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• WPF RelativeSource FindAncestor doesn't work outside of the Control.Resources context?

  - by sker

  I have this VisualBrush resource I took from some site and I apply it with triggers to a TextBox. <VisualBrush x:Key="HelpBrush" TileMode="None" Opacity="0.4" Stretch="None" AlignmentX="Left"> <VisualBrush.Visual> <TextBlock FontStyle="Italic" Text="{Binding Path=Tag, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Control}, AncestorLevel=1}}"/> </VisualBrush.Visual> </VisualBrush> <Style x:Key="DefaultText" TargetType="TextBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Text" Value="{x:Null}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource HelpBrush}"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="Text" Value=""> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource HelpBrush}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> If I place both the VisualBrush and the Style inside the TextBox.Resources tag in XAML, it works fine. But if I take it out and place it in the Window.Resources or a merged dictionary, it stops working. The problem is the Binding, it doesn't find the ancestor TextBox for some reason. I already tried removing AncestorLevel and using AncestorType={x:Type TextBox} - it doesn't work. Any ideas?

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• UpdateModel() fails after migration from MVC 1.0 to MVC 2.0

  - by Alastair Pitts

  We are in the process of migrating our ASP.NET MVC 1.0 web app to MVC 2.0 but we have run into a small snag. In our report creation wizard, it is possible leave the Title text box empty and have it be populated with a generic title (in the post action). The code that does the update on the model of the Title is: if (TryUpdateModel(reportToEdit, new[] { "Title" })) { //all ok here try to create (custom validation and attach to graph to follow) //if title is empty get config subject if (reportToEdit.Title.Trim().Length <= 0) reportToEdit.Title = reportConfiguration.Subject; if (!_service.CreateReport(1, reportToEdit, SelectedUser.ID, reportConfigID, reportCategoryID, reportTypeID, deviceUnitID)) return RedirectToAction("Index"); } In MVC 1.0, this works correctly,the reportToEdit has an empty title if the textbox is empty, which is then populated with the Subject property. In MVC 2.0 this fails/returns false. If I add the line above: UpdateModel(reportToEdit, new[] { "Title" }); it throws System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message="The model of type 'Footprint.Web.Models.Reports' could not be updated." Source="System.Web.Mvc" StackTrace: at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.UpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String prefix, String[] includeProperties, String[] excludeProperties, IValueProvider valueProvider) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.UpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String[] includeProperties) at Footprint.Web.Controllers.ReportsController.Step1(FormCollection form) in C:\TFS Workspace\ExtBusiness_Footprint\Branches\apitts_uioverhaul\Footprint\Footprint.Web\Controllers\ReportsController.cs:line 398 at lambda_method(ExecutionScope , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.<>c__DisplayClassd.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__a() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) InnerException: Reading the MVC2 Release notes I see this breaking change: Every property for model objects that use IDataErrorInfo to perform validation is validated, regardless of whether a new value was set. In ASP.NET MVC 1.0, only properties that had new values set would be validated. In ASP.NET MVC 2, the Error property of IDataErrorInfo is called only if all the property validators were successful. but I'm confused how this is affecting me. I'm using the entity framework generated classes. Can anyone pinpoint why this is failing?

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• WPF - How to bind a DataGridTemplateColumn

  - by Andy T

  Hi, I am trying to get the name of the property associated with a particular DataGridColumn, so that I can then do some stuff based on that. This function is called when the user clicks context menu item on the column's header... This is fine for the out-of-the-box ready-rolled column types like DataGridTextColumn, since they are bound, but the problem is that some of my columns are DataGridTemplateColumns, which are not bound. private void GroupByField_Click (object sender, RoutedEventArgs e){ MenuItem mi = (MenuItem)sender; ContextMenu cm = (ContextMenu) mi.Parent; DataGridColumnHeader dgch = (DataGridColumnHeader) cm.PlacementTarget; DataGridBoundColumn dgbc = (DataGridBoundColumn) dgch.Column; Binding binding = (Binding) dgbc.Binding; string BoundPropName = binding.Path.Path; //Do stuff based on bound property name here... } So, take for example my 'Name' column... it's a DataGridTemplateColumn (since it has an image and some other stuff in there). Therefore, it is not actually bound to the 'Name' property... but I would like to be, so that the above code will work. My question is two-part, really: 1) Is it possible to make a DataGridTemplateColumn be BOUND, so that the above code would work? Can I bind it somehow to a property? 2) Or do I need to something entirely different, and change the code above? Thanks in advance! AT

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• No Persistence provider for EntityManager named ...

