Search Results

Search found 31367 results on 1255 pages for 'table valued parameters'.

Page 118/1255 | < Previous Page | 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125  | Next Page >

  • C++ arrays as parameters, EDIT: now includes variable scoping

    - by awshepard
    Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong? EDIT Oh fun, I have a typo: it wasn't void someFunction(double results[]). It was: void someFunction(double result[])... So perhaps this is turning into a scoping question. If my double result[16] array is defined in a main.cpp, and someFunction is defined in a Utils.h file that's included by the main.cpp, does the result variable in someFunction then wreak havoc on the result array in main?

    Read the article

  • Update table using SSIS

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to update a field in a table with data from another table, based on a common key. If it were in straight SQL, it would be something like: Update EHSIT set e.IDMSObjID = s.IDMSObjID from EHSIT e, EHSIDMS s where e.SITENUM = s.SITE_CODE However, the two tables are not in the same database, so I'm trying to use SSIS to do the update. Oh, and the sitenum/site_code are varchar in one and nvarchar in the other, so I'll have to do a data conversion so they'll match. How do I do it? I have a data flow object, with the source as EHSIDMS and the destination as EHSIT. I have a data conversion to convert the unicode to non-unicode. But how do I update based on the match? I've tried with the destination, using a SQL Command as the Data Access mode, but it doesn't appear to have the source table. If I just map the field to be updated, how does it limit it based on fields matching? I'm about to export my source table to Excel or something, and then try inputting from there, although it seems that all that would get me would be to remove the data conversion step. Shouldn't there be an update data task or something? Is it one of those Data Flow transformation tasks, and I'm just not figuring out which it is?

    Read the article

  • Create unique identifier for different row-groups

    - by Max van der Heijden
    I want to number certain combinations of row in a dataframe (which is ordered on ID and on Time) tc <- textConnection(' id time end_yn number abc 10 0 1 abc 11 0 2 abc 12 1 3 abc 13 0 1 def 10 0 1 def 15 1 2 def 16 0 1 def 17 0 2 def 18 1 3 ') test <- read.table(tc, header=TRUE) The goal is to create a new column ("journey_nr") that give a unique number to each row based on the journey it belongs to. Journeys are defined as a sequence of rows per id up until to end_yn == 1, also if end_ynnever becomes 1, the journey should also be numbered (see the expected outcome example). It is only possible to have end_yn == 0 journeys at the end of a collection of rows for an ID (as shown at row 4 for id 3). So either no end_yn == 1 has occured for that ID or that happened before the end_yn == 0-journey (see id == abc in the example). I know how to number using the data.table package, but I do not know which columns to combine in order to get the expected outcome. I've searched the data.table-tag on SO, but could not find a similar problem. Expected outcome: id time end_yn number journey abc 10 0 1 1 abc 11 0 2 1 abc 12 1 3 1 abc 13 0 1 2 def 10 0 1 3 def 15 1 2 3 def 16 0 1 4 def 17 0 2 4 def 18 1 3 4

    Read the article

  • Why are there two implementations of std::sort (with and without a comparator) rather than one implementation with a default template parameter?

    - by PolyVox
    In my code I'm adopting a design strategy which is similar to some standard library algorithms in that the exact behavior can be customized by a function object. The simplest example is std::sort, where a function object can control how the comparison is made between objects. I notice that the Visual C++ provides two implementations of std::sort, which naturally involves code duplication. I would have imagined that it was instead possible to have only one implementation, and provide a default comparator (using operator< ) as a default template parameter. What is the rational behind two separate versions? Would my suggestion make the interface more complex in some way? Or result in confusing error messages when the object does not provide operator Thanks, David

    Read the article

  • MSBuild conditionals depending on task parameters

    - by jalf
    In MSBuild it's straightforward to define, say, a PropertyGroup which depends on the value of a property Foo: <PropertyGroup Conditional="'$(Foo)'=='Bar'" /> Is it also possible for the conditional to depend on a task parameter? For example, I'd like to use the value of the Link task's SubSystemparameter roughly like this: <PropertyGroup Conditional="'$(Link/SubSystem)'=='Console'" /> but don't know if it is possible, and if it is, what the correct syntax is. I'm pretty new to MSBuild though, so it's perfectly possible that I've missed something.

