Search Results

Search found 7391 results on 296 pages for 'record locking'.

Page 119/296 | < Previous Page | 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126  | Next Page >

• SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

  - by Adam

  Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

  Read the article

• Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

  - by Anonymouslemming

  Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• What are the options for overriding Django's cascading delete behaviour?

  - by Tom

  Django models generally handle the ON DELETE CASCADE behaviour quite adequately (in a way that works on databases that don't support it natively.) However, I'm struggling to discover what is the best way to override this behaviour where it is not appropriate, in the following scenarios for example: ON DELETE RESTRICT (i.e. prevent deleting an object if it has child records) ON DELETE SET NULL (i.e. don't delete a child record, but set it's parent key to NULL instead to break the relationship) Update other related data when a record is deleted (e.g. deleting an uploaded image file) The following are the potential ways to achieve these that I am aware of: Override the model's delete() method. While this sort of works, it is sidestepped when the records are deleted via a QuerySet. Also, every model's delete() must be overridden to make sure Django's code is never called and super() can't be called as it may use a QuerySet to delete child objects. Use signals. This seems to be ideal as they are called when directly deleting the model or deleting via a QuerySet. However, there is no possibility to prevent a child object from being deleted so it is not usable to implement ON CASCADE RESTRICT or SET NULL. Use a database engine that handles this properly (what does Django do in this case?) Wait until Django supports it (and live with bugs until then...) It seems like the first option is the only viable one, but it's ugly, throws the baby out with the bath water, and risks missing something when a new model/relation is added. Am I missing something? Any recommendations?

  Read the article

• memory leak in php script

  - by Jasper De Bruijn

  Hi, I have a php script that runs a mysql query, then loops the result, and in that loop also runs several queries: $sqlstr = "SELECT * FROM user_pred WHERE uprType != 2 AND uprTurn=$turn ORDER BY uprUserTeamIdFK"; $utmres = mysql_query($sqlstr) or trigger_error($termerror = __FILE__." - ".__LINE__.": ".mysql_error()); while($utmrow = mysql_fetch_array($utmres, MYSQL_ASSOC)) { // some stuff happens here // echo memory_get_usage() . " - 1241<br/>\n"; $sqlstr = "UPDATE user_roundscores SET ursUpdDate=NOW(),ursScore=$score WHERE ursUserTeamIdFK=$userteamid"; if(!mysql_query($sqlstr)) { $err_crit++; $cLog->WriteLogFile("Failed to UPDATE user_roundscores record for user $userid - teamuserid: $userteamid\n"); echo "Failed to UPDATE user_roundscores record for user $userid - teamuserid: $userteamid<br>\n"; break; } unset($sqlstr); // echo memory_get_usage() . " - 1253<br/>\n"; // some stuff happens here too } The update query never fails. For some reason, between the two calls of memory_get_usage, there is some memory added. Because the big loop runs about 500.000 or more times, in the end it really adds up to alot of memory. Is there anything I'm missing here? could it herhaps be that the memory is not actually added between the two calls, but at another point in the script? Edit: some extra info: Before the loop it's at about 5mb, after the loop about 440mb, and every update query adds about 250 bytes. (the rest of the memory gets added at other places in the loop). The reason I didn't post more of the "other stuff" is because its about 300 lines of code. I posted this part because it looks to be where the most memory is added.

  Read the article

• Updating a specific key/value inside of an array field with MongoDB

  - by Jesta

  As a preface, I've been working with MongoDB for about a week now, so this may turn out to be a pretty simple answer. I have data already stored in my collection, we will call this collection content, as it contains articles, news, etc. Each of these articles contains another array called author which has all of the author's information (Address, Phone, Title, etc). The Goal - I am trying to create a query that will update the author's address on every article that the specific author exists in, and only the specified author block (not others that exist within the array). Sort of a "Global Update" to a specific article that affects his/her information on every piece of content that exists. Here is an example of what the content with the author looks like. { "_id" : ObjectId("4c1a5a948ead0e4d09010000"), "authors" : [ { "user_id" : null, "slug" : "joe-somebody", "display_name" : "Joe Somebody", "display_title" : "Contributing Writer", "display_company_name" : null, "email" : null, "phone" : null, "fax" : null, "address" : null, "address2" : null, "city" : null, "state" : null, "zip" : null, "country" : null, "image" : null, "url" : null, "blurb" : null }, { "user_id" : null, "slug" : "jane-somebody", "display_name" : "Jane Somebody", "display_title" : "Editor", "display_company_name" : null, "email" : null, "phone" : null, "fax" : null, "address" : null, "address2" : null, "city" : null, "state" : null, "zip" : null, "country" : null, "image" : null, "url" : null, "blurb" : null }, ], "tags" : [ "tag1", "tag2", "tag3" ], "title" : "Title of the Article" } I can find every article that this author has created by running the following command: db.content.find({authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'}}}); So theoretically I should be able to update the authors record for the slug joe-somebody but not jane-somebody (the 2nd author), I am just unsure exactly how you reach in and update every record for that author. I thought I was on the right track, and here's what I've tried. b.content.update( {authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'} } }, {$set: {address: '1234 Avenue Rd.'} }, false, true ); I just believe there's something I am missing in the $set statement to specify the correct author and point inside of the correct array. Any ideas? **Update** I've also tried this now: b.content.update( {authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'} } }, {$set: {'authors.$.address': '1234 Avenue Rd.'} }, false, true );