  - by Robert A Henru

  I have my persistence.xml with the same name, using toplink, under META-INF directory. Then I have my code calling it with... EntityManagerFactory emfdb = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("agisdb"); Yet, I got the following error message 2009-07-21 09:22:41,018 [main] ERROR - No Persistence provider for EntityManager named agisdb javax.persistence.PersistenceException: No Persistence provider for EntityManager named agisdb at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:89) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:60) Here is the persistence.xml... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" version="1.0"> <persistence-unit name="agisdb"> <class>com.agis.livedb.domain.AddressEntity</class> <class>com.agis.livedb.domain.TrafficCameraEntity</class> <class>com.agis.livedb.domain.TrafficPhotoEntity</class> <class>com.agis.livedb.domain.TrafficReportEntity</class> <properties> <property name="toplink.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/agisdb"/> <property name="toplink.jdbc.driver" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/> <property name="toplink.jdbc.user" value="root"/> <property name="toplink.jdbc.password" value="password"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> It should have been in the classpath... Yet, I got the above error... Really appreciate any help... Thanks

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• How to force multiple Interfaces to include certain the same properties?

  - by Jed

  I am trying to figure out a way to force all of my Interfaces to include properties of the same name/type. For example: I have two Interfaces; IGetAlarms and IGetDiagnostics. Each of the Interfaces will contain properties that are specific to the Interface itself, however I want to force the two Interfaces (and all other Interfaces that may be added later) to include properties of the same name. So, the result may look something like the this: interface IGetAlarms { string GetAlarms(); DateTime LastRuntime { get; set; } } interface IGetDiagnostics { string GetDiagnostics(); DateTime LastRuntime { get; set; } } Notice that both Interfaces include a DateTime property named LastRuntime. I would like to know if there is some way I can force other Interfaces that will be added later to include the DateTime LastRuntime property. I have naively attempted to have all my Interfaces implement another Interface (IService) - which includes the LastRuntime property. However, that doesn't solve my problem as that simply forces the class to implement the property - not all the Interfaces. Thanks.

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• How can I set PivotField.Calculation in Excel/VSTO?

  - by Kang Su

  I'm trying to set the Calculation property on an OLAP PivotField with VSTO 3.0. For example: pivotField.Calculation = XlPivotFieldCalculation.PercentOf; If I do the above, the value I assign does not stay (Excel appears to revert the change). I suspect the reason is that the BaseField property of the PivotField also needs to be populated (as PercentOf needs a BaseField). But it appears to me that you can't set the BaseField property until you've set the Calculation property (otherwise you get a COMException). I've tried to set ManualUpdate on the PivotTable to true, but with VSTO this rarely works, as this gets reverted immediately back to false. Note, that this seems to work fine in VBA as you can assign multiple values in a single statement, like this: With ActiveSheet.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("[Measures].[Reseller Sales Amount]") .Calculation = xlPercentOf .BaseField = "[Geography].[Geography].[Country]" .BaseItem = "[Geography].[Geography].[Country].&[France]" .NumberFormat = "0.00%" End With But with C#/VSTO there's no construct like this (that I know of) and I'm stuck not able to do something like the above. Further note, Calculation values that don't require a BaseField, e.g., XlPivotFieldCalculation.xlPercentOfTotal, get set just fine. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated!

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• EF4 querying from parent to grandchildren

  - by Hans Kesting

  I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select all data of it's grandchildren. That's a lot of separate queries! Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing methods I need, like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the navigation property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

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• Which pattern should be used for editing properties with modal view controller on iPhone?

