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• Global hotkey capture in VB.net

  - by ggonsalv

  I want to have my app which is minimized to capture data selected in another app's window when the hot key is pressed. My app definitely doesn't have the focus. Additionally when the hot key is pressed I want to present a fading popup (Outlook style) so my app never gets focus. At a minimum I want to capture the Window name, Process ID and the selected data. The app which has focus is not my application? I know one option is to sniff the Clipboard, but are there any other solutions. This is to audit the rate of data-entry in to another system of which I have no control. It is a mainframe emulation client program(attachmate). The plan is complete data entry in Application X. Select a certain section of the screen in App X which is proof of data entry (transaction ID). Press the Magic Hotkey, which then 'sends' the selection to my App. From System.environment or system.Threading I can find the Windows logon. Similiarly I can also capture the time. All the data will be logged to SQL. Once Complete show Outlook style pop up saying the data entry has been logged. Any thoughts.

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• Dropping not working on Chrome Mac version

  - by user600641

  I tried to work with html5 drag&drop api, and it works very well on my chrome 20.0.1132 on windows machine, but most fun - that the same version of chrome on mac os lion is not working. I mean dragstart is working, but drop event, dragleave, dragover is not fired. Here is html: <form id="fake_form" action="#" > <div id="canvas_wrapper" style="overflow: hidden;width: 600px; position: relative;border: 1px solid black; margin-left: 30px;"> <canvas width="600" height="300" > </canvas> </div> </form> Here is javascript: var canvas = $('canvas')[0]; canvas.addEventListener('dragenter', function(e){ console.log('dragenter'); }, false); canvas.addEventListener('dragleave', function(){ console.log('dragleave'); }, false) canvas.addEventListener('dragover', function(e){ console.log('dragover'); if(e.preventDefault){ e.preventDefault(); } return false; }, false); canvas.ondrop = function(e){ console.log('ondrop'); /** OTHER CODE **/ If it helps: on safari on the same mac - it works, i`m dragging image tags some of them have draggable attribute, some of them - not. Just checked - on canary mac version 22 it works. UPDATE: i figured out that there is some magic with dragstart event, if i delete line with this e.dataTransfer.setData('src', src_var) everythings become working

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• jQuery > Update inline script on form submission

  - by Andrew Kirk

  I am using the ChemDoodle Web Components to display molecules on a web page. Basically, I can just insert the following script in my page and it will create an HTML5 canvas element to display the molecule. <script> var transform1 = new TransformCanvas('transform1', 200, 200, true); transform1.specs.bonds_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.bonds_width_2D = 3; transform1.specs.atoms_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.atoms_circles_2D = true; transform1.specs.backgroundColor = 'black'; transform1.specs.bonds_clearOverlaps_2D = true; transform1.loadMolecule(readPDB(molecule)); </script> In this example, "molecule" is a variable that I have defined in an external script by using the jQuery.ajax() function to load a PDB file. This is all fine and good. Now, I would like to include a form on the page that will allow a user to paste in a PDB molecule definition. Upon submitting the form, I want to update the "molecule" variable with the form data so that the ChemDoodle Web Components script will work its magic and display molecule defined by the PDB definition pasted into the form. I am using the following jQuery code to process the the form submission. $(".button").click(function() { // validate and process form here //hide previous errors $('.error').hide(); //validate pdb textarea field var pdb = $("textarea#pdb").val(); if (pdb == "") { $("label#pdb_error").show(); $("textarea#pdb").focus(); return false; } molecule = pdb; }); This code is setting the "molecule" variable upon the form submission but it is not being passed back to the inline script as I had hoped. I have tried a number of variations on this but can't seem to get it right. Any clues as to where I might be going wrong would be much appreciated.

