Search Results

Search found 93603 results on 3745 pages for 'one to many'.

Page 115/3745 | < Previous Page | 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122  | Next Page >

  • How to deal with multiple sub-type of one super-type in Django admin

    - by Henri
    What would be the best solution for adding/editing multiple sub-types. E.g a super-type class Contact with sub-type class Client and sub-type class Supplier. The way shown here works, but when you edit a Contact you get both inlines i.e. sub-type Client AND sub-type Supplier. So even if you only want to add a Client you also get the fields for Supplier of vice versa. If you add a third sub-type , you get three sub-type field groups, while you actually only want one sub-type group, in the mentioned example: Client. E.g.: class Contact(models.Model): contact_name = models.CharField(max_length=128) class Client(models.Model): contact = models.OneToOneField(Contact, primary_key=True) user_name = models.CharField(max_length=128) class Supplier(models.Model): contact.OneToOneField(Contact, primary_key=True) company_name = models.CharField(max_length=128) and in admin.py class ClientInline(admin.StackedInline): model = Client class SupplierInline(admin.StackedInline): model = Supplier class ContactAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines = (ClientInline, SupplierInline,) class ClientAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): ... class SupplierAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): ... Now when I want to add a Client, i.e. only a Client I edit Contact and I get the inlines for both Client and Supplier. And of course the same for Supplier. Is there a way to avoid this? When I want to add/edit a Client that I only see the Inline for Client and when I want to add/edit a Supplier that I only see the Inline for Supplier, when adding/editing a Contact? Or perhaps there is a different approach. Any help or suggestion will be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Kerberos and/or other authentication systems - One time logon for all PHP scripts

    - by devviedev
    I'm managing a set of web apps, almost exclusively written in PHP, and would like to find an authentication platform to build a role-based authorization system on top of. Also, I'd like the authentication system to be extensible to use for, for example, system services (SSH, etc.) Here are some of the main characteristics I'm looking for, in order of importance: Easy PHP implementation (storing/reading easily roles, etc.). Redundant, if possible. If an auth system goes down everyone is not locked out. Has clients for Windows and Mac. Easy web-based administration (adding/removing users/roles, changing passwords). If not, I can build an administration system without too much effort. One-time log on. I'd also like, when an auth token is issued, to store the user's IP address and use that to authorize the user for some non web-based applications. For that reason, I'd like a desktop client to issue the token and revoke tokens when, for example, the user becomes idle at their workstation. I'm thinking Kerberos might be a solution, but what are other options?

    Read the article

  • Making one table equal to another without a delete *

    - by Joshua Atkins
    Hey, I know this is bit of a strange one but if anyone had any help that would be greatly appreciated. The scenario is that we have a production database at a remote site and a developer database in our local office. Developers make changes directly to the developer db and as part of the deployment process a C# application runs and produces a series of .sql scripts that we can execute on the remote side (essentially delete *, insert) but we are looking for something a bit more elaborate as the downtime from the delete * is unacceptable. This is all reference data that controls menu items, functionality etc of a major website. I have a sproc that essentially returns a diff of two tables. My thinking is that I can insert all the expected data in to a tmp table, execute the diff, and drop anything from the destination table that is not in the source and then upsert everything else. The question is that is there an easy way to do this without using a cursor? To illustrate the sproc returns a recordset structured like this: TableName Col1 Col2 Col3 Dest Src Anything in the recordset with TableName = Dest should be deleted (as it does not exist in src) and anything in Src should be upserted in to dest. I cannot think of a way to do this purely set based but my DB-fu is weak. Any help would be appreciated. Apologies if the explanation is sketchy; let me know if you need anymore details.

