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  • How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

    - by Tal Galili
    Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

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  • base64-Encoding breaks smime-encrypted emaildata

    - by Streuner
    I'm using Mime::Lite to create and send E-Mails. Now I need to add support for S/Mime-encryption and finally could encrypt my E-Mail (the only Perllib I could install seems broken, so I'm using a systemcall and openssl smime), but when I try to create a mime-object with it, the E-Mail will be broken as soon as I set the Content-Transfer-Encoding to base64. To make it even more curious, it happens only if I set it via $myMessage->attr. If I'm using the constructor -new everything is fine, besides a little warning which I suppress by using MIME::Lite->quiet(1); Is it a bug or my fault? Here are the two ways how I create the mime-object. Setting the Content-Transfer-Encoding via construtor and suppress the warning: MIME::Lite->quiet(1); my $msgEncr = MIME::Lite->new(From =>'[email protected]', To => '[email protected]', Subject => 'SMIME Test', Data => $myEncryptedMessage, 'Content-Transfer-Encoding' => 'base64'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Disposition' => 'attachment'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Disposition.filename' => 'smime.p7m'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Type' => 'application/x-pkcs7-mime'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Type.smime-type' => 'enveloped-data'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Type.name' => 'smime.p7m'); $msgEncr->send; MIME::Lite->quiet(0); Setting the Content-Transfer-Encoding via $myMessage->attr which breaks the encrypted Data, but won't cause a warning: my $msgEncr = MIME::Lite->new(From => '[email protected]', To => '[email protected]', Subject => 'SMIME Test', Data => $myEncryptedMessage); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Disposition' => 'attachment'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Disposition.filename' => 'smime.p7m'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Type' => 'application/x-pkcs7-mime'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Type.smime-type' => 'enveloped-data'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Type.name' => 'smime.p7m'); $msgEncr->attr('Content-Transfer-Encoding' => 'base64'); $msgEncr->send; I just don't get why my message is broken when I'm using the attribute-setter. Thanks in advance for your help! Besides that i'm unable to attach any file to this E-Mail without breaking the encrypted message again.

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  • Perl - Calling subclass constructor from superclass (OO)

    - by Emmel
    This may turn out to be an embarrassingly stupid question, but better than potentially creating embarrassingly stupid code. :-) This is an OO design question, really. Let's say I have an object class 'Foos' that represents a set of dynamic configuration elements, which are obtained by querying a command on disk, 'mycrazyfoos -getconfig'. Let's say that there are two categories of behavior that I want 'Foos' objects to have: Existing ones: one is, query ones that exist in the command output I just mentioned (/usr/bin/mycrazyfoos -getconfig`. Make modifications to existing ones via shelling out commands. Create new ones that don't exist; new 'crazyfoos', using a complex set of /usr/bin/mycrazyfoos commands and parameters. Here I'm not really just querying, but actually running a bunch of system() commands. Affecting changes. Here's my class structure: Foos.pm package Foos, which has a new($hashref-{name = 'myfooname',) constructor that takes a 'crazyfoo NAME' and then queries the existence of that NAME to see if it already exists (by shelling out and running the mycrazyfoos command above). If that crazyfoo already exists, return a Foos::Existing object. Any changes to this object requires shelling out, running commands and getting confirmation that everything ran okay. If this is the way to go, then the new() constructor needs to have a test to see which subclass constructor to use (if that even makes sense in this context). Here are the subclasses: Foos/Existing.pm As mentioned above, this is for when a Foos object already exists. Foos/Pending.pm This is an object that will be created if, in the above, the 'crazyfoo NAME' doesn't actually exist. In this case, the new() constructor above will be checked for additional parameters, and it will go ahead and, when called using -create() shell out using system() and create a new object... possibly returning an 'Existing' one... OR As I type this out, I am realizing it is perhaps it's better to have a single: (an alternative arrangement) Foos class, that has a -new() that takes just a name -create() that takes additional creation parameters -delete(), -change() and other params that affect ones that exist; that will have to just be checked dynamically. So here we are, two main directions to go with this. I'm curious which would be the more intelligent way to go.

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  • Removing elements from heap

    - by user193138
    I made a heap. I am curious if there's something subtley wrong with my remove function: int Heap::remove() { if (n == 0) exit(1); int temp = arr[0]; arr[0] = arr[--n]; heapDown(0); arr[n] = 0; return temp; } void Heap::heapDown(int i) { int l = left(i); int r = right(i); // comparing parent to left/right child // each has an inner if to handle if the first swap causes a second swap // ie 1 -> 3 -> 5 // 3 5 1 5 1 3 if (l < n && arr[i] < arr[l]) { swap(arr[i], arr[l]); heapDown(l); if (r < n && arr[i] < arr[r]) { swap(arr[i], arr[r]); heapDown(r); } } else if (r < n && arr[i] < arr[r]) { swap(arr[i], arr[r]); heapDown(r); if (l < n && arr[i] < arr[l]) { swap(arr[i], arr[l]); heapDown(l); } } } Here's my output i1i2i3i4i5i6i7 p Active heap: 7 4 6 1 3 2 5 r Removed 7 r Removed 6 p Active heap: 5 3 4 1 2 Here's my teacher's sample output: p Active heap : 7 4 6 1 3 2 5 r Removed 7 r Removed 6 p Active heap : 5 4 2 1 3 s Heapsorted : 1 2 3 4 5 While our outputs are completely different, I do seem to hold maxheap principle of having everything left oriented and for all nodes parent child(in every case I tried). I try to do algs like this from scratch, so maybe I'm just doing something really weird and wrong (I would only consider it "wrong" if it's O(lg n), as removes are intended to be for heaps). Is there anything in particular "wrong" about my remove? Thanks, http://ideone.com/PPh4eQ