  Read the article

• PHP, MySQL: mysql substitute for php in_array function

  - by Devner

  Hi all, Say if I have an array and I want to check if an element is a part of that array, I can go ahead and use in_array( needle, haystack ) to determine the results. I am trying to see the PHP equivalent of this for my purpose. Now you might have an instant answer for me and you might be tempted to say "Use IN". Yes, I can use IN, but that's not fetching the desired results. Let me explain with an example: I have a column called "pets" in DB table. For a record, it has a value: Cat, dog, Camel (Yes, the column data is a comma separated value). Consider that this row has an id of 1. Now I have a form where I can enter the value in the form input and use that value check against the value in the DB. So say I enter the following comma separated value in the form input: CAT, camel (yes, CAT is uppercase & intentional as some users tend to enter it that way). Now when I enter the above info in the form input and submit, I can collect the POST'ed info and use the following query: $search = $_POST['pets']; $sql = "SELECT id FROM table WHERE pets IN ('$search') "; The above query is not fetching me the row that already exists in the DB (remember the record which has Cat, dog, Camel as the value for the pets column?). I am trying to get the records to act as a superset and the values from the form input as subsets. So in this case I am expecting the id value to show up as the values exist in the column, but this is not happending. Now say if I enter just CAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. Now say if I enter just camel, cAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. How can I achieve the above? Thank you.

  Read the article

• SQL Server database change workflow best practices

  - by kubi

  The Background My group has 4 SQL Server Databases: Production UAT Test Dev I work in the Dev environment. When the time comes to promote the objects I've been working on (tables, views, functions, stored procs) I make a request of my manager, who promotes to Test. After testing, she submits a request to an Admin who promotes to UAT. After successful user testing, the same Admin promotes to Production. The Problem The entire process is awkward for a few reasons. Each person must manually track their changes. If I update, add, remove any objects I need to track them so that my promotion request contains everything I've done. In theory, if I miss something testing or UAT should catch it, but this isn't certain and it's a waste of the tester's time, anyway. Lots of changes I make are iterative and done in a GUI, which means there's no record of what changes I made, only the end result (at least as far as I know). We're in the fairly early stages of building out a data mart, so the majority of the changes made, at least count-wise, are minor things: changing the data type for a column, altering the names of tables as we crystallize what they'll be used for, tweaking functions and stored procs, etc. The Question People have been doing this kind of work for decades, so I imagine there have got to be a much better way to manage the process. What I would love is if I could run a diff between two databases to see how the structure was different, use that diff to generate a change script, use that change script as my promotion request. Is this possible? If not, are there any other ways to organize this process? For the record, we're a 100% Microsoft shop, just now updating everything to SQL Server 2008, so any tools available in that package would be fair game.

  Read the article

• Is there a way to customize how the value for a custom Model Field is displayed in a template?

  - by Jordan Reiter

  I am storing dates as an integer field in the format YYYYMMDD, where month or day is optional. I have the following function for formatting the number: def flexibledateformat(value): import datetime, re try: value = str(int(value)) except: return None match = re.match(r'(\d{4})(\d\d)(\d\d)$',str(value)) if match: year_val, month_val, day_val = [int(v) for v in match.groups()] if day_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,day_val),'%b %e, %Y') elif month_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,1),'%B %Y') else: return str(year_val) Which results in the following outputs: >>> flexibledateformat(20100415) 'Apr 15, 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100400) 'April 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100000) '2010' So I'm wondering if there's a function I can add under the model field class that would automatically call flexibledateformat. So if there's a record r = DataRecord(name='foo',date=20100400) when processed in the form the value would be 20100400 but when output in a template using {{ r.date }} it shows up as "April 2010". Further clarification I do normally use datetime for storing date/time values. In this specific case, I need to record non-specific dates: "x happened in 2009", "y happened sometime in June 1996". The easiest way to do this while still preserving most of the functionality of a date field, including sorting and filtering, is by using an integer in the format of yyyymmdd. That is why I am using an IntegerField instead of a DateTimeField. This is what I would like to happen: I store what I call a "Flexible Date" in a FlexibleDateField as an integer with the format yyyymmdd. I render a form that includes a FlexibleDateField, and the value remains an integer so that functions necessary for validating it and rendering it in widgets work correctly. I call it in a template, as in {{ object.flexibledate }} and it is formatted according to the flexibledateformat rules: 20100416 - April 16, 2010; 20100400 - April 2010; 20100000 - 2010. This also applies when I'm not calling it directly, such as when it's used as a header in admin (http://example.org/admin/app_name/model_name/). I'm not aware if these specific things are possible.