  - by Matthew Daugherty

  I am looking for a good pattern for performing basic property editing via a modal view on the iPhone. Assume I am putting together an application that works like the Contacts application. The "detail" view controller displays all of the contact's properties in a UITableView. When the UITableView goes into edit mode a disclosure icon is displayed in the cells. Clicking a cell causes a modal "editor" view controller to display a view that allows the user to modify the selected property. This view will often contain only a single text box or picker. The user clicks Cancel/Save and the "editor" view is dismissed and the "detail" view is updated. In this scenario, which view is responsible for updating the model? The "editor" view could update the property directly using Key-Value Coding. This appears in the CoreDataBooks example. This makes sense to me on some level because it treats the property as the model for the editor view controller. However, this is not the pattern suggested by the View Controller Programming Guide. It suggests that the "editor" view controller should define a protocol that the "detail" controller adopts. When the user indicates they are done with the edit, the "detail" view controller is called back with the entered value and it dismisses the "editor" view. Using this approach the "detail" controller updates the model. This approach seems problematic if you are using the same "editor" view for multiple properties since there is only a single call-back method. Would love to get some feedback on what approach works best.

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• C# to find JobId, Owner, TotalPages from Printer

  - by tanthiamhuat

  My below code works when the Form loads and I can get a list of Network Printers in listBox1. I am also able to see a specific printer's property name and value in listBox2. private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (String printer in PrinterSettings.InstalledPrinters) { listBox1.Items.Add(printer.ToString()); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string printerName = "Ricoh-L4-1"; string query = string.Format("SELECT * from Win32_Printer WHERE Name LIKE '%{0}'", printerName); ManagementObjectSearcher searcher = new ManagementObjectSearcher(query); ManagementObjectCollection coll = searcher.Get(); foreach (ManagementObject printer in coll) { foreach (PropertyData property in printer.Properties) { listBox2.Items.Add(string.Format("{0}: {1}", property.Name, property.Value)); } } } But when I try to find JobId, Owner, TotalPages for a particular printer (when I actually send jobs to print to that printer), those values do not display at all. private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { listBox2.Items.Clear(); string printerName = "Ricoh-L4-1"; string query = string.Format("SELECT * from Win32_PrintJob WHERE Name LIKE '%{0}'", printerName); ManagementObjectSearcher SearchPrintJobs = new ManagementObjectSearcher(query); ManagementObjectCollection PrntJobCollection = SearchPrintJobs.Get(); foreach (ManagementObject PrntJob in PrntJobCollection) { string m_JobID = PrntJob.Properties["JobId"].Value.ToString(); string m_Owner = PrntJob.Properties["Owner"].Value.ToString(); string m_TotalPages = PrntJob.Properties["TotalPages"].Value.ToString(); listBox2.Items.Add(string.Format("{0}:{1}:{2}", m_JobID,m_Owner,m_TotalPages)); } } Do you have any idea how to get above to work? thanks in advance.

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• Mapping parent-child relationships with iBatis

  - by agnul

  I have the classic setup public class Parent { Integer id; ... // No generics Collection someCollectionAttribute; ... public void setChildren(Collection c) { ... } } public class Child { Integer id; ... } and I'm trying to map this on the usual table setup using iBatis (version 2.30... don't ask). create table parents ( ID integer primary key ... ) create table children ( ID integer primary key PARENT_ID integer references parents(id) ... ) My mapping file looks like this <resultMap id="ParentResult" groupBy="id"> <result property="id" column="ID" /> ... <result property="children" resultMap="ChildResult" /> </resultMap> <resultMap id="ChildResult"> <result property="id" column="ID" /> <result property="parentId" column="PARENT_ID" /> ... </result> <sql id="loadParent" resultMap="ParentResult"> select P.ID as p1, ..., C.ID as c1, C.PARENT_ID as c2 ... from parents P join children C on (P.ID = C.PARENT_ID) where P.ID = #id# order by P.ID </sql> Doing the usual sqlMap.queryForObject("loadParent", new Integer(42)) at first caused a NullPointerException inside the setChildren setter which apparently is called with a null argument (my bad). Fixing the setter everything works fine, but the logs show that setChildren is called only once before even running a single SQL statement, still with a null argument, so I'm wondering what's going on here. Anyone has any clues?