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• Xcode "Build and Archive" from command line

  - by Dan Fabulich

  Xcode 3.2 provides an awesome new feature under the Build menu, "Build and Archive" which generates an .ipa file suitable for Ad Hoc distribution. You can also open the Organizer, go to "Archived Applications," and "Submit Application to iTunesConnect." Is there a way to use "Build and Archive" from the command line (as part of a build script)? I'd assume that xcodebuild would be involved somehow, but the man page doesn't seem to say anything about this. UPDATE Michael Grinich requested clarification; here's what exactly you can't do with command-line builds, features you can ONLY do with Xcode's Organizer after you "Build and Archive." You can click "Share Application..." to share your IPA with beta testers. As Guillaume points out below, due to some Xcode magic, this IPA file does not require a separately distributed .mobileprovision file that beta testers need to install; that's magical. No command-line script can do it. For example, Arrix's script (submitted May 1) does not meet that requirement. More importantly, after you've beta tested a build, you can click "Submit Application to iTunes Connect" to submit that EXACT same build to Apple, the very binary you tested, without rebuilding it. That's impossible from the command line, because signing the app is part of the build process; you can sign bits for Ad Hoc beta testing OR you can sign them for submission to the App Store, but not both. No IPA built on the command-line can be beta tested on phones and then submitted directly to Apple. I'd love for someone to come along and prove me wrong: both of these features work great in the Xcode GUI and cannot be replicated from the command line.

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• binding a command inside a listbox item to a property on the viewmodel parent

  - by gideon

  I've been working on this for about an hour and looked at all related SO questions. My problem is very simple: I have HomePageVieModel: HomePageVieModel +IList<NewsItem> AllNewsItems +ICommand OpenNews My markup: <Window DataContext="{Binding HomePageViewModel../> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=AllNewsItems}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNews}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=NewsContent}" /> </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> The list shows fine with all the items, but for the life of me whatever I try for the Command won't work: <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel, AncestorLevel=1}}"> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel,**Mode=FindAncestor}**}"> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel,**Mode=TemplatedParent}**}"> I just always get : System.Windows.Data Error: 4 : Cannot find source for binding with reference ..... Update I am setting my ViewModel like this? Didn't think this would matter: <Window.DataContext> <Binding Path="HomePage" Source="{StaticResource Locator}"/> </Window.DataContext> I use the ViewModelLocator class from the MVVMLight toolkit which does the magic.

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• Is the REST support in Spring 3's MVC Framework production quality yet?

  - by glenjohnson

  Hi all, Since Spring 3 was released in December last year, I have been trying out the new REST features in the MVC framework for a small commercial project involving implementing a few RESTful Web Services which consume XML and return XML views using JiBX. I plan to use either Hibernate or JDBC Templates for the data persistence. As a Spring 2.0 developer, I have found Spring 3's (and 2.5's) new annotations way of doing things quite a paradigm shift and have personally found some of the new MVC annotation features difficult to get up to speed with for non-trivial applications - as such, I am often having to dig for information in forums and blogs that is not apparent from going through the reference guide or from the various Spring 3 REST examples on the web. For deadline-driven production quality and mission critical applications implementing a RESTful architecture, should I be holding off from Spring 3 and rather be using mature JSR 311 (JAX-RS) compliant frameworks like RESTlet or Jersey for the REST layer of my code (together with Spring 2 / 2.5 to tie things together)? I had no problems using RESTlet 1.x in a previous project and it was quite easy to get up to speed with (no magic tricks behind the scenes), but when starting my current project it initially looked like the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework would make life easier. Do any of you out there have any advice to give on this? Does anyone know of any commercial / production-quality projects using, or having successfully delivered with, the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework. Many thanks Glen

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• Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

  - by Alex R

  A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

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• Binding value for NSTableView, but tooltip gets set as well

  - by Mark

  I've set up an NSTableView in Interface Builder to be populated from an NSArray. Each value of the array represents one row in the table. The value is bound correctly, but as a side effect, the table cell's tooltip is set to the string representation of the bound object. In my case, the NSArray contains NSDictiorany objects and the tooltip looks like it could be the [... description] output of that dictionary. Very ugly... I don't want the tooltip to be set at all. I have other tables that have plain NSString values bound to them and they don't have a tooltip set automatically. Is there some Interface Builder magic going on? I tried to start with a blank project - same problem. I should add that the table cell is a custom implementation of NSTextFieldCell that uses an NSButtonCell instance to draw an image and a label into the table. The values are retrieved from the dictionary bound as value. Why is the tooltip set when I only bind the "value" attribute? Thanks in advance!