  Read the article

• Java CountDownLatch used to wait for JFrame to dispose

  - by Brian

  I have referenced this previous question as well as other sources, but cannot get CountDownLatch to work correctly. Background: mainFrame creates new Frame called dataEntryFrame. When dataEntryFrame "Submit" button is clicked, record added to database and dataEntryFrame disposed. At this point, mainFrame should clear and reload a jList that shows all records. Issue: When dataEntryFrame loads, java freezes, dataEntryFrame components never load. I cannot get past this part... then, in the DataEntryFrame, CountDownLatch should only decrements after the submit button is clicked, successfully adds a record to a database table, and disposes itself. Or when the user clicks cancel... Code: From MainFrame CountDownLatch dataEntryDone = new CountDownLatch(1); DataEntryFrame f = new DataEntryFrame(dataEntryDone); Thread newThread = new Thread(f); newThread.start(); dataEntryDone.await(); Code: From DataEntryFrame public void run(){ initComponents(); loadOtherData(); this.setVisible(true); } void submit(){ addRecord(); this.dispose() dataEntryDone.countDown(); }

  Read the article

• How do I create a selection list in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by Gary McGill

  I have a database table that records what publications a user is allowed to access. The table is very simple - it simply stores user ID/publication ID pairs: CREATE TABLE UserPublication (UserId INTEGER, PublicationID INTEGER) The presence of a record for a given user & publication means that the user has access; absence of a record implies no access. I want to present my admin users with a simple screen that allows them to configure which publications a user can access. I would like to show one checkbox for each of the possible publications, and check the ones that the user can currently access. The admin user can then check or un-check any number of publications and submit the form. There are various publication types, and I want to group the similarly-typed publications together - so I do need control over how the publications are presented (I don't want to just have a flat list). My view model obviously needs to have a list of all the publications (since I need to display them all regardless of the current selection), and I also need a list of the publications that the user currently has access to. (I'm not sure whether I'd be better off with a single list where each item includes the publication ID and a yes/no field?). But that's as far as I've got. I've really no idea how to go about binding this to some checkboxes. Where do I start?

  Read the article

• Access 2007 and Special/Unicode Characters in SQL

  - by blockcipher

  I have a small Access 2007 database that I need to be able to import data from an existing spreadsheet and put it into our new relational model. For the most part this seems to work pretty well. Part of the process is attempting to see if a record already exists in a target table using SQL. For example, if I extract book information out of the current row in the spreadsheet, it may contain a title and abstract. I use SQL to get the ID of a matching record, if it exists. This works fine except when I have data that's in a non-English language. In this case, it seems that there is some punctuation that is causing me problems. At least I think it's punctuation as I do have some fields that do not have punctuation and are non-English that do not give me any problems. Is there a built-in function that can escape these characters? Currently I have a small function that will escape the single quote character, but that isn't enough. Or, is there a list of Unicode characters that can interfere with how SQL wants data quoted? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

  - by Graham

  I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

  Read the article

• MySql Query lag time?

  - by Click Upvote

  When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

  Read the article

• Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

  - by user169867

  I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

  Read the article

• SQL Query to duplicate records based on If statement

  - by user328371

  Hi, I'm trying to write an SQL query that will duplicate records depending on a field in another table. I am running mySQL 5. (I know duplicating records shows that the database structure is bad, but I did not design the database and am not in a position to redo it all - it's a shopp ecommerce database running on wordpress.) Each product with a particular attribute needs a link to the same few images, so the product will need a row per image in a table - the database doesn't actually contain the image, just its filename. (the images are of clipart for a customer to select from) Based on these records... SELECT * FROM `wp_shopp_spec` WHERE name='Can Be Personalised' and content='Yes' I want to do something like this.. For each record that matches that query, copy records 5134 - 5139 from wp_shopp_asset but change the id so it's unique and set the cell in column 'parent' to have the value of 'product' from the table wp_shopp_spec. This will mean 6 new records are created for each record matching the above query, all with the same value in 'parent' but with unique ids and every other column copied from the original (ie. records 5134-5139) Hope that's clear enough - any help greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• How can I optimize retrieving lowest edit distance from a large table in SQL?