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  • Resize AIR app window while dragging

    - by matt lohkamp
    So I've noticed Windows 7 has a disturbing tendency to prevent you from dragging the title bar of windows off the top of the screen. If you try - in this case, using an air app with a draggable area at the bottom of the window, allowing you to push the top of the window up past the screen - it just kicks the window back down far enough that the title bar is at the top of what it considers the 'visible area.' One solution would be to resize the app window as it moves, so that the title bar is always where windows wants it. How would you resize the window while you're dragging it, though? Would you do it like this? dragHitArea.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, function(e:MouseEvent):void{ stage.nativeWindow.height += 50; stage.nativeWindow.startMove(); stage.nativeWindow.height -= 50; }); see what's going on there? When I click, I'm doing startMove(), which is hooking into the OS' function for dragging a window around. I'm also increasing and decreasing the height of the window by 50 pixels - which should give me no net increase, right? Wrong - the first '.height +=' gets executed, but the '.height -=' after the .startMove() never runs. Why? update - If you're curious, I'm programming an air widget with fly-out menus which expand rightwards and upwards - and since those element can only be displayed within the boundaries of the application window itself (even though the window is set to be chromeless and transparent) I have to expand the application's borders to include the area that the menu 'pops up' into. In the extreme case, with the widget positioned bottom left, and the menus expanded completely across to the right side and top edge of the screen, the application area could very well cover the entire desktop. The problem is, when it's expanded like this, if the user drags it up and to the right, it causes the 'title bar' area of the application window to move above the top edge of the desktop area, where it would normally be unreachable; and Windows automatically re-positions the window back below that edge once the .startMove() operation is completed. So what I want to do is continually resize the height of the application so that the visual effect will be the same for the user, but for the benefit of the operating system the window's title bar will never be above that top boundary of the desktop area.

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  • Methodology to understanding JQuery plugin & API's developed by third parties

    - by Taoist
    I have a question about third party created JQuery plug ins and API's and the methodology for understanding them. Recently I downloaded the JQuery Masonry/Infinite scroll plug in and I couldn't figure out how to configure it based on the instructions. So I downloaded a fully developed demo, then manually deleted everything that wouldn't break the functionality. The code that was left allowed me to understand the plug in much greater detail than the documentation. I'm now having a similar issue with a plug in called JQuery knob. http://anthonyterrien.com/knob/ If you look at the JQuery Knob readme file it says this is working code: <input type="text" value="75" class="dial"> $(function() { $('.dial') .trigger( 'configure', { "min":10, "max":40, "fgColor":"#FF0000", "skin":"tron", "cursor":true } ); }); But as far as I can tell it isn't at all. The read me also says the Plug in uses Canvas. I am wondering if I am suppose to wrap this code in a canvas context or if this functionality is already part of the plug in. I know this kind of "question" might not fit in here but I'm a bit confused on the assumptions around reading these kinds of documentation and thought I would post the query regardless. Curious to see if this is due to my "newbi" programming experience or if this is something seasoned coders also fight with. Thank you. Edit In response to Tyanna's reply. I modified the code and it still doesn't work. I posted it below. I made sure that I checked the Google Console to insure the basics were taken care of, such as not getting a read-error on the library. <!DOCTYPE html> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>knob</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.7.2/themes/hot-sneaks/jquery-ui.css" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.2/jquery.js" charset="utf-8"></script> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.21/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.knob.js"></script> <div id="button1">test </div> <script> $(function() { $("#button1").click(function () { $('.dial').trigger( 'configure', { "min":10, "max":40, "fgColor":"#FF0000", "skin":"tron", "cursor":true } ); }); }); </script>

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • jQuery action being called when selector isn't met?

    - by dougoftheabaci
    I've been working on a prototype for a client's web site and I've run into a rather significant snag. You can view the prototype here. As you can see, the way it works is you can scroll a set of slides horizontally and, by clicking one, open a stack containing yet more slides. If you then click again on an image in that stack it opens up a lightbox. Clicking on another stack or the close button will close that stack (and open another, as case may be). That all works great. However you get some weird behavior if you do the following: Click to open any stack. Click to open an image's light box (this works best if you click on the image that's level with the main list). Close the light box and the stack either by clicking the close button or clicking on another stack. Click back to the first stack. Instead of reopening the stack, you get the lightbox. This confuses me as the light box should only ever be called if there is a class on the containing UL and that class is removed when the lightbox is closed. I've checked and double-checked this, it's definitely missing. Here are the respective functions: $("ul.hide a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $("ul.show").removeClass("show").addClass("hide"); $(this).parent().parent().removeClass("hide").addClass("show"); $("ul.hide").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("ul.show").animate({opacity: 1}); $("#next").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("#prev").animate({opacity: 0.2}); return false; }); $("ul.show a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $(this).fancybox().trigger("click"); return false; }); As you can see, in order for the lightbox to be called the containing UL has to have the class of show. However, if you check it with Firebug it won't. For those who are curious, the added .trigger("click"); is because the lightbox will require a double-click to launch otherwise. Any idea how I can fix this?