    Read the article

  • how to pass values from one page to another on jquery form submit

    - by andy787899
    I'm trying to build a form using php & jquery, but I'm a little confused as to what to do with the jquery portion of it... Basically, when the user submits the first form, I want to direct them to the "next step" form, but I want to retain the values submitted from the first one in a hidden input field... If someone can either show me how or point me to a good tutorial, I'd appreciate it... I don't have any of the php or jquery yet, and this is just a simplified version of the html markup... //first.php <form name="form1" method="post" action="second.php"> <input type="text" name="name" value="" />Name <input type="submit" name="step1" value="Next" /> </form> //second.php <form name="form2" method="post" action="process.php"> <input type="hidden" name="name" value="{$_POST['name']}" /> <input type="text" name="message" value="" />message <input type="submit" name="step2" value="Finish" /> </form>

    Read the article

  • how to pass values from one page to another on jquery form submit

    - by andy787899
    I'm trying to build a form using php & jquery, but I'm a little confused as to what to do with the jquery portion of it... Basically, when the user submits the first form, I want to direct them to the "next step" form, but I want to retain the values submitted from the first one in a hidden input field... If someone can either show me how or point me to a good tutorial, I'd appreciate it... I don't have any of the php or jquery yet, and this is just a simplified version of the html markup... //first.php <form name="form1" method="post" action="second.php"> <input type="text" name="name" value="" />Name <input type="submit" name="step1" value="Next" /> </form> //second.php <form name="form2" method="post" action="process.php"> <input type="hidden" name="name" value="{$_POST['name']}" /> <input type="text" name="message" value="" />message <input type="submit" name="step2" value="Finish" /> </form>

    Read the article

  • Silverlight Toolkit ListBoxDragTarget Only One Way

    - by Tom Allen
    I've got a Silverlight 3 app that has two ListBoxes that I need to be able to drag items between. I've got the toolkit control working so that I can drag from ListBox lbA to ListBox lbB but i then can't drag the item from lbB back to lbA. <toolkit:ListBoxDragDropTarget mswindows:DragDrop.AllowDrop="True"> <ListBox x:Name="lbA" Style="{StaticResource ListBoxStyle}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding DisplayMember}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </toolkit:ListBoxDragDropTarget> <toolkit:ListBoxDragDropTarget mswindows:DragDrop.AllowDrop="True"> <ListBox x:Name="lbB" Style="{StaticResource ListBoxStyle}" Width="350"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding DisplayMember}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </toolkit:ListBoxDragDropTarget> I'm binding lbA to an ObservableCollection of MyObject items which is a parent class for objects MyObjectA and MyObjectB (and there is a mix of ChildObjectA and ChildObjectB items). Is the one way behaviour I'm seeing due to binding to a collection MyObjects or something else i'm missing?

    Read the article

  • Apache multiple URL to one domain redirect

    - by Christian Moser
    For the last two day, I've been spending a lot of time to solve my problem, maybe someone can help me. Problem: I need to redirect different url's to one tomcat webbase-dir used for artifactory. following urls should point to the tomcat/artifactory webapp: maven-repo.example.local ; maven-repo.example.local/artifactory ; srv-example/artifactory Where maven-repo.example.local is the dns for the server-hostname: "srv-example" I'm accessing the tomcat app through the JK_mod module. The webapp is in the ROOT directory This is what I've got so far: <VirtualHost *:80> #If URL contains "artifactory" strip down and redirect RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^\artifactory\$ [NC] # (how can I remove 'artifactory' from the redirected parameters? ) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://maven-repo.example.local/$1 [R=301,L] ServerName localhost ErrorLog "logs/redirect-error_log" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven-repo.example.local ErrorLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-error.log" CustomLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-access.log" common #calling tomcat webapp in ROOT JkMount /* ajp13w </VirtualHost> The webapp is working with "maven-repo.example.local", but with "maven-repo.example.local/artifactory" tomcat gives a 404 - "The requested resource () is not available." It seems that the mod_rewrite doesn't have taken any effect, even if I redirect to another page, e.g google.com I'm testing on windows 7 with maven-repo.example.local added in the "system32/drivers/hosts" file Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • PHP str_replace and preg_replace work on one server but not another