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• TDD - testing business rules/validation in ASP.NET MVC

  - by csetzkorn

  Hi, I am using the sharp architecture so I can easily use mocks etc. in my unit tests and/or during TDD. I have quite complicated business rules and would like to test them at the controller level. I am just wondering how other people do this? For me validation tests business rules at three levels: (1) Property level (e.g. property is required) (2) Intra property level (e.g. start date < end date) (3) Persistence level (e.g. name is unique, parent cannot be child of child) My validation framework also assigns errors to properties. I am just wondering what other people do? Do you write a test for each business rule and check whether the correct error message is assigned to the correct property (i.e. looking at the ASP.MVC ModelState)? I hope my question makes sense. Thanks a lot! Best wishes, Christian

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• WPF Usercontrol interaction with parent view / viewmodel

  - by obaylis

  Hi I have a mainView window which has its dataContext set to it's own viewModel. On that viewModel is a DateTime property which in turn is bound to a datepicker on my main view using 2 way binding. <toolkit:DatePicker DateSelected="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty, Mode=TwoWay}" /> This is all fine so far. On the change of my datetime property I create a list which is then bound to a datagrid elsewhere on the mainview. This all works fine. My question is to do with a usercontrol I want to add to the main view. I want this usercontrol to be self contained so have created it with it's own viewmodel but it does also need access to mainDateTimeProperty I thought that best way to go would be to create a dependencyProperty on the usercontrol and when I create my control in the main view I bind the dp to the datetime as follows. <uc:MyNewUserControl DateProperty="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty}" /> Trouble is how do I have the usercontrol maintain datacontext with it's viewmodel and yet still have the dependency property bound to a property on the main view model? Hope this is clear. Can post some more code if necessary. Looking for a best practice approach if possible. Thanks very much for any advice.

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• My SqlComand on SSIS - DataFlow OLE DB Command seems not works

  - by Angel Escobedo

  Hello Im using OLE DB Source for get rows from a dBase IV file and it works, then I split the data and perform a group by with aggregate component. So I obtain a row with two columns with "null" value : CompanyID | CompanyName | SubTotal | Tax | TotalRevenue Null Null 145487 27642.53 173129.53 this success because all rows have been grouped with out taking care about the firsts columns and just Summing the valuable columns, so I need to change that null for default values as CompanyID = "100000000" and CompanyName = "Others". I try use SqlCommand on a OLE DB Command Component : SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC <property id="1505" name="SqlCommand" dataType="System.String" state="default" isArray="false" description="The SQL command to be executed." typeConverter="" UITypeEditor="Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls.ModalMultilineStringEditor, Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91" containsID="false" expressionType="Notify">SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC</property> but nothings happens, why? and finally the task finish when the data is inserted on a SQL Server Table. Im using the same connection manager on extracting data and transform. (View Code) <DTS:Property DTS:Name="ConnectionString">Data Source=C:\CONTA\Resocen\Agosto\;Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Persist Security Info=False;Extended Properties=dBASE IV;</DTS:Property></DTS:ConnectionManager></DTS:ObjectData></DTS:ConnectionManager> all work is on memory, Im not using cache manager connections

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• vbCrLf in Multiline TextBox shows up only when .Trim() is called

