmental sanity, so I tell upstart to expect fork. pid = os.fork() if pid != 0: sys.exit(0) The script is executable, and has a python shebang. I can send the TERM signal to the process manually, and it quits gracefully. But running stop queryqueue claims queryqueue stop/waiting but the process is still alive and well. Also, it's logs indicate it never received the kill signal. I'm guessing this is because upstart doesn't know which pid it has. I've also tried expect daemon and leaving the expect clause out entirely, but there's no change in behaviour. How can I get upstart to determine the pid of the exec'd process

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• Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

  - by Mike Spross

  I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

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• Why would I use Assembly.LoadFile in lieu of Assembly.LoadFrom?

  - by Cheeso

  It's my impression that Assembly.LoadFrom uses the ApplicationBase and PrivateBinPath. It also my impression that Assembly.LoadFile does not. Why would anyone want to use LoadFile? In other words, if my understanding is correct, why would anyone want to NOT use the ApplicationBase and PrivateBinPath? I'm working with some existing code, which uses LoadFile, and I don't understand why it would do so. LoadFile apparently does not load dependencies from the same directory. The LoadFrom method does load dependencies (From the doc: The load-from context...allows dependencies on that path to be found and loaded because the path information is maintained by the context.) I'd like to convert it from using LoadFile, to use LoadFrom. What is likely to break, if anything, if I replace LoadFile with LoadFrom? Even if it iss benign, it may be that I cannot do the replacement, just based on project schedules. If I cannot replace LoadFile with LoadFrom, is there a way to convince assemblies loaded with LoadFile to load dependencies? Is there a packaging trick I can use (embedded assembly, ILMerge, an AssemblyResolve event, something like that) that can allow an assembly loaded with LoadFile to also load its dependencies?

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• vectorizing loops in Matlab - performance issues

  - by Gacek

  This question is related to these two: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2867901/introduction-to-vectorizing-in-matlab-any-good-tutorials http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2561617/filter-that-uses-elements-from-two-arrays-at-the-same-time Basing on the tutorials I read, I was trying to vectorize some procedure that takes really a lot of time. I've rewritten this: function B = bfltGray(A,w,sigma_r) dim = size(A); B = zeros(dim); for i = 1:dim(1) for j = 1:dim(2) % Extract local region. iMin = max(i-w,1); iMax = min(i+w,dim(1)); jMin = max(j-w,1); jMax = min(j+w,dim(2)); I = A(iMin:iMax,jMin:jMax); % Compute Gaussian intensity weights. F = exp(-0.5*(abs(I-A(i,j))/sigma_r).^2); B(i,j) = sum(F(:).*I(:))/sum(F(:)); end end into this: function B = rngVect(A, w, sigma) W = 2*w+1; I = padarray(A, [w,w],'symmetric'); I = im2col(I, [W,W]); H = exp(-0.5*(abs(I-repmat(A(:)', size(I,1),1))/sigma).^2); B = reshape(sum(H.*I,1)./sum(H,1), size(A, 1), []); But this version seems to be as slow as the first one, but in addition it uses a lot of memory and sometimes causes memory problems. I suppose I've made something wrong. Probably some logic mistake regarding vectorizing. Well, in fact I'm not surprised - this method creates really big matrices and probably the computations are proportionally longer. I have also tried to write it using nlfilter (similar to the second solution given by Jonas) but it seems to be hard since I use Matlab 6.5 (R13) (there are no sophisticated function handles available). So once again, I'm asking not for ready solution, but for some ideas that would help me to solve this in reasonable time. Maybe you will point me what I did wrong.

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• App no longer working - any ideas

  - by hamishmcn

  I am out of ideas as to why my app has suddenly stopped working - perhaps the collective mind of the SO community can help... Background: I have a large application that has been working up until recently. Now when ever I try and run it I get the error "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000005)" This happens before the app gets to _tmain(). It happens in both release and debug builds. I have tried cleaning and rebuilding the projects and rebooted my PC. The call stack just shows entries for kernel32.dll and ntdll.dll The output window shows: First-chance exception at 0x00532c13 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xabababdb. First-chance exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Unhandled exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Any ideas? Edit: Okay - found the problem - it was dll related my app uses shared dlls a.dll and b.dll (and others) a.dll hardly every changes (and uses b.dll) b.dll was changed by another developer this morning and a.dll was not rebuilt. Depends.exe did not show any missing dlls, however a.dll no longer works because of the change to b.dll

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• JavaScript alert not working in Android WebView