    Read the article

  • Positioning Photos in a Grid (HTML)

    - by Daniel O'Connor
    Hey Everyone, I've been trying to code this page for a while, but my biggest problem is that I can't seem to get the photos perfectly positioned. For some reason, there is a small bottom padding in each <td>which is messing things up. Here is the table code: <table> <tr> <td rowspan="2" style="height:353px;"><img src="danoconnor/img/photography/farm.jpg" height="353" width="470" alt="Farm" /></td> <td><img src="danoconnor/img/photography/paragliding.jpg" height="190" width="254" alt="Paraglider" /></td> <td rowspan="2"><img src="danoconnor/img/photography/cristo.jpg" height="353" width="230" alt="Cristo Redentor" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td><img src="danoconnor/img/photography/u2.jpg" height="154" width="254" alt="U2 at Fordham University" /></td> </tr> </table> My question is: how can I make the photogrid look like this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to link to an Excel pivot table that will expand over time in Word 2007?

    - by Daljit Dhadwal
    I have a pivot table in Excel 2007 which I’ve pasted it into Word 2007 using Paste Special (Paste link) - Microsoft Office Excel Worksheet Object. The pivot table appears in Word and the link to Excel is working. The problem is that if the pivot table expands (for example, due to showing 12 months of data rather than six months) the link to the pivot table in Word will only show the range cells that were originally copied over with the pivot table. I understand why this happens. When I paste as a link to Word the underling field codes look like this: {LINK Excel.Sheet.8 "C:\Users\myAccount\Documents\testexcel.xlsx" "Sheet2!R1C1:R8C2" \a \p} The codes refer to a fixed area (e.g., Sheet2!R1C1:R8C2 ) of the Excel spreadsheet, and so when the pivot table expands, the expanded cells fall outside the area that is defined in the field codes. Is there some way to have the link refer to the pivot table itself rather than the cell range that happened to be originally copied over from Excel?

    Read the article

  • How to pass parameters for OPENDATASOURCE

    - by Rapunzo
    I can connect to a linked server with this: SELECT testNo, soruTuruId, soruNo, cevap , degerlendirenTcNo, degerlendirilenTcNo FROM OPENDATASOURCE('SQLOLEDB', 'Data Source=192.168.150.42;User ID=readerUser;Password=1').akreditasyon.dbo.tblPerfCevap But I have to pass the password as parameter. and I try like this: SET @connectionString = 'Data Source=192.168.150.42;User ID=readerUser;Password='+@pw SELECT testNo, soruTuruId, soruNo, cevap , degerlendirenTcNo, degerlendirilenTcNo FROM OPENDATASOURCE('SQLOLEDB', @connectionString ).akreditasyon.dbo.tblPerfCevap and SELECT testNo, soruTuruId, soruNo, cevap , degerlendirenTcNo, degerlendirilenTcNo FROM OPENDATASOURCE('SQLOLEDB', 'Data Source=192.168.150.42;User ID=readerUser;Password='+@pw ).akreditasyon.dbo.tblPerfCevap but didnt work:S does anyone have an idea?

    Read the article

  • URL rewrite to remove parameters

    - by samoyed
    Hello to all, I'm working on a site where all the pages are actually index.php + a 'name' parameter that is analyzed and loads the appropriate template and content. the homepage url is: http://www.some_site.com/?page=homepage 1. i was asked to "change" the homepage url to: http://www.some_site.com can i use url rewite and htaccess for that and if so, what should i write there? working on my local machine, i tried this code (mode rewrite is enabled): <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule /index.php /index.php?page=homepage </IfModule> i would still need the 'name' parameter to be available to the php code of course, so i can load the template and css files. 2. it would be nice for other pages (not homepage) to be converted from (example) http://www.some_site.com/?page=products to: http://www.some_site.com/products this is less crucial. thanx in advance and have a nice day :-)

    Read the article

  • Passing System classes as constructor parameters

    - by mcl
    This is probably crazy. I want to take the idea of Dependency Injection to extremes. I have isolated all System.IO-related behavior into a single class so that I can mock that class in my other classes and thereby relieve my larger suite of unit tests of the burden of worrying about the actual file system. But the File IO class I end up with can only be tested with integration tests, which-- of course-- introduces complexity I don't really want to deal with when all I really want to do is make sure my FileIO class calls the correct System.IO stuff. I don't need to integration test System.IO. My FileIO class is doing more than simply wrapping System.IO functions, every now and then it does contain some logic (maybe this is the problem?). So what I'd like is to be able to test my File IO class to ensure that it makes the correct system calls by mocking the System.IO classes themselves. Ideally this would be as easy as having a constructor like so: public FileIO( System.IO.Directory directory, System.IO.File file, System.IO.FileStream fileStream ) { this.Directory = directory; this.File = file; this.FileStream = fileStream; } And then calling in methods like: public GetFilesInFolder(string folderPath) { return this.Directory.GetFiles(folderPath) } But this doesn't fly since the System.IO classes in question are static classes. As far as I can tell they can neither be instantiated in this way or subclassed for the purposes of mocking.

    Read the article

  • When is a parameterized method call useful?