    - by retailevolved
    I have a simple function on a php page that takes a url such as: http://myurl.com/mypage.html?param1=value1 and converts it to: http://myurl.com/searchpage.html?param1=value1 All it does it swap out the page.html portion. To do this, I use the following: $currentUrl = $this-getCurrentUrl(); // Grabs the current url, i.e 'http://myurl.com/mypage.html?param1=value1' // Derive a search pattern from the current url $pattern = "/" . str_replace(array("/", ".", "-"), array("\\/", "\\.", "\\-"), $currentUrl) . "/"; // get rid of the 'mypage.html' $newUrl = preg_replace($pattern, 'http://myurl.com/', $currentUrl); // replace the question mark with the correct page $newUrl = str_replace("/?", "/searchpage.html?", $newUrl); The above code is not the exact code but is a good representation. It works beautifully on one server, but when I push to production, the preg_replace does not work. I originally attempted to use str_replace. It also works on my local development machine, but not on the production server. I have confirmed that the URL variables are coming in correctly. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • JavaScript problems in one IIS server but not another

    - by DanyW
    Hi everyone, I have a problem that only occurs in one environment. On this particular page, somewhere in the top half of the element, an array is created and populated. This is later used in the onfocus event handlers of various controls. I use Firebug to debug the page and discovered the problem. In our dev environment the array is indeed created and populated. In our staging environment this block of script is not executed! I put a break point where the array is instantiated and it's never hit in staging, but is hit in dev. I'm really puzzled what aspects of the two environments can possibly affect this? We use aptimize on the staging box but it has been turned off for this particular website. I compared the page sources and they're identical! The only difference is bits of content since they are served by a CMS. Any ideas please? I'm quite stuck on this. Cheers, Dany.

    Read the article

  • Linker flags for one library break loading of another

    - by trevrosen
    I'm trying to use FMOD and HTTPriot in the same app. FMOD works fine until I add in linker flags for HTTPriot, at which point I get a bunch of linking errors wherein FMOD is complaining about undefined symbols. In other words, adding in linker flags for HTTPriot seems to break the loading of FMOD's library. These are the kinds of errors I'm getting, all coming during the linking phase of my build: Undefined symbols: "_FMOD_Sound_Lock", referenced from: -[FMODEngine recordedSoundAsNSData] in FMODEngine.o -[FMODEngine writeRecordingToDiskWithName:] in FMODEngine.o "_FMOD_MusicSystem_PrepareCue", referenced from: -[FMODEngine addCue:] in FMODEngine.o These are the linker flags for HTTPriot: -lhttpriot -lxml2 -ObjC -all_load I added those as well as a path to the HTTPriot SDK per the instructions here: http://labratrevenge.com/httpriot/docs/iphone-setup.html I was hoping someone could enlighten me on why adding linker flags for one library might cause a failure of another to load. If I DON'T have these flags in, HTTPriot and FMOD both work fine on the simulator, but HTTPriot has runtime errors on the device, I assume because its libraries are not linked. FMOD works fine on the device though. I placed header search paths and library search paths in my build settings in order for XCode to find FMOD. That seemed to be OK until I tried adding these HTTPriot linker flags. I also tried adding a linker flag for the FMOD library (-lfmodex), but I get the same errors as I do without it.

    Read the article

  • WPF - DataTemplate to show only one hierarchical level in recursive data

    - by Paull
    Hi all, I am using a tree to display my data: persons grouped by their teams. In my model a team can contain another team, so the recursion. I want do display details about the selected node of the tree using a contentpresenter. If the selection is a person, everything is fine: I can show the person name or datails without problem using a simple datatemplate. If the selection is a team I would like to display the team name followed by a list of member names. If one of these members is another team I would like to display just the team name, without recursion... My code here is wrong because it displays data in a recursive way, what is the right way of doing it? Thanks in advance for any help! best regards, Paolo <ContentPresenter Content="{Binding Path=SelectedItem, ElementName=PeopleTree}" > <ContentPresenter.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type my:PersonViewModel}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding PersonName}"/> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type my:TeamViewModel}"> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding TeamName}" /> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Members}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ContentPresenter.Resources> </ContentPresenter>

    Read the article

  • Is there only one distribution certificate per team leader or one per application?