  - by user655192

  In my application I am using WebView and in that I am using JavaScript alert( ) method but its not working, no pop-up appears. in my manifest file I have added <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> and in activity file I have added mWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview); mWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mWebView.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/demo.html"); In layout xml file I have added <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> Any clue how to enable full JavaScript in WebView. Update Thanks mark the alert() method in the html file are working now :) . Now there are two issues in WebView : 1: I am using a in the html file that i am loading in WebView , and trying to write in Hindi language font in it, but when i try to write Hindi text it displays as symbols ( rectangle symbols like [] ) . when i do the same in firefox browser on desktop it works fine. any clue how to give support for multiple language in textarea in WebView ? 2: When I am clicking submit and trying to open the value of text in alert() method in another java script it doesn't work , does it mean even after using WebChromeClient its applicable only for current loaded html page and not java scripts called from that page ?

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• Using SetParent to steal the main window of another process but keeping the message loops separate

  - by insta

  Background: My coworker and I are maintaining a million-line legacy application we inherited. Its frontend is written in VB6, and as we're devoting almost all of our resources to converting it to C#, we are looking for quick & dirty solutions to our specific problem. The application behaves in a plugin-ish manner. There are up to 20ish separate ActiveX controls that can be loaded at once in a grid-style layout. The problem is that the ActiveX controls do all of their processing on their own UI thread, and as a lot of it is blocking waiting on network access, the UI gets very soupy. When our hosting C# app loads these controls, it becomes unresponsive because of how many controls are chewing up UI resources doing nothing. To top it off, the controls are fragile and will crash at the slightest provocation. When they are hosted in the main C# app, it creates serious instability. The best my coworker and I have come up with so far is starting a process per ActiveX control. This process, which we call the proxy, is another winforms app. It uses named pipes to communicate with the hosting process. The hosting process creates a window, loads an ActiveX control of our choice (via some reflections & AxHost magic), and tells the main process what its window handle is via the named pipe. The main process uses a combination of SetParent, and SetWindowPos to move the proxy application into itself to emulate a plugin. Size updates are sent via the named pipe. This works well enough until the ActiveX application does some sort of lengthy process and we click around on the main window while it's working. For awhile the main window is responsive, but eventually it becomes unresponsive as the child window waits for its UI thread. How can we keep the child windows on their own complete thread while still getting the benefits of SetParent? (please let me know if anything isn't clear!)

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• asyncore callbacks launching threads... ok to do?

  - by sbartell

  I'm unfamiliar with asyncore, and have very limited knowledge of asynchronous programming except for a few intro to twisted tutorials. I am most familiar with threads and use them in all my apps. One particular app uses a couchdb database as its interface. This involves longpolling the db looking for changes and updates. The module I use for couchdb is couchdbkit. It uses an asyncore loop to watch for these changes and send them to a callback. So, I figure from this callback is where I launch my worker threads. It seems a bit crude to mix asynchronous and threaded programming. I really like couchdbkit, but would rather not introduce issues into my program. So, my question is, is it safe to fire threads from an async callback? Here's some code... {{{ def dispatch(change): global jobs, db_url # jobs is my queue db = Database(db_url) work_order = db.get(change['id']) # change is an id to the document that changed. # i need to get the actual document (workorder) worker = Worker(work_order, db) # fire the thread jobs.append[worker] worker.start() return main() . . . consumer.wait(cb=dispatch, since=update_seq, timeout=10000) #wait constains the asyncloop. }}}

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• WCF service reference namespace differs from original

  - by Thorarin

  I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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• Seperation of business logic

  - by bruno

  Dear all, When I was optimizing my architecture of our applications in our website, I came to a problem that I don't know the best solution for. Now at the moment we have a small dll based on this structure: Database <-> DAL <-> BLL the Dal uses Business Objects to pass to the BLL that will pass it to the applications that uses this dll. Only the BLL is public so any application that includes this dll, can see the bll. In the beginning, this was a good solution for our company. But when we are adding more and more applications on that Dll, the bigger the Bll is getting. Now we dont want that some applications can see Bll-logic from other applications. Now I don't know what the best solution is for that. The first thing I thought was, move and seperate the bll to other dll's which i can include in my application. But then must the Dal be public, so the other dll's can get the data... and that I seems like a good solution. My other soluition, is just to seperate the bll in different namespaces, and just include only the namespaces you need in the applications. But in this solution, you can get directly access to other bll's if you want. So i'm asking for your oppinions. Thx, Bruno

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• Getting auth token for dropbox account from accountmanager in android