  - by Matt

  Hey, I'm having troubles optimizing this Levenshtein Distance calculation I'm doing. I need to do the following: Get the record with the minimum distance for the source string as well as a trimmed version of the source string Pick the record with the minimum distance If the min distances are equal (original vs trimmed), choose the trimmed one with the lowest distance If there are still multiple records that fall under the above two categories, pick the one with the highest frequency Here's my working version: DECLARE @Results TABLE ( ID int, [Name] nvarchar(200), Distance int, Frequency int, Trimmed bit ) INSERT INTO @Results SELECT ID, [Name], (dbo.Levenshtein(@Source, [Name])) As Distance, Frequency, 'False' As Trimmed FROM MyTable INSERT INTO @Results SELECT ID, [Name], (dbo.Levenshtein(@SourceTrimmed, [Name])) As Distance, Frequency, 'True' As Trimmed FROM MyTable SET @ResultID = (SELECT TOP 1 ID FROM @Results ORDER BY Distance, Trimmed, Frequency) SET @Result = (SELECT TOP 1 [Name] FROM @Results ORDER BY Distance, Trimmed, Frequency) SET @ResultDist = (SELECT TOP 1 Distance FROM @Results ORDER BY Distance, Trimmed, Frequency) SET @ResultTrimmed = (SELECT TOP 1 Trimmed FROM @Results ORDER BY Distance, Trimmed, Frequency) I believe what I need to do here is to.. Not dumb the results to a temporary table Do only 1 select from `MyTable` Setting the results right in the select from the initial select statement. (Since select will set variables and you can set multiple variables in one select statement) I know there has to be a good implementation to this but I can't figure it out... this is as far as I got: SELECT top 1 @ResultID = ID, @Result = [Name], (dbo.Levenshtein(@Source, [Name])) As distOrig, (dbo.Levenshtein(@SourceTrimmed, [Name])) As distTrimmed, Frequency FROM MyTable WHERE /* ... yeah I'm lost */ ORDER BY distOrig, distTrimmed, Frequency Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

  - by rob - not a robber

  Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

  Read the article

• I am not able to update form data to MySQL using PHP and jQuery

  - by Jimson Jose

  My problem is that I am unable to update the values entered in the form. I have attached all the files. I'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. What happens is that I'm able to add and delete records from form using jQuery and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but I am not able to update data which was retrieved from the database. The file structure is as follows: index.php is a file with jQuery functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refreshing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - Delete is an function called from index.php to delete record from MySQL database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from MySQL table, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is written for MySQL) I have tried in many ways - at last I had figured out that data is not being transferred from update-form.php to update.php; there is a small problem in jQuery AJAX function where it is not transferring data to update.php page. Something is missing in calling update.php page it is not entering into that page. I am new bee in programming. I had collected this script from many forums and made this one. So I was limited in solving this problem. I came to know that this is good platform for me and many where we get a help to create new things. Please find the link below to download all files which is of 35kb (virus free assurance): download mysmallform files in ZIPped format, including mysql query

  Read the article

• Row selection based on subtable data in MySQL

  - by Felthragar

  I've been struggling with this selection for a while now, I've been searching around StackOverflow and tried a bunch of stuff but nothing that helps me with my particular issue. Maybe I'm just missing something obvious. I have two tables: Measurements, MeasurementFlags "Measurements" contain measurements from a device, and each measurement can have properties/attributes attached to them (commonly known as "flags") to signify that the measurement in question is special in some way or another (for instance, one flag may signify a test or calibration measurement). Note: One record per flag! Right, so a record from the "Measurements" table can theoreticly have an unlimited amount of MeasurementFlags attached to it, or it can have none. Now, I need to select records from "Measurements", that have an attached "MeasurementFlag" valued "X", but it must also NOT have a flag valued "Y" attached to it. We're talking about a fairly large database with hundreds of millions of rows, which is why I'm trying to keep all of this logic within one query. Splitting it up would create too many queries, however if it's not possible to do in one query I guess I don't have a choise. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• ADO.NET Multiple simultaneous reads from an open database.