  - by Brandon Montgomery

  I have an ASP TextBox with TextMode set to MultiLine. I'm having problems with preserving the vbCrLf characters when a user tries to put line breaks into the text. When a button on the page is pressed, I'm taking the text from the control, trimming it using String.Trim, and assigning that value to a String property on an object (which, in turn assigns it to a private internal String variable on the object). The object then takes the value from the private internal variable and throws it into the database using a stored procedure call (the SP parameter it is put into is an nvarchar(4000)). ASPX Page: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server" RenderMode="Inline" UpdateMode="Conditional" ChildrenAsTriggers="true"> <ContentTemplate> <!-- some other controls and things --> <asp:TextBox TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" ID="txtComments" Width="100%" Height="60px" CssClass="TDTextArea" Style="border: 0px;" MaxLength="2000" /> <!-- some other controls and things --> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> code behind: ProjectRequest.StatusComments = txtComments.Text.Trim object property: Protected mStatusComments As String = String.Empty Property StatusComments() As String Get Return mStatusComments.Trim End Get Set(ByVal Value As String) mStatusComments = Value End Set End Property stored proc call: Common.RunSP(mDBConnStr, "ProjectStatusUpdate", _ Common.MP("@UID", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 40, mUID), _ Common.MP("@ProjID", SqlDbType.VarChar, 40, mID), _ Common.MP("@StatusID", SqlDbType.Int, 8, mStatusID), _ Common.MP("@Comments", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 4000, mStatusComments), _ Common.MP("@PCTComp", SqlDbType.Int, 4, 0), _ Common.MP("@Type", Common.TDSqlDbType.TinyInt, 1, EntryType)) Here's the strangest part. When I debug the code, if I type "test test" (without the quotes) into the comments text box, then click the save button and use the immediate window to view the variable values as I step through, here is what I get: ?txtComments.Text "test test" ?txtComments.Text.Trim "test test" ?txtComments.Text(4) " "c ?txtComments.Text.Trim()(4) " "c Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here?

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• Wrapped WPF Control

  - by Robert

  Hi, I'm trying to create a GUI (WPF) Library where each (custom) control basically wraps an internal (third party) control. Then, I'm manually exposing each property (not all of them, but almost). In XAML the resulting control is pretty straightforward: <my:CustomButton Content="ClickMe" /> And the code behind is quite simple as well: public class CustomButton : Control { private MyThirdPartyButton _button = null; static CustomButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(CustomButton))); } public CustomButton() { _button = new MyThirdPartyButton(); this.AddVisualChild(_button); } protected override int VisualChildrenCount { get { return _button == null ? 0 : 1; } } protected override Visual GetVisualChild(int index) { if (_button == null) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); } return _button; } #region Property: Content public Object Content { get { return GetValue(ContentProperty); } set { SetValue(ContentProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Content", typeof(Object), typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(new PropertyChangedCallback(ChangeContent)) ); private static void ChangeContent(DependencyObject source, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { (source as CustomButton).UpdateContent(e.NewValue); } private void UpdateContent(Object sel) { _button.Content = sel; } #endregion } The problem comes after we expose MyThirdPartyButton as a property (in case we don't expose something, we would like to give the programmer the means to use it directly). By simply creating the property, like this: public MyThirdPartyButton InternalControl { get { return _button; } set { if (_button != value) { this.RemoveVisualChild(_button); _button = value; this.AddVisualChild(_button); } } } The resulting XAML would be this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl> <thirdparty:MyThirdPartyButton Content="ClickMe" /> </my:CustomButton.InternalControl> And what I'm looking for, is something like this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl Content="ClickMe" /> But (with the code I have) its impossible to add attributes to InternalControl... Any ideas/suggestions? Thanks a lot, -- Robert

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• Using Mapping Models to migrate between Core Data Object Models