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  • SVG via dynamic XML+XSL

    - by Daniel
    This is a bit of a vague notion which I have been running over in my head, and which I am very curious if there is an elegant method of solving. Perhaps it should be taken as a thought experiment. Imagine you have an XML schema with a corresponding XSL transform, which renders the XML as SVG in the browser. The XSL generates SVG with appropriate Javascript handlers that, ultimately, implement editing-like functionality such that properties of the objects or their locations on the SVG canvas can be edited by the user. For instance, an element can be dragged from one location to another. Now, this isn't particularly difficult - the drag/drop example is simply a matter of changing the (x,y) coordinates of the SVG object, or a resize operation would be a simple matter of changing its width or height. But is there an elegant way to have Javascript work on the DOM of the source XML document instead of the rendered SVG? Why, you ask? Well, imagine you have very complex XSL transforms, where the modification of one property results in complex changes to the SVG. You want to maintain simplicity in your Javascript code, but also a simple way to persist the modified XML back to the server. Some possibilities of how this may function: After modification of the source DOM, simply re-run the XSL transform and replace the original. Downside: brute force, potentially expensive operation. Create id/class naming conventions in the source and target XML/SVG so elements can be related back to each other, and do an XSL transform on only a subset of the new DOM. In other words, modify temporary DOM, apply XSL to it, remove changed elements from SVG, and insert the new one. Downside: May not be possible to apply XSL to temporary in-browser DOMs(?). Also, perhaps a bit convoluted or ugly to maintain. I think that it may be possible to come up with a framework that handles the second scenario, but the challenge would be making it lightweight and not heavily tied to the actual XML schema. Any ideas or other possibilities? Or is there maybe an existing method of doing this which I'm not aware of? UPDATE: To clarify, as I mentioned in a comment below, this aids in separating the draw code from the edit code. For a more concrete example of how this is useful, imagine an element which determines how it is drawn dependent on the value of a property of an adjacent element. It's better to condense that logic directly in the draw code instead of also duplicating it in the edit code.

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  • Hidden divs for "lazy javascript" loading? Possible security/other issues?

    - by xyld
    I'm curious about people's opinion's and thoughts about this situation. The reason I'd like to lazy load javascript is because of performance. Loading javascript at the end of the body reduces the browser blocking and ends up with much faster page loads. But there is some automation I'm using to generate the html (django specifically). This automation has the convenience of allowing forms to be built with "Widgets" that output content it needs to render the entire widget (extra javascript, css, ...). The problem is that the widget wants to output javascript immediately into the middle of the document, but I want to ensure all javascript loads at the end of the body. When the following widget is added to a form, you can see it renders some <script>...</script> tags: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<script type="text/javascript"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </script>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output What I'm proposing is that if someone uses a <div class=".lazy-js">...</div> with some css (.lazy-js { display: none; }) and some javascript (jQuery('.lazy-js').each(function(index) { eval(jQuery(this).text()); }), you can effectively force all javascript to load at the end of page load: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<div class="lazy-js"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </div>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output Nevermind all the details of my specific implementation (the specific media involved), I'm looking for a consensus on whether the method of using lazy-loaded javascript through hidden a hidden tags can pose issues whether security or other related? One of the most convenient parts about this is that it follows the DRY principle rather well IMO because you don't need to hack up a specific lazy-load for each instance in the page. It just "works". UPDATE: I'm not sure if django has the ability to queue things (via fancy template inheritance or something?) to be output just before the end of the </body>?

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  • What block is not being tested in my test method? (VS08 Test Framework)

    - by daft
    I have the following code: private void SetControlNumbers() { string controlString = ""; int numberLength = PersonNummer.Length; switch (numberLength) { case (10) : controlString = PersonNummer.Substring(6, 4); break; case (11) : controlString = PersonNummer.Substring(7, 4); break; case (12) : controlString = PersonNummer.Substring(8, 4); break; case (13) : controlString = PersonNummer.Substring(9, 4); break; } ControlNumbers = Convert.ToInt32(controlString); } Which is tested using the following test methods: [TestMethod()] public void SetControlNumbers_Length10() { string pNummer = "9999999999"; Personnummer target = new Personnummer(pNummer); Assert.AreEqual(9999, target.ControlNumbers); } [TestMethod()] public void SetControlNumbers_Length11() { string pNummer = "999999-9999"; Personnummer target = new Personnummer(pNummer); Assert.AreEqual(9999, target.ControlNumbers); } [TestMethod()] public void SetControlNumbers_Length12() { string pNummer = "199999999999"; Personnummer target = new Personnummer(pNummer); Assert.AreEqual(9999, target.ControlNumbers); } [TestMethod()] public void SetControlNumbers_Length13() { string pNummer = "1999999-9999"; Personnummer target = new Personnummer(pNummer); Assert.AreEqual(9999, target.ControlNumbers); } For some reason Visual Studio says that I have 1 block that is not tested despite showing all code in the method under test in blue (ie. the code is covered in my unit tests). Is this because of the fact that I don't have a default value defined in the switch? When the SetControlNumbers() method is called, the string on which it operates have already been validated and checked to see that it conforms to the specification and that the various Substring calls in the switch will generate a string containing 4 chars. I'm just curious as to why it says there is 1 untested block. I'm no unit test guru at all, so I'd love some feedback on this. Also, how can I improve on the conversion after the switch to make it safer other than adding a try-catch block and check for FormatExceptions and OverflowExceptions?