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• change the who of google calendar event with gdata framework

  - by bouth69

  $gdataCal= new Zend_gdata_calendar($client); //on retrouve l'event a partir de eventURL stocké lors de la création $event = $gdataCal->getCalendarEventEntry($id_event); $who= $gdataCal->newWho();// $who objet de type Zend_Gdata_Extension_Who //les nouvelles valeurs du who $email ="cn21lqqt8jeb9qgulpra6bj948%40group.calendar.google.com"; $rel = 'http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#event.organizer' ; $valueString ='alain developpeur'; $who->setEmail($email); $who->setRel($rel); $who->setValueString($valueString); //$who->setDom($who_old[0]->getDOM());//bizarre mais??? //méthode magic ou setteurs //$event->who= array($who); $event->setWho($who); //on affiche les propriétés du nouveau who pour voir les changements echo'<br >lemail est : '.$who->getEmail(); echo'<br >la value string est : '.$who->getValueString(); echo'<br >la rel est : '.$who->getRel(); //on sauve on spécifie le type de classe dans lequel on veut sauver // $event->save(Zend_Gdata_EventEntry);??? $event->save(Zend_Gdata_App_Entry); thank you for yours answers.

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• Out of memory while iterating through rowset

  - by Phliplip

  Hi All, I have a "small" table of 60400 rows with zipcode data. I wan't to iterate through them all, update a column value, and then save it. The following is part of my Zipcodes model which extends My_Db_Table that a totalRows function that - you guessed it.. returns the total number of rows in the table (60400 rows) public function normalizeTable() { $this->getAdapter()->setProfiler(false); $totalRows = $this->totalRows(); $rowsPerQuery = 5; for($i = 0; $i < $totalRows; $i = $i + $rowsPerQuery) { $select = $this->select()->limit($i, $rowsPerQuery); $rowset = $this->fetchAll($select); foreach ($rowset as $row) { $row->{self::$normalCityColumn} = $row->normalize($row->{self::$cityColumn}); $row->save(); } unset($rowset); } } My rowClass contains a normalize function (basicly a metaphone wrapper doing some extra magic). At first i tried a plain old $this-fetchAll(), but got a out of memory (128MB) right away. Then i tried splitting the rowset into chunks, only difference is that some rows actually gets updated. Any ideas on how i can acomplish this, or should i fallback to ye'olde mysql_query()

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• Indenting Paragraph With cout

  - by Eric

  Given a string of unknown length, how can you output it using cout so that the entire string displays as an indented block of text on the console? (so that even if the string wraps to a new line, the second line would have the same level of indentation) Example: cout << "This is a short string that isn't indented." << endl; cout << /* Indenting Magic */ << "This is a very long string that will wrap to the next line because it is a very long string that will wrap to the next line..." << endl; And the desired output: This is a short string that isn't indented. This is a very long string that will wrap to the next line because it is a very long string that will wrap to the next line... Edit: The homework assignment I'm working on is complete. The assignment has nothing to do with getting the output to format as in the above example, so I probably shouldn't have included the homework tag. This is just for my own enlightment. I know I could count through the characters in the string, see when I get to the end of a line, then spit out a newline and output -x- number of spaces each time. I'm interested to know if there is a simpler, idiomatic C++ way to accomplish the above.