  - by user1490880

  I am trying to get auth token for a dropbox account configured in device from account manager. I am using accountManager.getAuthToken(account, "DROPBOX",null,Hello.this, new GetAuthTokenCallback(), null);//account" is dropbox account I am seeing a Allow/Deny page. I click on Allow, but the callback is not getting invoked at all and i dont get the auth token. I got the authtoken for a google account with this(with a different authtokentype). What i am missing. I am not sure about the authTokenType parameter for dropbox. Also are there any other parameter specific for dropbox like the bundle parameter that i am missing. Is this way possible for dropbox? Check below for the function parameters public AccountManagerFuture<Bundle> getAuthToken (Account account, String authTokenType, Bundle options, Activity activity, AccountManagerCallback<Bundle> callback, Handler handler) Link: http://developer.android.com/reference/android/accounts/AccountManager.html UPDATE I assume since we are able to create a dropbox account in android Accounts and Sync(Settings), there must be a dropbox authenticator that has all the functions in AbstractAccountAuthenticator implemented including getAuthToken(). So dropbox should support giving auth token i think. Also dropbox uses oauth1, whereas account manager uses outh 2.0. So is this an issue.Can anyone comment on this?

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• Return unordered list from hierarchical sql data

  - by Milan

  I have table with pageId, parentPageId, title columns. Is there a way to return unordered nested list using asp.net, cte, stored procedure, UDF... anything? Table looks like this: PageID ParentId Title 1 null Home 2 null Products 3 null Services 4 2 Category 1 5 2 Category 2 6 5 Subcategory 1 7 5 SubCategory 2 8 6 Third Level Category 1 ... Result should look like this: Home Products Category 1 SubCategory 1 Third Level Category 1 SubCategory 2 Category 2 Services Ideally, list should contain <a> tags as well, but I hope I can add it myself if I find a way to create <ul> list. EDIT 1: I thought that already there is a solution for this, but it seems that there isn't. I wanted to keep it simple as possible and to escape using ASP.NET menu at any cost, because it uses tables by default. Then I have to use CSS Adapters etc. Even if I decide to go down the "ASP.NET menu" route I was able to find only this approach: http://aspalliance.com/822 which uses DataAdapter and DataSet :( Any more modern or efficient way?

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• maven assemblies. Putting each dependency with transitive dependencies in own directory?

  - by jr

  I have a maven project which consists of a few modules. This is to be deployed on a client machine and will involve installing Tomcat and will make use of NSIS for installer. There is a separate application which monitors tomcat and can restart it, perform updates, etc. So, I have the modules setup as follows: project +-- client (all code, handlers, for the war) +-- client-common - (shared code, shared between monitor and client) +-- client-web - (the war, basically just uses war has applicationcontext, web.xml,etc) +-- monitor - (the monitor application jar. Uses wrapper to run) So, I need to create an installer. I was planning on creating another module which would be the installer. This is where I would have tomcat directory and I'd like maven to "assemble" everything and then run NSIS so I can create the final installer. However, I need to have the monitor jar file in a directory and then have all monitors dependencies in a lib/ directory. The final directory structure should be: project-installer-directory/monitor/monitor-version.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-1.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-2.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-3.jar project-installer-directory/webapps/client-web.war Where in the client-web\WEB-INF\lib directory we will have all client-web's dependencies after it is exploded. That works, I have the .war file. What I am having problems with is getting the monitor module dependencies independent of the dependencies of the client-web module. I tried to just create the installer module and make the monitor and client-web dependencies, but when I use dependencies-copy it gives me everything. Not what I want. I'm leaning towards creating a new module called monitor-assembly or something to give me a zip file which contains the directory format I need, but that is yet another module. Can someone please help me with the correct way to accomplish this? thanks!

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• Double Slash at end of URL when going to HTTPS?

  - by J M 4

  My site currently uses http and https sections based on the data being collected on the site (form data uses https). On my index page, I have the PHP code at the top: <?php session_start(); ob_start(); if( $_SERVER['SERVER_PORT'] == 443) { header('Location:http://'.$_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'].dirname($_SERVER['PHP_SELF'])); die(); } ?> However, the page will not load and I get a 404 error. Similarly, when i visit the sections with https security using the head code: <?php session_start(); ob_start(); if( $_SERVER['SERVER_PORT'] == 80) { header('Location:https://'.$_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'].dirname($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']).'/'.basename($_SERVER['PHP_SELF'])); die(); } ?> The site does not respond AND for some reason creates a double slash when switching from http to https. Example: http://www.abc.com/, then clicking button which should route to enroll.php shows http://www.abc.com//enroll.php why the need for the double slash and can anybody help with the 404 errors?

