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• Android stream to Wowza

  - by Curtis Kiu

  I feel very confused about Android streaming to wowza. I am doing a video conference using rtmp cross-platform, but Android doesn't eat RTMP. Therefore I need to find another way to do it. Upstreaming I found a new open-source app called spydroid-ipcamera. It is using rtp, sending udp packets to computer, and opens it in vlc using the following sdp v=0 s=Unnamed m=video 5006 RTP/AVP 96 a=rtpmap:96 H264/90000 a=fmtp:96 packetization-mode=1;profile-level-id=420016;sprop-parameter-sets=Z0IAFukBQHsg,aM4BDyA=; But it can't work. Then I follow wowza tutorial and stream to it and then play again in VLC. That works! I wrote it in http://code.google.com/p/spydroid-ipcamera/issues/detail?id=2 However when I want to add audio in the packet, it fails to work. I change to code in http://code.google.com/p/spydroid-ipcamera/source/browse/trunk/src/net/mkp/spydroid/CameraStreamer.java mr.setAudioSource(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC); mr.setVideoSource(MediaRecorder.VideoSource.CAMERA); mr.setOutputFormat(MediaRecorder.OutputFormat.MPEG_4); mr.setVideoFrameRate(20); mr.setVideoSize(640, 480); mr.setAudioEncoder(MediaRecorder.AudioEncoder.AAC); mr.setVideoEncoder(MediaRecorder.VideoEncoder.H264); mr.setPreviewDisplay(holder.getSurface()); Then I thought that the problem should be in sdp, but I don't know how to due with sdp. I am streaming H.264/AAC with Mp4 Second I don't understand sdp. So how can I make video conference upstreaming part using this apps. Android ----(UDP Port:5006)----> PC (SDP file) and then Wowza read the SDP file ------> VLC I think in this way the system cannot handle more than 1 client. sdp can only hold 1 port, any idea or actually it wont' work? Also Wowza need to set the stream before we stream it, so does it mean that I should not follow this way to do it? Sorry my English is poor, I hope you guys understand.

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• Android AsyncTask context problem, help!

  - by dnkoutso

  I've been working with AsyncTasks in Android and I am dealing with a strange issue. Take a simple example, an Activity with one AsyncTask. The task on the background does not do anything spectacular, it just sleeps for 8 seconds. At the end of the AsyncTask in the onPostExecute() method I am just setting a button visibility status to View.VISIBLE, only to verify my results. Now, this works great until the user decides to change his phones orientation while the AsyncTask is working (within the 8 second sleep window). I understand the Android activity life cycle and I know the activity gets destroyed and recreated. This is where the problem comes in. The AsyncTask is referring to a button and apparently holds a reference to the context that started the AsyncTask in the first place. I would expect, that this old context (since the user caused an orientation change) to either become null and the AsyncTask to throw an NPE for the reference to the button it is trying to make visible. Instead, no NPE is thrown, the asynctask thinks that the button reference is not null, sets it to visible. The result? Nothing is happening on the screen! I have tackled this by keeping and updating the context reference into the AsyncTask. This is cumbersome and prone to leaks. Here's the code: public class Main extends Activity { private Button mButton = null; private Button mTestButton = null; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); mButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.btnStart); mButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener () { @Override public void onClick(View v) { new taskDoSomething().execute(0l); } }); mTestButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.btnTest); } private class taskDoSomething extends AsyncTask<Long, Integer, Integer> { @Override protected Integer doInBackground(Long... params) { Log.i("LOGGER", "Starting..."); try { Thread.sleep(8000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return 0; } @Override protected void onPostExecute(Integer result) { Log.i("LOGGER", "...Done"); mTestButton.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); } } } Try executing and while the AsyncTask is working change your phones orientation.