  - by westsider

  I have a fairly simply scheme. Essentially, Run <-- Data (where a Run holds a data, e.g., Temperature, sampled from some sort of sensor). Now, it seems that sensors can have more than one measurement (e.g., Temperature and Humidity). So, a single Run could have multiple data samples. Hence, Run <-- Sample and Sample <-- Data. (And for simplicity I am leaving Run <-- Data in place, for now.) If I create a new mapping model, then things generally work - except that no new Samples are created, no relationships are established between Runs and Samples nor between Samples and Datas. I am trying to get mapping model to migrate my model but even the slightest change to the generated mapping model results in Cocoa error 134110. For example, if I take the "Sample" mapping (which has no Source) and set its Source to 'Run' (so that I can set Sample's inverse relationship 'run' appropriately) then the mapping changes its name to "RunToSample". There are two relationships handled in this mapping: data and run. The data property gets set automatically to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "DataToData", $source.dataSet) Following this example, I set the run property to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToRun", $source) Similarly, I set the 'sample' property mapping in RunToRun to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToSample", $source) and the 'sample' property in DataToData to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToSample", $source.run) So, what, I wonder, is going wrong? I have tried various permutations, such as leaving the 'inverse' relationships unspecified. But I continue to get the same error (134110) regardless. I imagine that this is a lot easier than it seems and that I am missing some fundamental but minor piece. I have also tried subclassing NSEntityMigrationPolicy and overriding -createDestinationInstancesForSourceInstance: but these efforts have met with much the same results. Thanks in advance for any pointers or (relevant :-) advice.

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• How to use Castle Windsor with ASP.Net web forms?

  - by Xian

  I am trying to wire up dependency injection with Windsor to standard asp.net web forms. I think I have achieved this using a HttpModule and a CustomAttribute (code shown below), although the solution seems a little clunky and was wondering if there is a better supported solution out of the box with Windsor? There are several files all shown together here // index.aspx.cs public partial class IndexPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Logger.Write("page loading"); } [Inject] public ILogger Logger { get; set; } } // WindsorHttpModule.cs public class WindsorHttpModule : IHttpModule { private HttpApplication _application; private IoCProvider _iocProvider; public void Init(HttpApplication context) { _application = context; _iocProvider = context as IoCProvider; if(_iocProvider == null) { throw new InvalidOperationException("Application must implement IoCProvider"); } _application.PreRequestHandlerExecute += InitiateWindsor; } private void InitiateWindsor(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { Page currentPage = _application.Context.CurrentHandler as Page; if(currentPage != null) { InjectPropertiesOn(currentPage); currentPage.InitComplete += delegate { InjectUserControls(currentPage); }; } } private void InjectUserControls(Control parent) { if(parent.Controls != null) { foreach (Control control in parent.Controls) { if(control is UserControl) { InjectPropertiesOn(control); } InjectUserControls(control); } } } private void InjectPropertiesOn(object currentPage) { PropertyInfo[] properties = currentPage.GetType().GetProperties(); foreach(PropertyInfo property in properties) { object[] attributes = property.GetCustomAttributes(typeof (InjectAttribute), false); if(attributes != null && attributes.Length > 0) { object valueToInject = _iocProvider.Container.Resolve(property.PropertyType); property.SetValue(currentPage, valueToInject, null); } } } } // Global.asax.cs public class Global : System.Web.HttpApplication, IoCProvider { private IWindsorContainer _container; public override void Init() { base.Init(); InitializeIoC(); } private void InitializeIoC() { _container = new WindsorContainer(); _container.AddComponent<ILogger, Logger>(); } public IWindsorContainer Container { get { return _container; } } } public interface IoCProvider { IWindsorContainer Container { get; } }

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• Multiple Jira instances on a single Tomcat 6 server?

  - by davidhayes

  I have a feeling this is a stupid question but I can't find the answer anywhere... I need to deploy 2 Jira instances on asingle Tomcat server, I can't figure out how to pass in the jira.home property The documentation says I need to:- Add a web context property called 'jira.home' — this property is set in different files depending on your application server. For example, for Tomcat (and therefore for JIRA Standalone), you will need to configure the server.xml file. For other application servers you may need to configure the web.xml file, or set 'Context parameter' options on the deployment UI of the application server, etc. Note that If you have specified a JIRA home in jira-application.properties (ie. the recommended method), it will override your web context property. I was hoping something like this would work. <Context jira.home="d:/jira/data" path="" docBase="D:\Jira\atlassian-jira-enterprise-4.1\dist-tomcat\tomcat-6\atlassian-jira-4.1.war" debug="0"> <Resource name="jdbc/JiraDS" auth="Container" type="javax.sql.DataSource" username="sa" password="*****" driverClassName="net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.Driver" url="jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://*****:1433/jira41_519;user=****;password=****" /> <Resource name="UserTransaction" auth="Container" type="javax.transaction.UserTransaction" factory="org.objectweb.jotm.UserTransactionFactory" jotm.timeout="60"/> <Manager pathname=""/> </Context> Any ideas??