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• How can click on a java show link programatically?

  - by Jules

  I'm trying to develop a new feature for our vb.net order entry system. At the moment I provide an assisted paypal login which loops through transactions and copies the transactions. My program then looks at this data and copies it into text boxes. The operator then approves and saves the record. So my code uses IHTMLFormElement and loops round form elements and adds values. However I only really use this to log in to paypal. See my code... Dim theObject As Object = Nothing theObject = "https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_login-run" WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.Navigate2(theObject) While WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.ReadyState <> tagREADYSTATE.READYSTATE_COMPLETE Application.DoEvents() End While Dim HtmlDoc As IHTMLDocument2 = CType(WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.Document, IHTMLDocument2) Dim FormCol As IHTMLElementCollection = HtmlDoc.forms Dim iForms As Integer = FormCol.length Dim i As Integer Dim x As Integer For i = 0 To iForms - 1 Dim oForm As IHTMLFormElement = CType(FormCol.item(CType(i, Object), CType(i, Object)), IHTMLFormElement) For x = 0 To oForm.length - 1 If oForm.elements(x).tagname = "INPUT" Then If oForm.elements(x).name = "login_email" Then oForm.elements(x).value = "[email protected]" End If If oForm.elements(x).name = "login_password" Then oForm.elements(x).value = "mypassword" End If If oForm.elements(x).type = "submit" Or _ oForm.elements(x).type = "SUBMIT" Then oForm.elements(x).click() End If End If Next Next i I'm now trying this page https://www.paypal.com/uk/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_history&nav=0.3.0 Which is the history page, which allows you to search on the paypal transaction id. Unfortunately you need to click on 'find a transaction' which then uses some javascript to shows the post fields. So the problem is that the fields I need to use are hidden. How can I click on this java link in code ?

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• Pairs from single list

  - by Apalala

  Often enough, I've found the need to process a list by pairs. I was wondering which would be the pythonic and efficient way to do it, and found this on Google: pairs = zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) I thought that was pythonic enough, but after a recent discussion involving idioms versus efficiency, I decided to do some tests: import time from itertools import islice, izip def pairs_1(t): return zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_2(t): return izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_3(t): return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) A = range(10000) B = xrange(len(A)) def pairs_4(t): # ignore value of t! t = B return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) for f in pairs_1, pairs_2, pairs_3, pairs_4: # time the pairing s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) t1 = time.time() - s # time using the pairs s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) for a, b in p: pass t2 = time.time() - s print t1, t2, t2-t1 These were the results on my computer: 1.48668909073 2.63187503815 1.14518594742 0.105381965637 1.35109519958 1.24571323395 0.00257992744446 1.46182489395 1.45924496651 0.00251388549805 1.70076990128 1.69825601578 If I'm interpreting them correctly, that should mean that the implementation of lists, list indexing, and list slicing in Python is very efficient. It's a result both comforting and unexpected. Is there another, "better" way of traversing a list in pairs? Note that if the list has an odd number of elements then the last one will not be in any of the pairs. Which would be the right way to ensure that all elements are included? I added these two suggestions from the answers to the tests: def pairwise(t): it = iter(t) return izip(it, it) def chunkwise(t, size=2): it = iter(t) return izip(*[it]*size) These are the results: 0.00159502029419 1.25745987892 1.25586485863 0.00222492218018 1.23795199394 1.23572707176 Results so far Most pythonic and very efficient: pairs = izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) Most efficient and very pythonic: pairs = izip(*[iter(t)]*2) It took me a moment to grok that the first answer uses two iterators while the second uses a single one. To deal with sequences with an odd number of elements, the suggestion has been to augment the original sequence adding one element (None) that gets paired with the previous last element, something that can be achieved with itertools.izip_longest().

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• jQuery Accordion + Anchor Tag 'stuck as block' bug?

  - by DA

  Sample page: http://jsbin.com/ohuze/2 This is a simple jQuery UI Accordion. Each accordion panel has an UL (an OL works the same) with this markup: <ol> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> </ol> In IE6, you'll see that the <a> tag appears to be getting rendered as a block element, so the question mark ends up being pushed outside and not at the end of the line of text. In addition, the bullet and/or list item number is now bottom-aligned with the text rather than top-aligned. I've narrowed it down to the javascript that executes to make the accordion. It's not an issue with jQuery's CSS as disabling that, alone, doesn't resolve the issue. Anyone know what might be going on in IE6 to cause this rendering issue? UPDATE: Apparently, this is also an IE7 issue. UPDATE 2: After some more playing, I've narrowed things down a bit more: the bug has nothing to do with lists. The issue is any anchor tag within a jQuery Accordion will appear as display: block (even though it appears that the CSS still indicates display: inline) the bug has nothing to do with the actual CSS that jQuery UI uses to create the accordion. I created a test page that uses the fully rendered jQuery Accordion post-processed source code and the accompanying CSS. In that situation, the anchor tags remain inline. In conclusion: It appears that the process of rendering the accordion via javascript is messing up the display of the anchor tags. It may be a show/hide issue?