    - by johann-christoph-jacob
    A Java method call may be parameterized like in the following code: class Test { <T> void test() { } public static void main(String[] args) { new Test().<Object>test(); // ^^^^^^^^ } } I found out this is possible from the Eclipse Java Formatter settings dialog and wondered if there are any cases where this is useful or required.

    Read the article

  • Create new table with Wordpress API

    - by Fire G
    I'm trying to create a new plugin to track popular posts based on views and I have everything done and ready to go, but I can't seem to create a new table using the Wordpress API (I can do it with standard PHP or with phpMyAdmin, but I want this plugin to be self-sufficient). I've tried several ways ($wpdb-query, $wpdb-get_results, dbDelta) but none of them will create the new table. function create_table(){ global $wpdb; $tablename = $wpdb->prefix.'popular_by_views'; $ppbv_table = $wpdb->get_results("SHOW TABLES LIKE '".$tablename."'" , ARRAY_N); if(is_null($ppbv_table)){ $create_table_sql = "CREATE TABLE '".$tablename."' ( 'id' BIGINT(50) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, 'url' VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, 'views' BIGINT(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ('id'), UNIQUE ('id') );"; $wpdb->show_errors(); $wpdb->flush(); if(is_null($wpdb->get_results("SHOW TABLES LIKE '".$tablename."'" , ARRAY_N))) echo 'crap, the SQL failed.'; } else echo 'table already exists, nothing left to do.';}

    Read the article

  • C#: Convert array to use in params with additional parameters

    - by user1805759
    I have a method that takes params. Inside the method another variable shall be added to the output: private void ParamsTest(params object[] objs) { var foo = "hello"; // Invalid: Interpretes objs as single array parameter: Console.WriteLine("{0}, {1}, {2}", foo, objs); } When I call ParamsTest("Hi", "Ho"); I would like to see the output. hello Hi Ho What do I need to do? I can copy foo and objs into a new array and pass that array to WriteLine but is there a more elegant way to force objs to behave as params again? Kind of objs.ToParams()?

    Read the article

  • passing parameters to a thread

    - by assassin
    I want to pass a function that takes a parameter to the ThreadStart Constructor in C#. But, it seems that this is not possible, as I get a syntax error it I try to do something like this Thread t1 = new Thread(new Thread Start(func1(obj1)); where obj1 is an object of type List<string> (say). If I want a thread to execute this function that takes in an object as a parameter, and I plan to create 2 such threads simultaneously with different parameter values what is the best method to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Updating table row by given id with jQuery

    - by fabrik
    Hello all! I need to update a specific table row (via tr id="unique_key") after a successful AJAX call. HTML fragment: <a name=\"p{$product_id}\" class=\"tr{$product_id}\"></a> <tr id="p{product_id}" class="item-row"> <td><h3>{product_id}</h3><a rel="facebox" href="ajax_url">{product_name}</a></td> <td>{image_information}</td> <td>{image_sortiment}</td> <td>{product_status}</td> </tr> Javascript: // AJAX Call success: function(msg){ $('#p' + prod_id).remove(); $('.tr' + prod_id).after(msg); $('#p' + prod_id + ' a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); } ... What happens: The table row removed Anchors grouped into one single row (not before their <tr>'s) so my 'hook' disappears AJAX result inserted over the whole table (after my 'hook' but still a wrong place) What's wrong with my idea? How can i force jQuery to 'overwrite' the required table row?

    Read the article

  • Designing WCF interface: no out or ref parameters

    - by Captain Comic
    I have a WCF service and web client. Web service implements one method SubmitOrders. This method takes a collection of orders. The problem is that service must return an array of results for each order - true or false. Marking WCF paramters as out or ref makes no sense. What would you recommend? [ServiceContact] public bool SubmitOrders(OrdersInfo) [DataContract] public class OrdersInfo { Order[] Orders; }

    Read the article

  • [VB.Net] Typecasting generic parameters.

    - by CFP
    Hello world! Using the following code: Function GetSetting(Of T)(ByVal SettingName As String, ByRef DefaultVal As T) As T Return If(Configuration.ContainsKey(SettingName), CType(Configuration(SettingName), T), DefaultVal) End Function Yields the following error: Value of type 'String' cannot be converted to 'T'. Any way I could specify that in all cases, the conversion will indeed be possible (I'm basically getting integers, booleans, doubles and strings). Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Using before_create in Rails to normalize a many to many table

    - by weotch
    I am working on a pretty standard tagging implementation for a table of recipes. There is a many to many relationship between recipes and tags so the tags table will be normalized. Here are my models: class Recipe < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :tag_joins, :as => :parent has_many :tags, :through => :tag_joins end class TagJoin < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :parent, :polymorphic => true belongs_to :tag, :counter_cache => :usage_count end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :tag_joins, :as => :parent has_many :recipes, :through => :tag_joins, :source => :parent , :source_type => 'Recipe' before_create :normalizeTable def normalizeTable t = Tag.find_by_name(self.name) if (t) j = TagJoin.new j.parent_type = self.tag_joins.parent_type j.parent_id = self.tag_joins.parent_id j.tag_id = t.id return false end end end The last bit, the before_create callback, is what I'm trying to get working. My goal is if there is an attempt to create a new tag with the same name as one already in the table, only a single row in the join table is produced, using the existing row in tags. Currently the code dies with: undefined method `parent_type' for #<Class:0x102f5ce38> Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Special parameters for texture binding?