    - by dbonneville
    I'm confused by the dev and dist cert. I got one app in the store, but I named my certs after my first app. Was this a mistake? I'm ready to go on my second app. But XCode is selected the dist cert with the old app name on it. It built without error. Though I named it wrong, will it still work? XCode is automatically picking this cert for me. Is this right? You need a new app ID for each app so you can 1) put in plist, 2) put in code signing section on Build tab of Target info, but you don't need a new dev and dist cert for each new app. Therefore is this right too? For each app you develop, you only need your original dev and dist cert, but a new app ID for each app. This is so obscure! I wish apple had done a better job!

    Read the article

  • When connecting SAP Business One to SQL Server 2005, what is the

    - by Nick
    we have SAP Business One - Fourth Shift Edition running here at a small manufacturing company. The consulting company that has come in to do the installation/implementation uses the "sa" id/pass to initially connect to the database to get the list of companies. From then on, I have to assume that its the sa id/pass that is being used to connect the client software to the database. Is this appropriate? I dont know where this data is being stored... as an ODBC connection? directly in the registry somewhere? Is it secure? Would it be better to set the users network ID in the database security and then use the "trusted connection" setting instead? Or do most people create a separate login in the database for each user and use that in the client settings? seems like the easiest way would be to add the users network login to the sql server security so they can use the "trusted connection"... but then wouldn't that allow ANY software to connect to the database from that machine? So anyways: what are the best-practices for setting this up?

    Read the article

  • How to copy x and y coordinate from one Flex component to another

    - by Tam
    Hi, I would like to base one component's x and y cooridnates according to another, I tried using the binding notation but it doesn't seem to work! <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:VGroup xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" xmlns:vld ="com.lal.validators.*" xmlns:effect="com.lal.effects.*" xmlns:components="com.lal.components.*" width="400" height="100%" right="0" horizontalAlign="right" verticalCenter="0"> ...... <s:VGroup width="125" height="100%" horizontalAlign="right" gap="0" width.normal="153" x.normal="247" width.expanded="199" x.expanded="201"> ...... <s:Panel includeIn="expanded" id="buttonsGroup" mouseOut="changeStateToNormal();" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" skinClass="com.lal.skins.TitlelessPanel" title="hi" right="0" width="125" height="700" > ..... <s:Label text="Jump To Date" paddingTop="20" /> <s:TextInput id="wholeDate" width="100" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" click="date1.visible = true" focusOut="date1.visible = false"/> ... </s:Panel> </s:VGroup> <mx:DateChooser id="date1" change="useDate(event); this.visible = false; " visible="false" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" y="{wholeDate.y}" x="{wholeDate.x}" /> </s:VGroup>

    Read the article

  • Extracting one word based on special character using Regular Expression in C#

    - by Jankhana
    I am not very good at regular expression but want to do some thing like this : string="c test123 d split" I want to split the word based on "c" and "d". this can be any word which i already have. The string will be given by the user. i want "test123" and "split" as my output. and there can be any number of words i.e "c test123 d split e new" etc. c d e i have already with me. I want just the next word after that word i.e after c i have test123 and after d i have split and after e i have new so i need test123 and split and new. how can I do this??? And one more thing I will pass just c first than d and than e. not together all of them. I tried string strSearchWord="c "; Regex testRegex1 = new Regex(strSearchWord); List lstValues = testRegex1.Split("c test123 d split").ToList(); But it's working only for last character i.e for d it's giving the last word but for c it includes test123 d split. How shall I do this???