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  • How to reconcile my support of open-source software and need to feed and house myself?

    - by Guzba
    I have a bit of a dilemma and wanted to get some other developers' opinions on it and maybe some guidance. So I have created a 2D game for Android from the ground up, learning and re factoring as I went along. I did it for the experience, and have been proud of the results. I released it for free as ad supported with AdMob not really expecting much out of it, but curious to see what would happen. Its been a few of months now since release, and it has become very popular (250k downloads!). Additionally, the ad revenue is great and is driving me to make more good games and even allowing me to work less so that I can focus on my own works. When I originally began working on the game, I was pretty new to concurrency and completely new to Android (had Java experience though). The standard advice I got for starting an Android game was to look at the sample games from Google (Snake, Lunar Lander, ...) so I did. In my opinion, these Android sample games from Google are decent to see in general what your code should look like, but not actually all that great to follow. This is because some of their features don't work (saving game state), the concurrency is both unexplained and cumbersome (there is no real separation between the game thread and the UI thread since they sync lock each other out all the time and the UI thread runs game thread code). This made it difficult for me as a newbie to concurrency to understand how it was organized and what was really running what code. Here is my dilemma: After spending this past few months slowly improving my code, I feel that it could be very beneficial to developers who are in the same position that I was in when I started. (Since it is not a complex game, but clearly coded in my opinion.) I want to open up the source so that others can learn from it but don't want to lose my ad revenue stream, which, if I did open the source, I fear I would when people released versions with the ad stripped, or minor tweaks that would fragment my audience, etc. I am a CS undergrad major in college and this money is giving me the freedom to work less at summer job, thus giving me the time and will to work on more of my own projects and improving my own skills while still paying the bills. So what do I do? Open the source at personal sacrifice for the greater good, or keep it closed and be a sort of hypocritical supporter of open source?

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  • Multiset container appears to stop sorting

    - by Sarah
    I would appreciate help debugging some strange behavior by a multiset container. Occasionally, the container appears to stop sorting. This is an infrequent error, apparent in only some simulations after a long time, and I'm short on ideas. (I'm an amateur programmer--suggestions of all kinds are welcome.) My container is a std::multiset that holds Event structs: typedef std::multiset< Event, std::less< Event > > EventPQ; with the Event structs sorted by their double time members: struct Event { public: explicit Event(double t) : time(t), eventID(), hostID(), s() {} Event(double t, int eid, int hid, int stype) : time(t), eventID( eid ), hostID( hid ), s(stype) {} bool operator < ( const Event & rhs ) const { return ( time < rhs.time ); } double time; ... }; The program iterates through periods of adding events with unordered times to EventPQ currentEvents and then pulling off events in order. Rarely, after some events have been added (with perfectly 'legal' times), events start getting executed out of order. What could make the events ever not get ordered properly? (Or what could mess up the iterator?) I have checked that all the added event times are legitimate (i.e., all exceed the current simulation time), and I have also confirmed that the error does not occur because two events happen to get scheduled for the same time. I'd love suggestions on how to work through this. The code for executing and adding events is below for the curious: double t = 0.0; double nextTimeStep = t + EPID_DELTA_T; EventPQ::iterator eventIter = currentEvents.begin(); while ( t < EPID_SIM_LENGTH ) { // Add some events to currentEvents while ( ( *eventIter ).time < nextTimeStep ) { Event thisEvent = *eventIter; t = thisEvent.time; executeEvent( thisEvent ); eventCtr++; currentEvents.erase( eventIter ); eventIter = currentEvents.begin(); } t = nextTimeStep; nextTimeStep += EPID_DELTA_T; } void Simulation::addEvent( double et, int eid, int hid, int s ) { assert( currentEvents.find( Event(et) ) == currentEvents.end() ); Event thisEvent( et, eid, hid, s ); currentEvents.insert( thisEvent ); }

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  • Best approach for using Scanner Objects in Java?

    - by devjeetroy
    Although I'm more of a C++/ASM guy, I have to work with java as a part of my undergrad course at college. Our teacher taught us input using Scanner(System.in), and told us that if multiple functions are were taking user input, it would be advisable that a single Scanner object is passed around so as to reduce chances of the input stream getting screwed up. Now using this approach has gotten me into a situation where I'm trying to use a Scanner.nextLine(), and this statement does not wait for user input. It just moves on to the following statement. I figured there may be some residual cr/lf or other characters in the Scanner that might not have been retrieved are causing the problem. Here is the code. while(lineScanner.hasNext()) { if(isPlaceHolder(temp = lineScanner.next())) { temp = temp.replace("<",""); temp = temp.replace(">", ""); System.out.print("Enter "+aOrA(temp.charAt(0)) +" " +temp + " : "); temp = consoleInput.nextLine(); } outputFileStream.print(temp + " "); } All of the code is inside a function which receives a Scanner object consoleInput. Ok, so what happens when i run it is that when the program enters the if() the first time, It carries out theSystem.out.print, does not wait for user input, and moves on to the second time that it enters the 'if' block. This time, it takes the input and the rest of the program operates normally. What is even more surprising is that when i check the output file created by the program, it is perfect, just as i want to be. Almost as if the first time input using the scanner is correct. I have solved this problem by creating a new system.in Scanner in the function itself, instead of receiving the Scanner object as a parameter. But I am still very curious to know what the hell is happening and why it couldn't be solved using a simple Scanner.reset(). Would it be better to just simply create a Scanner Object for each function? Thanks, Devjeet PS. Although I know how to take input using fileinputstreams and the like, we are not supposed to use it with the homework.