    - by user146780
    Do I have to set up my gl context in a certain way to bind textures. I'm following a tutorial. I start by doing: #define checkImageWidth 64 #define checkImageHeight 64 static GLubyte checkImage[checkImageHeight][checkImageWidth][4]; static GLuint texName; void makeCheckImage(void) { int i, j, c; for (i = 0; i < checkImageHeight; i++) { for (j = 0; j < checkImageWidth; j++) { c = ((((i&0x8)==0)^((j&0x8))==0))*255; checkImage[i][j][0] = (GLubyte) c; checkImage[i][j][1] = (GLubyte) c; checkImage[i][j][2] = (GLubyte) c; checkImage[i][j][3] = (GLubyte) 255; } } } void initt(void) { glClearColor (0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0); makeCheckImage(); glPixelStorei(GL_UNPACK_ALIGNMENT, 1); glGenTextures(1, &texName); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texName); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_NEAREST); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_NEAREST); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, checkImageWidth, checkImageHeight, 0, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, checkImage); engineGL.current.tex = texName; } In my rendering I do: PolygonTesselator.Begin_Contour(); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_DECAL); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, current.tex); if(layer[currentlayer].Shapes[i].Contour[c].DrawingPoints.size() > 0) { glColor4f( layer[currentlayer].Shapes[i].Color.r, layer[currentlayer].Shapes[i].Color.g, layer[currentlayer].Shapes[i].Color.b, layer[currentlayer].Shapes[i].Color.a); } for(unsigned int j = 0; j < layer[currentlayer].Shapes[i].Contour[c].DrawingPoints.size(); ++j) { gluTessVertex(PolygonTesselator.tobj,&layer[currentlayer].Shapes[i].Contour[c].DrawingPoints[j][0], &layer[currentlayer].Shapes[i].Contour[c].DrawingPoints[j][0]); } PolygonTesselator.End_Contour(); } glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); } However it still renders the color and not the texture at all. I'd atleast expect to see black or something but its as if the bind fails. Am I missing something? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Pivot table from multiple spreadsheets

    - by vrao
    I am using excel 2010. I am trying to create pivot table between two worksheets 'Summary' and 'Summary2'. I have identical row of data ranging from cells B5 to F5 in row 5 in both worksheets. Data in the two worksheets looks like this: Summary worksheet: Issues,20,3,4,5 Summary2 worksheet: Issues,10,0,3,9 Worksheet referes to issues from location 1 and worksheet referes to issues from location 2. Col B has title 'issues', Col C refers to issues of customer 1, Col D refers to issues of customer 2, Col E refers to issues of customer 3, Col F refers to issues of customer 4 I go to a third worksheet and start pivot table and in the table range I give this: 'Summary:Summary2'!$B$5:$F$5. Then I Say OK. Gives error "data reference source is not valid". Can someone tell me how to select the row from two different worksheet in pivot table? Also I want to be able to add issues of customers between two locations and get % completion for each locaiton. Can someone please help?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to have a mysql table accept a null value for a primary_key column referencing a diff

    - by Dr.Dredel
    I have a table that has a column which holds the id of a row in another table. However, when table A is being populated, table B may or may not have a row ready for table A. My question is, is it possible to have mysql prevent an invalid value from being entered but be ok with a NULL? or does a foreign key necessitate a valid related value? So... what I'm looking for (in pseudo code) is this: Table "person" id | name Table "people" id | group_name | person_id (foreign key id from table person) insert into person (1, 'joe'); insert into people (1, 'foo', 1)//kosher insert into people (1, 'foo', NULL)//also kosher insert into people(1, 'foo', 7)// should fail since there is no id 7 in the person table. The reason I need this is that I'm having a chicken and egg issue where it makes perfect sense for the rows in the people table to be created before hand (in this example, I'm creating the groups and would like them to pre-exist the people who join them). And I realize that THIS example is silly and I would just put the group id in the person table rather than vice-versa, but in my real-world problem that is not workable. Just curious if I need to allow any and all values in order to make this work, or if there's some way to allow for null.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125  | Next Page >