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• SystemStackError in Rails::ActiveSupport::Callbacks

  - by coreyward

  I'm building a Rails app that connects to Dropbox and syncs with a folder to update a personal site. I'm using Rails 3.0.3, Ruby 1.9.2, and the Dropbox gem. Right now I have a DropboxAccounts Controller, and two models: DropboxSession, which wraps calls to the gem with application-specific functionality, and DropboxAccount, which stores the session and settings in the database. After the user authorizes their account with Dropbox they're redirected back over and the DropboxAccount is saved with the authorized session. That all works just fine. My problem is that when I try to call Dropbox::API#create_folder(any path) I end up with a SystemStackError in lib/activesupport/callbacks.rb:421 which refers to the code below. If I remove the call to create the folder, it works. If I call create folder from another request, it works. I doubled the stack size to 16K to no avail. # This is called the first time a callback is called with a particular # key. It creates a new callback method for the key, calculating # which callbacks can be omitted because of per_key conditions. # def __create_keyed_callback(name, kind, object, &blk) #:nodoc: @_keyed_callbacks ||= {} @_keyed_callbacks[name] ||= begin str = send("_#{kind}_callbacks").compile(name, object) class_eval <<-RUBY_EVAL, __FILE__, __LINE__ + 1 def #{name}() #{str} end # THIS IS LINE 421 protected :#{name} RUBY_EVAL true end end I'm not very familiar with Rails yet, and I'm not sure what the intention of the code above is or why it would cause a stack overflow. I'm not using any method_missing/ghost method magic in my code. I suspected it was something with a callback serialize :files but commenting it out did nothing. My DropboxAccount model contains only a call to belongs_to :user, and DropboxSession is just a handful of methods, none of which contain callbacks. Bypassing them and using the Dropbox::Session methods directly doesn't help. I hope someone on StackOverflow can help me with this stack overflow. ;)

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• LINQ to objects: Is there

  - by Charles

  I cannot seem to find a way to have LINQ return the value from a specified accessor. I know the name of the accessors for each object, but am unsure if it is possible to pass the requested accessor as a variable or otherwise achieve the desired refactoring. Consider the following code snippet: // "value" is some object with accessors like: format, channels, language row = new List<String> { String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.format).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.channels).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.language).ToArray()), // ... } I'd like to refactor this into a method that uses the specified accessor, or perhaps pass a delegate, though I don't see how that could work. string niceRefactor(myObj myObject, string /* or whatever type */ ____ACCESSOR) { return String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.____ACCESSOR).ToArray()); } I have written a decent amount of C#, but am still new to the magic of LINQ. Is this the right approach? How would you refactor this?

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• Hibernate collection multiple types

  - by CaptainAwesomePants

  I have a class Player that contains a list of Accessory objects. There are two kinds of Accessories. SocketedAccessories have a list of SocketJewels, and MagicAccessories have a list of MagicEnchantments. At the database level, there is a players table that represents the player, and an accessories table that contains a list of accessories. Accessories have a type field that indicates whether they are socketed or magical, and the columns that are only used by one type are just left blank by entries of the other type. There are socket_jewels and magic_enchantments tables, representing the socket jewels or the magic enchantments on each accessory. I am trying to figure out the correct way to map this with Hibernate. One way would be for the player to have two lists of accessories, one for SocketedAccessories and one for MagicAccessories. That seems undesirable, though. What I want is a way to specify that player should have a field List<Accessory> accessories that contains both types of thing. Is there a way to tell Hibernate, in either hbm.xml or annotations, to do this?

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• How can I bind a simple Javascript array to an MVC3 controller action method?

  - by Sergio Tapia

  Here is the javascript code I use to create the array and send it on it's way: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#update-cart-btn").click(function() { var items = []; $(".item").each(function () { var productKey = $(this).find("input[name='item.ProductId']").val(); var productQuantity = $(this).find("input[type='text']").val(); items[productKey] = productQuantity; }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "@Url.Action("UpdateCart", "Cart")", data: items, success: function () { alert("Successfully updated your cart!"); } }); }); }); </script> The items object is properly constructed with the values I need. What data type must my object be on the backend of my controller? I tried this but the variable remains null and is not bound. [Authorize] [HttpPost] public ActionResult UpdateCart(object[] items) // items remains null. { // Some magic here. return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

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• How are property assignment expressions handled in C#?