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  • Best Practices for Working with Multiple Monitors in Visual Studio 2010

    - by Clever Human
    Now that Visual Studio 2010 has support for multiple monitors, I am curious how other people have their environments arranged. I have yet to come up with an arrangement that I am really satisfied with. The current best I have come up with for my 2 monitor system is to have all code windows detached. Then, on my primary monitor, I am able to have two code windows side by side (using the Windows 7 keyboard shortcuts WinKey+LeftArrow and WinKey+RightArrow.) On my secondary monitor I put the rest of the IDE with all of the tool windows that are normally on the bottom (errors list, find window, call stack, etc...) docked where the code windows normally go. I've also tried having all those things detached and having almost nothing in the IDE proper. The problems with this layout are: Newly opened code windows always open in the IDE, not on top of one of the detached windows. Detached code windows do not remember their exact placement from session to session (they are slightly off, having me to use the winkey + arrow key shortcut again and again for each window. There seems to be no way to have the code panes aware that they are on top of one another (IE -- multiple tabs.) The CTRL+TAB shortcut always displays on top of the IDE proper. The Code Panes are always "on top" of (children of) the IDE. So clicking on any code pane brings the IDE to the foreground, even when I care only about that code pane, and not the IDE. Other more minor issues... What would go a long way to making this better is having the code panes detach such that they are tab strips that can have other code panes docked within them. The new multi-monitor support in VS2010 is good, but it still seems really lacking. Can these issues be solved with an add-in? If so, is anyone aware of one? Is there a better way to work with the IDE on multiple monitors than what I am doing? NOTE: While this question is subjective (there is certainly no "this is the best way and that's final" answer) I'd really like to know possibly better methods of working with the IDE than what I have come up with. The intent is not to start a "mine's best" flame war.

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  • Quetion regarding local and global variable in javascript

    - by caramel1991
    Today,I started to code a page that prompt the user to choose their PC spec,and the code is as follow <html> <title>Computer Specification Chooser</title> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var compSpec = document.compChooser; function processorUnavailable_onclick() { alert("Sorry that processor speed is currently unavailable"); compSpec.processor[2].checked = true; } </script> </head> <body> <form name="compChooser"> <p>Tick all components you wan included on your computer</p> <p> DVD-ROM <input type="checkbox" name="chkDVD" value="DVD-ROM" /> <br /> CD-ROM <input type="checkbox" name="chkCD" value="CD-ROM" /> <br /> Zip Drive <input type="checkbox" name="chkZIP" value="ZIP DRIVE" /> </p> <p> Select the processor speed you require <br /> <input type="radio" name="processor" value="3.8" /> 3.8 GHZ <input type="radio" name="processor" value="4.8" onclick="processorUnavailable_onclick()" /> 4.8 GHZ <input type="radio" name="processor" value="6" /> 6 GHZ </p> <input type="button" name="btnCheck" value="Check Form" /> </form> </body> </html> The problem I'm facing is on the function that I've tie to the event handler,when I try to choose the radio button of the processor value 4.8 GHZ,yes it alert me with the message inside the function,but after that,it doest not execute the next statement inside the function,that is to check the next processor value 6 GHZ,I've try my effort to change it and test on it,and find out when I set the var compSpec = document.compChooser as a local variable inside the function instead of a global variable,the next statement could be executed.But I thought for a global variable,it is accessible in everywhere on the page and also inside a function.But why now I can't accesses it inside my function??Any idea??Besides,I stumble upon a weird article while googling,it says that when a global variable is created,it is added to window object.I just curious why this happen??And what's the benefits and uses of it??THANK YOU

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  • Local and global variables in javascript

    - by caramel1991
    Today,I started to code a page that prompt the user to choose their PC spec,and the code is as follow <html> <title>Computer Specification Chooser</title> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var compSpec = document.compChooser; function processorUnavailable_onclick() { alert("Sorry that processor speed is currently unavailable"); compSpec.processor[2].checked = true; } </script> </head> <body> <form name="compChooser"> <p>Tick all components you wan included on your computer</p> <p> DVD-ROM <input type="checkbox" name="chkDVD" value="DVD-ROM" /> <br /> CD-ROM <input type="checkbox" name="chkCD" value="CD-ROM" /> <br /> Zip Drive <input type="checkbox" name="chkZIP" value="ZIP DRIVE" /> </p> <p> Select the processor speed you require <br /> <input type="radio" name="processor" value="3.8" /> 3.8 GHZ <input type="radio" name="processor" value="4.8" onclick="processorUnavailable_onclick()" /> 4.8 GHZ <input type="radio" name="processor" value="6" /> 6 GHZ </p> <input type="button" name="btnCheck" value="Check Form" /> </form> </body> </html> The problem I'm facing is on the function that I've tie to the event handler,when I try to choose the radio button of the processor value 4.8 GHZ,yes it alert me with the message inside the function,but after that,it doest not execute the next statement inside the function,that is to check the next processor value 6 GHZ. I've try my effort to change it and test on it,and find out when I set the var compSpec = document.compChooser as a local variable inside the function instead of a global variable,the next statement could be executed. But I thought for a global variable,it is accessible in everywhere on the page and also inside a function.But why now I can't accesses it inside my function??Any idea?? Besides,I stumble upon a weird article while googling,it says that when a global variable is created,it is added to window object.I just curious why this happen??And what's the benefits and uses of it?? THANK YOU