    Read the article

  • Using diff and patch to force one local code base to look like another

    - by Dave Aaron Smith
    I've noticed this strange behavior of diff and patch when I've used them to force one code base to be identical to another. Let's say I want to update update_me to look identical to leave_unchanged. I go to update_me. I run a diff from leave_unchanged to update_me. Then I patch the diff into update_me. If there are new files in leave_unchanged, patch asks me if my patch was reversed! If I answer yes, it deletes the new files in leave_unchanged. Then, if I simply re-run the patch, it correctly patches update_me. Why does patch try to modify both leave_unchanged and update_me? What's the proper way to do this? I found a hacky way which is to replace all +++ lines with nonsense paths so patch can't find leave_unchanged. Then it works fine. It's such an ugly solution though. $ mkdir copyfrom $ mkdir copyto $ echo "Hello world" > copyfrom/myFile.txt $ cd copyto $ diff -Naur . ../copyfrom > my.diff $ less my.diff diff -Naur ./myFile.txt ../copyfrom/myFile.txt --- ./myFile.txt 1969-12-31 19:00:00.000000000 -0500 +++ ../copyfrom/myFile.txt 2010-03-15 17:21:22.000000000 -0400 @@ -0,0 +1 @@ +Hello world $ patch -p0 < my.diff The next patch would create the file ../copyfrom/myFile.txt, which already exists! Assume -R? [n] yes patching file ../copyfrom/myFile.txt $ patch -p0 < my.diff patching file ./myFile.txt

    Read the article

  • 2 different routes on one page?

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

    Read the article

  • SQL Query with multiple values in one column

    - by lp1
    I've been beating my head on the desk tring to figure this one out. I have a table that stores job information, and reasons for a job not being completed. The reasons are numeric,01,02,03,etc. You can have two reason for a pending job. If you select two reasons, they are stored in the same column, seperated by a comma. This is anExample from the JOBID table: Job_Number User_Assigned PendingInfo 1 user1 01,02 Now, there is another table named Pending, that stores what those values actually represent. 01=Not enough info, 02=Not enough time, 03=Waiting Review. Example: Pending_Num PendingWord 01 Not Enough Info 02 Not Enough Time What I'm trying to do is query the database to give me all the job numbers, users, pendinginfo, and pending reason. I can break out the first value, but can't figure out how to do the second. What my limited skills have so far: *select Job_number,user_assigned,SUBSTRING(pendinginfo,0,3),pendingword from jobid,pending where SUBSTRING(pendinginfo,0,3)=pending.pending_num and pendinginfo!='00,00' and pendinginfo!='NULL'* What I would like to see for this example would be: Job_Number User_Assigned PendingInfo PendingWord PendingInfo PendingWord 1 User1 01 Not Enough Info 02 Not Enough Time Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Starting a process in one HTTP call and getting results in another

    - by KillianDS
    Hi, I'm writing a very simple testing framework for my application, the design isn't perfect, but I don't have time to write something more complex. Essentially, I have a client and server-application, on my server I want a small python web server to start the server application with given test sequences on a GET or POST call. Also, the application prints some testdata to stderr which I'd like to catch and return in another HTTP call. At the moment I have this: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from BaseHTTPServer import BaseHTTPRequestHandler, HTTPServer p = None class MyHandler(BaseHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): global p if self.path.endswith("start/"): p = Popen(["./bin/Release/simplex264","BBB-360","127.0.0.1"], stderr=PIPE) print 'started' return elif self.path.endswith("getResults/"): self.wfile.write(p.stderr.read()) return self.send_error(404,'File Not Found: %s' % self.path) def main(): try: server = HTTPServer(('localhost', 9876), MyHandler) print 'Started server...' server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print 'Shutting down...' server.socket.close() if __name__ == '__main__': main() Which 'works', except for one part, when I try to open http://localhost:9876/start/, it does not return before the process ended. However, the 'started' appears in my shell immediately (I added this because I thought the Popen call would only return after execution). I do not know the perfect inner workings of Popen and BaseHTTPRequestHandler however and do not really know where it goes wrong. Is there any way to make this work asynchronously?