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• Using Doctype in Nhibernate

  - by sukh

  Hi I am trying to keep common properties of base class in one location and use XML ENTITY to refer in Nhibernate mapping file. Mapping file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping [ <!ENTITY BasePropertyList SYSTEM "BasePropertyList.xml"> ]> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Model" namespace= "Model" default-lazy="false"> <class name="DerivedClass"> &BasePropertyList; </class> </hibernate-mapping> BasePropertyList.xml <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native"></generator> </id> <property name="CreatedDate" update="false" /> <property name="CreatedBy" update="false" /> <property name="LastModifiedDate" /> <property name="LastModifiedBy" /> I am getting following exception System.Xml.XmlException : DTD is prohibited in this XML document. at NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.LogAndThrow(Exception exception) Am I missing anything here? How DOCTYPE works in Nhibernate mapping file??

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• Setting ItemTemplate based on CheckBox value

  - by ph0enix

  I have a DataTemplate which contains a CheckBox and ListBox. When the CheckBox is checked, I want to change the ItemTemplate property on the ListBox to change the appearance of each item. Right now, it looks like this: <DataTemplate DataType={x:Type MyViewModel}> <DockPanel> <CheckBox DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" Content="Show Details" HorizontalAlignment="Right" IsChecked="{Binding ShowDetails}" Margin="0 5 10 5" /> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Items}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource SimpleItemTemplate}" Margin="10 0 10 5"> <ListBox.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ShowDetails}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ItemTemplate" Value="{StaticResource DetailedItemTemplate}" /> </DataTrigger> </ListBox.Triggers> </ListBox> </DockPanel> </DataTemplate> However, when I try to compile, I get the following error messages: Value 'ItemTemplate' cannot be assigned to property 'Property'. Invalid PropertyDescriptor value. and Cannot find the static member 'ItemTemplateProperty' on the type 'ContentPresenter'. I'm still fairly new to WPF, so perhaps there is something I'm not quite understanding?

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• How can I get the Hibernate Configuration object from Spring?

  - by Wayne Russell

  Hi, I am trying to obtain Spring-defined Hibernate Configuration and SessionFactory objects in my non-Spring code. The following is the definition in my applicationContext.xml file: Code: <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cglib.use_reflection_optimizer">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.HashtableCacheProvider</prop> </props> </property> <property name="dataSource"> <ref bean="dataSource"/> </property> </bean> If I now call getBean("sessionFactory"), I am returned a $Proxy0 object which appears to be a proxy for the Hibernate SessionFactory object. But that isn't what I want - I need the LocalSessionFactoryBean itself because I need access to the Configuration as well as the SessionFactory. The reason I need the Configuration object is that our framework is able to use Hibernate's dynamic model to automatically insert mappings at runtime; this requires that we change the Configuration and rebuild the SessionFactory. Really, all we're trying to do is obtain the Hibernate config that already exists in Spring so that those of our customers that already have that information in Spring don't need to duplicate it into a hibernate.cfg.xml file in order to use our Hibernate features.

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• How to make Fluent NHibernate ignore Dictionary properties

  - by Matt Winckler

  I'm trying to make Fluent NHibernate's automapping ignore a Dictionary property on one of my classes, but Fluent is ignoring me instead. Ignoring other types of properties seems to work fine, but even after following the documentation and adding an override for the Dictionary, I still get the following exception when BuildSessionFactory is called: The type or method has 2 generic parameter(s), but 1 generic argument(s) were provided. A generic argument must be provided for each generic parameter. I've tried overriding by property name: .Override<MyClass>(map => { map.IgnoreProperty(x => x.MyDictionaryProperty); }) and also tried implementing ignores using a custom attribute, both of which result in the same exception from BuildSessionFactory. The only thing so far that makes this exception go away is removing the Dictionary property entirely. My question seems to be identical to this one which was never answered (though I'll expand the scope by stating it doesn't matter whether the dictionary is on an abstract base class; the problem always happens for me regardless of what class the property is on). Any takers this time around?