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  • Browsers (IE and Firefox) freeze when copying large amount of text

    - by Matt
    I have a web application - a Java servlet - that delivers data to users in the form of a text printout in a browser (text marked up with HTML in order to display in the browser as we want it to). The text does display in different colors, though most of it is black. One typical mode of operation is this: 1. User submits a form to request data. 2. Servlet delivers HTML file to browser. 3. User does CTRL+A to select all the text. 4. User does CTRL+C to copy all the text. 5. User goes to a text editor and does CTRL+V to paste the text. In the testing where I'm having this problem, step #2 successfully loads all the data - we wait for that to complete. We can scroll down to the end of what the browser loaded and see the end of the data. However, the browser freezes on step #3 (Firefox) or on step #4 (IE). Because step #2 finishes, I think it is a browser/memory issue, and not an issue with the web application. If I run queries to deliver smaller amounts of data (but after several queries we get the same data we would have above in one query) and copy/paste this text, the file I save it into ends up being about 8 MB. If I save the browser's displayed HTML to a file on my computer via File-Save As from the browser menu, it works fine and the file is about 22 MB. We've tried this on 2 different computers at work (both running Windows XP, with at least 2 GB of RAM and many GB of free disk space), using Firefox and IE. We also tried it on a home computer from a home network outside of work (thinking it might be our IT security software causing the problem), running Windows 7 using IE, and still had the problem. When I've done this, I can see whatever browser I'm using utilizing the CPU at 50%. Firefox's memory usage grows to about 1 GB; IE's stays in the several hundred MBs. We once let this run for half an hour, and it did not complete. I'm most likely going to modify the web app to have an option of delivering a plain text file for download, and I imagine that will get the users what they need. But for the mean time, and because I'm curious - and I don't like my application freezing people's browsers, does anyone have any ideas about the browser freezing? I understand that sometimes you just reach your memory limit, but 22 MB sounds to me like an amount I should be able to copy to the clipboard.

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  • Grails: GGTS not running on Amazon AWS EC2 anyone else successful?

    - by Anonymous Human
    Im just curious if anyone has had success trying to run the Groovy Grails tool suite on an Amazon AWS EC2 instance with its display exported into your windows machine. If so, I wanted to know which flavor of linux was used on the EC2. I am not having much success with it on the Amazon Linux but haven't tried their Ubuntu instances yet. I got all the way to getting GGTS installed and getting the display exported but when I launch GGTS I get log errors about libraries missing. This is most likely because I didn't use yum to install it so I am probably missing dependencies but I didn't have a choice its not offered as a yum package. Here are my log file errors when I try to launch GGTS: !SESSION 2014-06-08 03:08:04.873 ----------------------------------------------- eclipse.buildId=3.5.1.201405030657-RELEASE-e43 java.version=1.7.0_55 java.vendor=Oracle Corporation Framework arguments: -product org.springsource.ggts.ide Command-line arguments: -os linux -ws gtk -arch x86_64 -product org.springsourc e.ggts.ide !ENTRY org.eclipse.osgi 4 0 2014-06-08 03:08:12.116 !MESSAGE Application error !STACK 1 java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: Could not load SWT library. Reasons: /home/ec2-user/ggts_sh/ggts-3.5.1.RELEASE/configuration/org.eclipse.osgi /bundles/704/1/.cp/libswt-pi-gtk-4335.so: libgtk-x11-2.0.so.0: cannot open share d object file: No such file or directory no swt-pi-gtk in java.library.path /home/ec2-user/.swt/lib/linux/x86_64/libswt-pi-gtk-4335.so: libgtk-x11-2 .0.so.0: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory Can't load library: /home/ec2-user/.swt/lib/linux/x86_64/libswt-pi-gtk.s o at org.eclipse.swt.internal.Library.loadLibrary(Library.java:331) at org.eclipse.swt.internal.Library.loadLibrary(Library.java:240) at org.eclipse.swt.internal.gtk.OS.<clinit>(OS.java:45) at org.eclipse.swt.internal.Converter.wcsToMbcs(Converter.java:63) at org.eclipse.swt.internal.Converter.wcsToMbcs(Converter.java:54) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.<clinit>(Display.java:133) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench.createDisplay(Workbench.java:679) at org.eclipse.ui.PlatformUI.createDisplay(PlatformUI.java:162) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.ide.application.IDEApplication.createDisplay( IDEApplication.java:154) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.ide.application.IDEApplication.start(IDEAppli cation.java:96) at org.eclipse.equinox.internal.app.EclipseAppHandle.run(EclipseAppHandl e.java:196) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.internal.adaptor.EclipseAppLauncher.runAppli cation(EclipseAppLauncher.java:110) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.internal.adaptor.EclipseAppLauncher.start(Ec lipseAppLauncher.java:79) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.adaptor.EclipseStarter.run(EclipseStarter.ja va:354) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.adaptor.EclipseStarter.run(EclipseStarter.ja va:181) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl. java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAcces sorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:606) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.invokeFramework(Main.java:636) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.basicRun(Main.java:591) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.run(Main.java:1450) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.main(Main.java:1426)

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  • remote_form_for in index.html.erb file not working w/ AJAX...Ruby on Rails...