  - by Serious

  In C# you can use a property as both an lrvalue and rvalue at the same time like this : int n = N = 1; Here is a complete C# sample : class Test { static int n; static int N { get { System.Console.WriteLine("get"); return n; } set { System.Console.WriteLine("set"); n = value; } } static void Main() { int n = N = 1; System.Console.WriteLine("{0}/{1}", n, N); } } You can't do that in C++/CLI as the resulting type of the assignment expression "N = 1" is void. EDIT: here is a C++/CLI sample that shows this : ref class A { public: static property int N; }; int main() { int n = A::N = 1; System::Console::WriteLine("{0}/{1}", n, A::N); } So what's the magic behind C# syntax allowing a void-expression to be used as a rvalue ? Is this special treatment only available for properties or do you know other C# tricks like this ?

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• Packing an exe + dll into one executable (not .NET)

  - by Bluebird75

  Hi, Is anybody aware of a program that can pack several DLL and a .EXE into one executable. I am not talking about .NET case here, I am talking about general DLLs, some of which I generate in C++, some of others are external DLL I have no control over. My specific case is a python program packaged with py2exe, where I would like to "hide" the other DLL by packing them. The question is general enough though. The things that had a look at: ILMerge: specific to .NET NETZ: specific to .NET UPX: does DLL compression but not multiple DLL + EXE packing FileJoiner: Almost got it. It can pack executable + anything into one exe but when opened, it will launch the default opener for every file that was packed. So, if the user user dlldepend installed, it will launch it (becaues that's the default dll opener). Maybe that's not possible ? Summary of the answers: DLL opening is managed by the OS, so packing DLL into executable means that at some point, they need to be extracted to a place where the OS can find them. No magic bullet. So, what I want is not possible. Unless... We change something in the OS. Thanks Conrad for pointing me to ThinInstall, which virtualise the application and the OS loading mechanism. With ThinInstall, it is possible to pack everything in one exe (DLL, registry settings, ...).

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• bool as object vs string as object testing equality

  - by Ray Pendergraph

  I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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• How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

  - by skolima

  I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

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• Generics vs inheritance (when no collection classes are involved)

  - by Ram

  This is an extension of this questionand probably might even be a duplicate of some other question(If so, please forgive me). I see from MSDN that generics are usually used with collections The most common use for generic classes is with collections like linked lists, hash tables, stacks, queues, trees and so on where operations such as adding and removing items from the collection are performed in much the same way regardless of the type of data being stored. The examples I have seen also validate the above statement. Can someone give a valid use of generics in a real-life scenario which does not involve any collections ? Pedantically, I was thinking about making an example which does not involve collections public class Animal<T> { public void Speak() { Console.WriteLine("I am an Animal and my type is " + typeof(T).ToString()); } public void Eat() { //Eat food } } public class Dog { public void WhoAmI() { Console.WriteLine(this.GetType().ToString()); } } and "An Animal of type Dog" will be Animal<Dog> magic = new Animal<Dog>(); It is entirely possible to have Dog getting inherited from Animal (Assuming a non-generic version of Animal)Dog:Animal Therefore Dog is an Animal Another example I was thinking was a BankAccount. It can be BankAccount<Checking>,BankAccount<Savings>. This can very well be Checking:BankAccount and Savings:BankAccount. Are there any best practices to determine if we should go with generics or with inheritance ?

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• python crc32 woes

  - by lazyr

  I'm writing a python program to extract data from the middle of a 6 GB bz2 file. A bzip2 file is made up of independently decryptable blocks of data, so I only need to find a block (they are delimited by magic bits), then create a temporary one-block bzip2 file from it in memory, and finally pass that to the bz2.decompress function. Easy, no? The bzip2 format has a crc32 checksum for the file at the end. No problem, binascii.crc32 to the rescue. But wait. The data to be checksummed does not necessarily end on a byte boundary, and the crc32 function operates on a whole number of bytes. My plan: use the binascii.crc32 function on all but the last byte, and then a function of my own to update the computed crc with the last 1-7 bits. But hours of coding and testing has left me bewildered, and my puzzlement can be boiled down to this question: how come crc32("\x00") is not 0x00000000? Shouldn't it be, according to the wikipedia article? You start with 0b00000000 and pad with 32 0's, then do polynomial division with 0x04C11DB7 until there are no ones left in the first 8 bits, which is immediately. Your last 32 bits is the checksum, and how can that not be all zeroes? I've searched google for answers and looked at the code of several crc32 implementations without finding any clue to why this is so.