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• Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

  - by routeNpingme

  Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

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• Consolidate multiple site files into single location

  - by seengee

  We have a custom PHP/MySQL CMS running on Linux/Apache thats rolled out to multiple sites (20+) on the same server. Each site uses exactly the same CMS files with a few files for each site being customised. The customised files for each site are: /library/mysql_connect.php /public_html/css/* /public_html/ftparea/* /public_html/images/* There's also a couple of other random files inside /public_html/includes/ that are unique to each site. Other than this each site on the server uses the exact same files. Each site sitting within /home/username/. There is obviously a massive amount of replication here as each time we want to deploy a system update we need to update to each user account. Given the common site files are all stored in SVN it would make far more sense if we were able to simply commit to SVN and deploy to a single location direct from there. Unfortunately, making a major architecture change at this stage could be problematic. In my mind the ideal scenario would mean creating an account like /home/commonfiles/ and each site using these common files unless an account specific file exists, for example a request is made to /home/user/public_html/index.php but as this file doesnt exist the request is then redirected to /home/commonfiles/public_html/index.php. I know that generally this approach is possible, similar to how Zend Framework (and probably others) redirect all requests that dont match a specific file to index.php. I'm just not sure about how exactly to go about implementing it and whether its actually advisable. Would really welcome any input/ideas people have got. Thanks.

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• Perfectly reproducable select statement default ordering issue....

  - by Dave

  Hi, I've recently been chasing an issue with a client's db... solution found, but impossible to recreate. Essentially, we're doing a Select * from mytable where ArbitraryColumn = 75 Where MyTable has an Identity column, called 'MyIndentityColumn' - incremented by one in each insert. Naturally, and normally I would assume that the order returned would be the order in which they are inserted (bad assumption, but one which was forced onto me, through an inherited application - which has been patched). Essentially, I would like suggestions as to why the database, when restored to my local machine (same OS, same SQL server version - 200 sp3) same collation, and same backup instance restored on it, as a test DB on the client site. When I perform the above select, I get them in order of insert (i.e. identity column ordered ascending). On the client, it seems random (but the same 'random' order each time)... A few other points: I have the same collation on my test server as client Same DB backup restored to a test only I can access Same SQL server version and service pack Same OS Test DB is a new DB - new log and MDF... I have the problem 'solved' by adding an explicit order by clause but I want to undertand the cause of the issue, given the exact nature of my attempts to recreate it beuing futile, and perfectly recreatable on the client server... Thanks in advance, Dave

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• Did I implement clock drift properly?

  - by David Titarenco

  I couldn't find any clock drift RNG code for Windows anywhere so I attempted to implement it myself. I haven't run the numbers through ent or DIEHARD yet, and I'm just wondering if this is even remotely correct... void QueryRDTSC(__int64* tick) { __asm { xor eax, eax cpuid rdtsc mov edi, dword ptr tick mov dword ptr [edi], eax mov dword ptr [edi+4], edx } } __int64 clockDriftRNG() { __int64 CPU_start, CPU_end, OS_start, OS_end; // get CPU ticks -- uses RDTSC on the Processor QueryRDTSC(&CPU_start); Sleep(1); QueryRDTSC(&CPU_end); // get OS ticks -- uses the Motherboard clock QueryPerformanceCounter((LARGE_INTEGER*)&OS_start); Sleep(1); QueryPerformanceCounter((LARGE_INTEGER*)&OS_end); // CPU clock is ~1000x faster than mobo clock // return raw return ((CPU_end - CPU_start)/(OS_end - OS_start)); // or // return a random number from 0 to 9 // return ((CPU_end - CPU_start)/(OS_end - OS_start)%10); } If you're wondering why I Sleep(1), it's because if I don't, OS_end - OS_start returns 0 consistently (because of the bad timer resolution, I presume). Basically, (CPU_end - CPU_start)/(OS_end - OS_start) always returns around 1000 with a slight variation based on the entropy of CPU load, maybe temperature, quartz crystal vibration imperfections, etc. Anyway, the numbers have a pretty decent distribution, but this could be totally wrong. I have no idea.

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