    Read the article

  • Submitting changes to 2 tables with C# linq only one table is changing

    - by Laurence Burke
    SO I am changing the values in 2 different tables and the only table changing is the address table any one know why? protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { TestDataClassDataContext dc = new TestDataClassDataContext(); var addr = (from a in dc.Addresses where a.AddressID == Convert.ToInt32(ddlAddList.SelectedValue) select a).FirstOrDefault(); var caddr = (from ca in dc.CustomerAddresses where addr.AddressID == ca.AddressID select ca).FirstOrDefault(); if (txtZip.Text != "" && txtAdd1.Text != "" && txtCity.Text != "") { addr.AddressLine1 = txtAdd1.Text; addr.AddressLine2 = txtAdd2.Text; addr.City = txtCity.Text; addr.PostalCode = txtZip.Text; addr.StateProvinceID = Convert.ToInt32(ddlState.SelectedValue); caddr.AddressTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(ddlAddrType.SelectedValue); dc.SubmitChanges(); lblErrMsg.Visible = false; lblSuccess.Visible = true; } else { lblErrMsg.Text = "Invalid Input"; lblErrMsg.Visible = true; } }

    Read the article

  • Applet panels, one fixed size, and dynamic JTextField

    - by Kristoffersen
    Hi, I need an applet which contains one panel. The panel needs to be 550x400 pixels, the JTextField needs to be under the panel dynamic size. I want it to be like this: [topPanel] [textPanel] However I am trying this, and it seems like the panel is filling all the space. The code: import java.awt.BorderLayout; import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Dimension; import javax.swing.JApplet; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.JTextField; public class Client extends JApplet { @Override public void init() { try { java.awt.EventQueue.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { public void run() { initComponents(); } }); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } private void initComponents() { JPanel topPanel = new javax.swing.JPanel(); topPanel.setBackground(Color.red); topPanel.setSize(550, 400); topPanel.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(550, 400)); topPanel.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(550, 400)); topPanel.setMaximumSize(new Dimension(550, 400)); JTextField myTextBox = new JTextField(255); getContentPane().add(topPanel, java.awt.BorderLayout.NORTH); getContentPane().add(myTextBox, java.awt.BorderLayout.SOUTH); } // TODO overwrite start(), stop() and destroy() methods } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • populating one checkedlistbox with another (checkedlistbox)

    - by 8thWonder
    I am having difficulties populating a checkedlistbox (CLB) based on the selection(s) made in another. It should also be noted that I have a "Select All" checkbox at the top that checks/unchecks all of the items in the first CLB. Here's the code: Private Sub chkSelectAll_CheckedChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles chkSelectAll.CheckedChanged For i As Integer = 0 To clb1.Items.Count - 1 clb1.SetItemChecked(i, chkSelectAll.Checked) Next End Sub Private Sub clb1_ItemCheck(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.ItemCheckEventArgs) Handles clb1.ItemCheck Dim i As Integer = clb1.SelectedIndex For j As Integer = 0 To al_2.Count - 1 If i = -1 Then For k As Integer = 0 To al_2.Count - 1 If Not clb2.Contains(al_2(k).sDate) Then clb2.Items.Add(al_2(k).sDate) Else : k += 1 End If Next ElseIf (e.NewValue = CheckState.Checked And al_2(j).sName = al_1(i)) Then clb2.Items.Add(al_2(j).sDate) ElseIf (e.NewValue = CheckState.Unchecked And al_2(j).sName = al_1(i)) Then clbProdBkups.Items.Remove(al_2(j).sDate) End If Next End Sub The first CLB is populated with an arraylist of values on the button click event. Based on whatever is checked in the first CLB, corresponding values from an arraylist of structures should fill the second CLB. The following code partially works until the "Select All" checkbox is clicked at which point one of two things happens: If other values have been selected before "Select All" is checked, the second CLB is filled with the correct number of corresponding values BUT only those of the most recently selected item of the first CLB instead of all of corresponding values of all of the items that were not already selected. When "Select All" is unchecked, the most recently incorrect values are removed, everything in CLB 1 is unchecked but the values in CLB 2 that were selected before "Select All" was checked remain. If "Select All" is checked before anything else is selected, I get an "unable to cast object of type 'System.String' to type 'System.Windows.Forms.Control'" error that points to the following statement from the itemcheck event: If Not clb2.Contains(al_2(k).sDate) Then Any insights will be greatly appreciated. ~8th