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• Dependency injection in constructors

  - by andre

  Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

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• How do I loop through elements inside a div?

  - by crosenblum

  I have to make a custom function for search/replace text, because firefox counts text nodes differently than IE, Google Chrome, etc.. I am trying to use this code, that I saw at Firefox WhiteSpace Issue since in my other function, I am looping numerically through nodes, which serves my functional needs perfectly, in other browsers. But refuses to work, as part of a search/replace function that takes place after some ajax content is loaded. Here is the code, that I have tried to get to work, but I must be missing the correct understanding of the context of how to loop thru elements inside a div. // get all childnodes inside div function div_translate(divid) { // list child nodes of parent if (divid != null) { // var children = parent.childNodes, child; var parentNode = divid; // start loop thru child nodes for(var node=parentNode.firstChild;node!=null;node=node.nextSibling){ // begin check nodeType if(node.nodeType == 1){ // get value of this node var value = content(node); // get class of this node var myclass = node.attr('class'); console.log(myclass); // begin check if value undefined if (typeof(value) != 'undefined' && value != null) { console.log(value); // it is a text node. do magic. for (var x = en_count; x > 0; x--) { // get current english phrase var from = en_lang[x]; // get current other language phrase var to = other_lang[x]; if (value.match(from)) { content(node, value.replace(from, to)); } } } // end check if value undefined } // end check nodeType } // end loop thru child nodes } }

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• Is this a bug? Or is it a setting in ASP.NET 4 (or MVC 2)?

  - by John Gietzen

  I just recently started trying out T4MVC and I like the idea of eliminating magic strings. However, when trying to use it on my master page for my stylesheets, I get this: <link href="<%: Links.Content.site_css %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> rending like this: <link href="&lt;%: Links.Content.site_css %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> Whereas these render correctly: <link href="<%: Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css") %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="<%: Links.Content.site_css + "" %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> It appears that, as long as I have double quotes inside of the code segment, it works. But when I put anything else in there, it escapes the leading "less than". Is this something I can turn off? Is this a bug? Edit: This does not happen for <script src="..." ... />, nor does it happen for <a href="...">. Edit 2: Minimal case: <link href="<%: string.Empty %>" /> vs <link href="<%: "" %>" />

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• How big can I make an Android application's canvas in terms of pixels?

  - by user279112

  I've determined an estimate of the size of my Android emulator's screen in pixels, although I think its resolution can be changed to other numbers. Quite frankly though that doesn't eliminate the general problem of not knowing how many pixels on each axis I have to work with on my Android applications in general. The main problem I'm trying to solve is this: How do I make sure I don't use a faulty resolution on Android applications if I want to keep things' sizes constant (so that if the application screen shrinks, for instances, objects will still show up just as big - there just won't be as many of them being shown) if I wish to do this with a single universal resolution for each program? Failing that, how do I make sure everything's alright if I try to do everything the same way with maybe a few different pre-set resolutions? Mainly it seems like a relevant question that must be answered before I can come across a complete answer for the general problem is how big can I always make my application in pixels, NOT regarding if and when a user resizes the application's screen to something smaller than the maximum size permitted by the phone and its operating system. I really want to try to keep this simple. If I were doing this for a modern desktop, for instance, I know that if I design the application with a 800x600 canvas, the user can still shrink the application to the point they're not doing themselves any favors, but at least I can basically count on it working right and not being too big for the monitor or something. Is there such a magic resolution for Android, assuming that I'm designing for API levels 3+ (Android 1.5+)? Thanks

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