  - by Deverill

  Answer not needed - my logic was wrong and this question is invalid. Charles helped me see where I went off-tracks. Thanks I have a utility that moves data from one source to another. In the process of writing the record I check to see if it exists and do an update/insert as necessary. The difficulty I have is that as I'm writing the main record info there is a 2nd table for "custom data" that I have to check to see if it exists and do an update/insert for that as well. Example: I may be loading a pencil sharpener that may or may not exist. While I'm writing it into destination it has characteristics such as style, color, etc. and each of them may or may not exist. As written I seem to need to have 2 DataReaders open, one for the sharpener and one to check for and update color. I am new to ADO.NET, but not to programming and it's more complicated than I listed but for sanity's sake I didn't put all the details. My question is: What am I missing? You can't have 2 readers open at the same time on a connection, yet I can't close the first if I'm stepping through all products. It seems inefficient to have 2 connections, readers, etc. for this. Is there a feature of ADO.NET DBs that I'm missing? How would you do it? Thanks!

  Read the article

• [hibernate - jpa] @OneToOne annotoation problem (i think...)

  - by blow

  Hi all, im new in hibernate and JPA and i have some problems with annotations. My target is to create this table in db (PERSON_TABLE with personal-details) ID ADDRESS NAME SURNAME MUNICIPALITY_ID First of all, i have a MUNICIPALITY table in db containing all municipality of my country. I mapped this table in this ENTITY: @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; public Municipality() { } ... Then i make an EMBEDDABLE class Address containing fields that realize a simple address... @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @OneToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="id_municipality") private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Finally i embedded this class into Person ENTITY @Entity public class Person implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String name; private String surname; @Embedded private Address address; public Person() { } ... All works good when i have to save a new Person record, in fact hibernate creates a PERSON_TABLE as i want, but if i try to retrieve a Person record i have an exception. HQL is simply "from Person" The excpetion is (Entities is the package containing all classes above-mentioned): org.hibernate.AnnotationException: @OneToOne or @ManyToOne on Entities.Person.address.municipality references an unknown entity: Entities.Municipality Is the @OneToOne annotation the problem? Thanks.

  Read the article

• SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

  - by TheBlueSky

  Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Distinct Value Array for View Controller Index Using Core Data

  - by b.dot

  Hi, I'm trying to create an index representing the first letter value of each record in a Core Data store to be used in a table view controller. I'm using a snippet of the code from Apple's documentation. I would simply like to produce an array or dictionary of distinct values as the result. My store already has the character defined within each record object. Questions: 1) I'm having a problem understanding NSDictionaryResultType. Where does the resulting dictionary object get received so that I can assign it's keys to the view controller? The code seems to only return an array. 2) If I include the line containing NSDictionaryResultType, I get no returns. 3) I realize that I could do this in a loop, but I'm hoping this will work. Thanks! NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"People" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:entity]; [request setResultType:NSDictionaryResultType]; // This line causes no no results. [request setReturnsDistinctResults:YES]; [request setPropertiesToFetch :[NSArray arrayWithObject:@"alphabetIndex"]]; NSError *error; NSArray *objects = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error];

  Read the article

• How to test if a doctrine records has any relations that are used

  - by murze

  Hi, I'm using a doctrine table that has several optional relations (of types Doctrine_Relation_Association and Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) with other tables. How can I test if a record from that table has connections with records from the related table. Here is an example to make my question more clear. Assume that you have a User and a user has a many to many relation with Usergroups and a User can have one Userrole How can I test if a give user is part of any Usergroups or has a role. The solution starts I believe with $relations = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->getRelations(); $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->findOne(1); foreach($relations as $relation) { //here should go a test if the user has a related record for this relation if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_Association) { //here the related table probably has more then one foreign key (ex. user_id and group_id) } if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) { //here the related table probably has the primary key of this table (id) as a foreign key (user_id) } } //true or false echo $result I'm looking for a general solution that will work no matter how many relations there are between user and other tables. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Sampling Duplicates

  - by user3640982

  I have a dataset from which I need to sample. It is set up with an ID field and a year field. I want every record from the most current year and then I want the most current ID's but sampled from every 3rd year going back. The data is ordered by year. For example ID<-rep(1:3, 5) Year<-rep(c(1,2,3,4,5),each=3) df<-data.frame(ID,Year) ID Year 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 5 2 2 6 3 2 7 1 3 8 2 3 9 3 3 10 1 4 11 2 4 12 3 4 13 1 5 14 2 5 15 3 5 So from this example, I would want to return ID Year 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 4 5 2 4 6 3 4 I'm thinking that some combination of duplicated() and which() should get what I want, but the problem is duplicated() just tells if it has been repeated; it doesn't say which record is being repeated. which(duplicated(df$ID)) [1] 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 This a problem since not every ID exists in every year. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Eric

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126  | Next Page >