    - by bgadoci
    Just curious if I am overlooking something simple here. I have deployed the remote_form_for in the show.html.erb code before to render comments on a post (project in this case) without a problem. I have moved this code to the index view and seems to degrade to the normal form_for action (page refresh). I am not getting any javascript errors so not sure what is wrong here. Here is my code: index.html.erb <% remote_form_for [project, Comment.new] do |f| %> <p> <%= f.label :body, "New Comment" %><br/> <%= f.text_area (:body, :class => "textarea") %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :name, "Name" %> (Required)<br/> <%= f.text_field (:name, :class => "textfield") %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :email, "Email" %> (Required but will not be displayed)<br/> <%= f.text_field (:email, :class => "textfield") %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Add Comment" %></p> <% end %> CommentsController#create def create @project = Project.find(params[:project_id]) @comment = @project.comments.create!(params[:comment]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to projects_path } format.js end end /views/comments/create.js.rjs page.insert_html :bottom, :commentwrapper, :partial => @comment page[@comment].visual_effect :highlight page[:new_comment].reset page.replace_html :notice, flash[:notice] flash.discard /views/comments/_comment.html.erb <% div_for comment do %> <div id="commentwrapper"> <% if admin? %> <%=link_to_remote "X", :url => [@project, comment], :method => :delete %> <% end %> <%= h(comment.body) %><br/><br/> Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(comment.created_at) %> ago by <%= h(comment.name) %> <% if admin? %> | <%= h(comment.email) %> <% end %></div> <% end %>

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  • git repository sync between computers, when moving around?

    - by Johan
    Hi Let's say that I have a desktop pc and a laptop, and sometimes I work on the desktop and sometimes I work on the laptop. What is the easiest way to move a git repository back and forth? I want the git repositories to be identical, so that I can continue where I left of at the other computer. I would like to make sure that I have the same branches and tags on both of the computers. Thanks Johan Note: I know how to do this with SubVersion, but I'm curious on how this would work with git. If it is easier, I can use a third pc as classical server that the two pc:s can sync against. Note: Both computers are running Linux. Update: So let's try XANI:s idea with a bare git repo on a server, and the push command syntax from KingCrunch. In this example there is two clients and one server. So let's create the server part first. ssh user@server mkdir -p ~/git_test/workspace cd ~/git_test/workspace git --bare init So then from one of the other computers I try to get a copy of the repo with clone: git clone user@server:~/git_test/workspace/ Initialized empty Git repository in /home/user/git_test/repo1/workspace/.git/ warning: You appear to have cloned an empty repository. Then go into that repo and add a file: cd workspace/ echo "test1" > testfile1.txt git add testfile1.txt git commit testfile1.txt -m "Added file testfile1.txt" git push origin master Now the server is updated with testfile1.txt. Anyway, let's see if we can get this file from the other computer. mkdir -p ~/git_test/repo2 cd ~/git_test/repo2 git clone user@server:~/git_test/workspace/ cd workspace/ git pull And now we can see the testfile. At this point we can edit it with some more content and update the server again. echo "test2" >> testfile1.txt git add testfile1.txt git commit -m "Test2" git push origin master Then we go back to the first client and do a git pull to see the updated file. And now I can move back and forth between the two computers, and add a third if I like to.

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  • Searching a Better Solution with Delegates

    - by spagetticode
    Hey All, I am a newbie in C# and curious about the better solution of my case. I have a method which gets the DataTable as a parameter and creates a List with MyClass's variables and returns it. public static List<Campaigns> GetCampaignsList(DataTable DataTable) { List<Campaigns> ListCampaigns = new List<Campaigns>(); foreach (DataRow row in DataTable.Rows) { Campaigns Campaign = new Campaigns(); Campaign.CampaignID = Convert.ToInt32(row["CampaignID"]); Campaign.CustomerID = Convert.ToInt32(row["CustomerID"]); Campaign.ClientID = Convert.ToInt32(row["ClientID"]); Campaign.Title = row["Title"].ToString(); Campaign.Subject = row["Subject"].ToString(); Campaign.FromName = row["FromName"].ToString(); Campaign.FromEmail = row["FromEmail"].ToString(); Campaign.ReplyEmail = row["ReplyEmail"].ToString(); Campaign.AddDate = Convert.ToDateTime(row["AddDate"]); Campaign.UniqueRecipients = Convert.ToInt32(row["UniqueRecipients"]); Campaign.ClientReportVisible = Convert.ToBoolean(row["ClientReportVisible"]); Campaign.Status = Convert.ToInt16(row["Status"]); ListCampaigns.Add(Campaign); } return ListCampaigns; } And one of my another DataTable method gets the DataTable from the database with given parameters. Here is the method. public static DataTable GetNewCampaigns() { DataTable dtCampaigns = new DataTable(); Campaigns Campaigns = new Campaigns(); dtCampaigns = Campaigns.SelectStatus(0); return dtCampaigns; } But the problem is that, this GetNewCampaigns method doesnt take parameters but other methods can take parameters. For example when I try to select a campaign with a CampaignID, I have to send CampaignID as parameter. These all Database methods do take return type as DataTable but different number of parameters. public static DataTable GetCampaignDetails(int CampaignID) { DataTable dtCampaigns = new DataTable(); Campaigns Campaigns = new Campaigns(); dtCampaigns = Campaigns.Select(CampaignID); return dtCampaigns; } At the end, I want to pass a Delegate to my first GetCampaignList Method as parameter which will decide which Database method to invoke. I dont want to pass DataTable as parameter as it is newbie programming. Could you pls help me learn some more advance features. I searched over it and got to Func< delegate but could not come up with a solution.