    Read the article

  • Complex SQL query, one to many relationship

    - by Ethan
    Hey SO, I have a query such that I need to get A specific dog All comments relating to that dog The user who posted each comment All links to images of the dog the user who posted each link I've tried a several things, and can't figure out quite how to work it. Here's what I have (condensed so you don't have to wade through it all): SELECT s.dog_id, s.name, c.comment, c.date_added AS comment_date_added, u.username AS comment_username, u.user_id AS comment_user_id, l.link AS link, l.date_added AS link_date_added, u2.username AS link_username, u2.user_id AS link_user_id FROM dogs AS d LEFT JOIN comments AS c ON c.dog_id = d.dog_id LEFT JOIN users AS u ON c.user_id = u.user_id LEFT JOIN links AS l ON l.dog_id = d.dog_id LEFT JOIN users AS u2 ON l.user_id = u2.user_id WHERE d.dog_id = '1' It's sorta close to working, but it'll only return me the first comment, and the first link all as one big array with all the info i requested. The are multiple comments and links per dog, so I need it to give me all the comments and all the links. Ideally it'd return an object with dog_id, name, comments(an array of the comments), links(an array of the links) and then comments would have a bunch of comments, date_added, username, and user_id and links would have a bunch of links with link, date_added, username and user_id. It's got to work even if there are no links or comments. I learned the basics of mySQL somewhat recently, but this is pretty far over my head. Any help would be wonderful. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why Stream/lazy val implementation using is faster than ListBuffer one

    - by anrizal
    I coded the following implementation of lazy sieve algorithms using Stream and lazy val below : def primes(): Stream[Int] = { lazy val ps = 2 #:: sieve(3) def sieve(p: Int): Stream[Int] = { p #:: sieve( Stream.from(p + 2, 2). find(i=> ps.takeWhile(j => j * j <= i). forall(i % _ > 0)).get) } ps } and the following implementation using (mutable) ListBuffer: import scala.collection.mutable.ListBuffer def primes(): Stream[Int] = { def sieve(p: Int, ps: ListBuffer[Int]): Stream[Int] = { p #:: { val nextprime = Stream.from(p + 2, 2). find(i=> ps.takeWhile(j => j * j <= i). forall(i % _ > 0)).get sieve(nextprime, ps += nextprime) } } sieve(3, ListBuffer(3))} When I did primes().takeWhile(_ < 1000000).size , the first implementation is 3 times faster than the second one. What's the explanation for this ? I edited the second version: it should have been sieve(3, ListBuffer(3)) instead of sieve(3, ListBuffer()) .

    Read the article

  • Collapsing data frame by selecing one row per group

    - by jkebinger
    I'm trying to collapse a data frame by removing all but one row from each group of rows with identical values in a particular column. In other words, the first row from each group. For example, I'd like to convert this > d = data.frame(x=c(1,1,2,4),y=c(10,11,12,13),z=c(20,19,18,17)) > d x y z 1 1 10 20 2 1 11 19 3 2 12 18 4 4 13 17 Into this: x y z 1 1 11 19 2 2 12 18 3 4 13 17 I'm using aggregate to do this currently, but the performance is unacceptable with more data: > d.ordered = d[order(-d$y),] > aggregate(d.ordered,by=list(key=d.ordered$x),FUN=function(x){x[1]}) I've tried split/unsplit with the same function argument as here, but unsplit complains about duplicate row numbers. Is rle a possibility? Is there an R idiom to convert rle's length vector into the indices of the rows that start each run, which I can then use to pluck those rows out of the data frame?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122  | Next Page >