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• In which order is model binding and validation done in ASP.NET MVC 2?

  - by Simon Bartlett

  I am using ASP.NET MVC 2, and am using a view-model per view approach. I am also using Automapper to map properties from my domain-model to the view-model. Take this example view-model (with Required data annotation attributes for validation purposes): public class BlogPost_ViewModel { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public string Text { get; set; } } In the post editor view I am using a rich text editor (CKeditor). Because CKeditor is a HTML editor, I ideally need CKeditor to HTMLencode the user's input when the form is submitted, so that ASP.NET's input validation does not complain. This is not a problem as CKeditor has this functionality built in, however I need CKeditor's output decoded before mapping back to the domain object (via Automapper). I am wanting to add a new property (to the view-model above) to solve this, as follows: public string HTMLEncodedText { get { return HTMLEncode(Text); } set { Text = HTMLDecode(value); } } I can then bind this property to CKeditor in the view, but still use Automapper to map the 'Text' property in the controller - all without having to turn input-validation off. My question is: do you know how the model binding and validation process in ASP.NET MVC 2 works? Are all model properties binded before validation is carried out? Or is each individual property get validated when it is being set. I think ideally for my idea to work, all properties need to be set before the model is validated.

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• WPF: How do I get a reference to a styled window control in code behind?

  - by Brad

  I have a window defined with a style: <Window x:Class="winBorderless" x:Name="winBorderless" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:Local="clr-namespace:WindowStyle" Style="{StaticResource Window_Cartesia}" WindowStartupLocation="CenterScreen" BorderThickness="1" BorderBrush="#FF9CAAC1" Margin="5" Title="[Document Title]"> and the style defined in an application level dictionary: <Style x:Key="Window_Cartesia" TargetType="{x:Type Window}"> <Setter Property="WindowStyle" Value="None"/> <Setter Property="AllowsTransparency" Value="True"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Transparent"/> <EventSetter Event="Loaded" Handler="Loaded"/> <EventSetter Event="PreviewKeyDown" Handler="Preview_KeyDown"/> <EventSetter Event="MouseMove" Handler="FullScreen_MouseMove"/> <Setter Property="Template"> In code behind I have a reference to the Window instance set: Win = DirectCast(sender, winBorderless) This allows access to the window properties as the EventSetters pass references to the various controls. However, it doesn't provide for access to the controls defined in the style through the window reference as they don't exist there. So, what is the best way to reference a control through code behind that is defined in the style. I'd prefer not to iterate the trees to find them but ya gotta do....

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• Entity Framework query

  - by carter-boater

  Hi all, I have a piece of code that I don't know how to improve it. I have two entities: EntityP and EntityC. EntityP is the parent of EntityC. It is 1 to many relationship. EntityP has a property depending on a property of all its attached EntityC. I need to load a list of EntityP with the property set correctly. So I wrote a piece of code to get the EntityP List first.It's called entityP_List. Then as I wrote below, I loop through the entityP_List and for each of them, I query the database with a "any" function which will eventually be translated to "NOT EXIST" sql query. The reason I use this is that I don't want to load all the attached entityC from database to memory, because I only need the aggregation value of their property. But the problem here is, the looping will query the databae many times, for each EntityP! So I am wondering if anybody can help me improve the code to query the database only once to get all the EntityP.IsAll_C_Complete set, without load EntityC to memory. foreach(EntityP p in entityP_List) { isAnyNotComoplete = entities.entityC.Any(c => c.IsComplete==false && c.parent.ID == p.ID); p.IsAll_C_Complete = !isAnyNotComoplete; } Thank you very much!

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