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  • Efficient method of finding database rows that have *one or more* qualities from a list of seven qualities

    - by hithere
    Hello! For this question, I'm looking to see if anyone has a better idea of how to implement what I'm currently planning on implementing (below): I'm keeping track of a set of images, using a database. Each image is represented by one row. I want to be able to search for images, using a number of different search parameters. One of these parameters involves a search-by-color option. (The rest of the search stuff is currently working fine.) Images in this database can contain up to seven colors: -Red -Orange -Yellow -Green -Blue -Indigo -Violet Here are some example user queries: "I want an image that contains red." "I want an image that contains red and blue." "I want an image that contains yellow and violet." "I want an image that contains red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet." And so on. Users make this selection through the use of checkboxes in an html form. They can check zero checkboxes, all seven, and anything in between. I'm curious to hear what people think would be the most efficient way to perform this database search. I have two possible options right now, but I feel like there must be something better that I'm not thinking of. (Option 1) -For each row, simply have seven additional fields in the database, one for each color. Each field holds a 1 or 0 (true/false) value, and I SELECT based on whatever the user has checked off. (I didn't like this solution so much, because it seemed kind of wasteful to add seven additional fields...especially since most pictures in this table will only have 3-4 colors max, though some could have up to 7. So that means I'm storing a lot of zeros.) Also, if I added more searchable colors later on (which I don't think I will, but it's always possible), I'd have to add more fields. (Option 2) -For each image row, I could have a "colors" text field that stores space-separated color names (or numbers for the sake of compactness). Then I could do a fulltext match against search through the fields, selecting rows that contain "red yellow green" (or "1 3 4"). But I kind of didn't want to do fulltext searching because I already allow a keyword search, and I didn't really want to do two fulltext searches per image search. Plus, if the database gets big, fulltext stuff might slow down. Any better options that I didn't think of? Thanks! Side Note: I'm using PHP to work with a MySQL database.

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  • Unexpected output while using Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 (Express Edition) C++ Command Line Tool

    - by Sujith S Pillai
    One of my friends sent this code to me, saying it doesn't work as expected: #include<stdio.h> void main() { int a [10] ={23, 100, 20, 30, 25, 45, 40, 55, 43, 42}; int sizeOfInput = sizeof(a)/sizeof(int); int b, outer, inner, c; printf("Size is : %d \n", sizeOfInput); printf("Values before bubble sort are : \n"); for ( b = 0; b < sizeOfInput; b++) printf("%d\n", a[b]); printf("End of values before bubble sort... \n"); for ( outer = sizeOfInput; outer > 0; outer-- ) { for ( inner = 0 ; inner < outer ; inner++) { printf ( "Comparing positions: %d and %d\n",inner,inner+1); if ( a[inner] > a[inner + 1] ) { int tmp = a[inner]; a[inner] = a [inner+1]; a[inner+1] = tmp; } } printf ( "Bubble sort total array size after inner loop is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); printf ( "Bubble sort sizeOfInput after inner loop is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); } printf ( "Bubble sort total array size at the end is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); for ( c = 0 ; c < sizeOfInput; c++) printf("Element: %d\n", a[c]); } I am using Micosoft Visual Studio Command Line Tool for compiling this on a Windows XP machine. cl /EHsc bubblesort01.c My friend gets the correct output on a dinosaur machine (code is compiled using TCC there). My output is unexpected. The array mysteriously grows in size, in between. If you change the code so that the variable sizeOfInput is changed to sizeOfInputt, it gives the expected results! A search done at Microsoft Visual C++ Developer Center doesn't give any results for "sizeOfInput". I am not a C/C++ expert, and am curious to find out why this happens - any C/C++ experts who can "shed some light" on this? Unrelated note: I seriously thought of rewriting the whole code to use quicksort or merge sort before posting it here. But, after all, it is not Stooge sort...

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  • Android java assigning 2d array to 3d array

    - by semajhan
    I'm running into problems trying to assign a 2d array to a 3d array, so I thought i'd ask a question about 3d and 2d arrays. Say I have a masterArray[][][] and wanted to put childArray1[][] and childArray2[][] into it. This is how I have done it and was wondering if that is the correct way of applying it: private int[][][] masterArray; private int[][] childArray1 = { {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 8, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 7, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1}, {1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 9, 0, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1} }; private int[][] childArray2 = { {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 7, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 9, 1, 1, 8, 0, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1}, }; Ok, so in my init method I use these some methods to set the child arrays into the master array. What I was curious about was how this exactly works. I assumed the following: masterLevel = new int[MAX_LEVELS][MAP_WIDTH][MAP_HEIGHT]; for (int x = 0; x < MAP_WIDTH; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < MAP_HEIGHT; y++) { masterArray[currentLevel][x][y] = childArray1[x][y]; } } Would that work? In my application things aren't working so I picking out code that I am not 100% sure on.

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