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• Automatic incremental SQL Script generation for incremental, nightly builds when using Team Build in

  - by Steve Johnson

  hi all, hope that everybody here is OK. We are using VS 2008 as development tool, TFS 2008 as version control as well as build automation. Some of our developer use dbpro for databases changes and some use SQL Server management studio. I am trying to automate build for Web Application built using C# and VB.Net. Our scenario is such that we have a central database to which our web application connects. Whenever we supply our clients with a new functionality or a bug fix, we supply them incremental builds. The SQL script is checked into source control for every incremental build when they have made and tested there changes on our central DB Server. I want to generate Differential script that can be run at the client as an incremental update script. Now to come about it is a problem. Sometimes our developers tend to forget the database change-sets and the script in the source control is missing an SP or a two. Also, sometimes we need to insert default data into some of the tables that have strict stringent values and not test values. Like a table that contains Services provided by the panel, we add a new service name, signature, credentials and service address, etc etc in the ServiceTable. Besides this many other tables may have test data that may not be needed. If we use DataCompare, it will generate changeset for required data (important for client to enable certain services) and our test data that was added to the database as a result of our testing of the functionality or bug fix. Currently i am using SQLSchemaCompareTask (from Visual Studio 2008 Team Database Professional Power Tools API) in the TFSBuild.proj file of the build definition for TFS 2008. Using SQLSchemaCompareTask, the script generated contains database names like [dbo]. etc which are not desired as the script fails when run against SQL Server 2000 databses (Some of our client still use SQL Server 2000) databases as teh backend of the application. Also default data can't be generated by this process. To overcome this problem, i have to come up with a solution that can compare databases and generate script automatically that does not have to be manually reviewed again before being sent to the client. Please suggest effective methodology of such SQL script generation and suggest whether two different databases may be used or something ? Is there any toolkit or api that can enable build automation for SQL Server databases? Thank you all. Regards Steve

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• ModalPopup CodeBehind Function Wait For User Response

  - by Snave

  I have set up a function which returns an enum of the button that the user clicked in the ModalPopup. I have a variable of type enum to store which button the user clicks in the button click event. In this function, I call the ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. My problem is, the function finishes out and returns the default enum (which is "none" since no button was clicked yet) before the ModalPopup can be shown and store which button the user clicks. So without changing the function to a method and using a different way to store the user's button click, how can I pause the function after the Show() method of the MPE has been called and wait for the user to click a button? Edit(11/20/2009): Clarification: On the aspx page, I include a ScriptManager, PlaceHolder, and an asp:Button with a codebehind click event. What I want is to click the button, then in the click event handler, I want to call a custom static class function that returns a variable. One of the arguments it takes is the PlaceHolder. The function creates all the necessary controls in the PlaceHolder needed to display a ModalPopup. It calls the created ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. What should happen: At this point is the ModalPopup gets displayed, the user clicks a button, that button's event handler fires, the button sets a variable indicating that it was clicked, it then calls the ModalPopupExtender's .Hide() method, and then the function returns the variable that indicates which button was clicked. We then return to the event handler from the original button that was clicked and the programmer can then perform some logic based on what variable was returned. Crux: When the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method gets called, it does not display the ModalPopup until AFTER the function returns a default variable (because no button was clicked yet) and after the event handler from the original button that was clicked ends. What I need: After the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method is called, I need the ModalPopup to get displayed immediately and I need the function to wait for a button click to be made from the ModalPopup. My thoughts: Some PostBack needs to be made to the page telling it to update and display the ModalPopup Panel. Then maybe a while loop can be run in the function that waits for a button to be clicked in the ModalPopup.

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• SubSonic 2.x now supports TVP's - SqlDbType.Structure / DataTables for SQL Server 2008

  - by ElHaix

  For those interested, I have now modified the SubSonic 2.x code to recognize and support DataTable parameter types. You can read more about SQL Server 2008 features here: http://download.microsoft.com/download/4/9/0/4906f81b-eb1a-49c3-bb05-ff3bcbb5d5ae/SQL%20SERVER%202008-RDBMS/T-SQL%20Enhancements%20with%20SQL%20Server%202008%20-%20Praveen%20Srivatsav.pdf What this enhancement will now allow you to do is to create a partial StoredProcedures.cs class, with a method that overrides the stored procedure wrapper method. A bit about good form: My DAL has no direct table access, and my DB only has execute permissions for that user to my sprocs. As such, SubSonic only generates the AllStructs and StoredProcedures classes. The SPROC: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[testInsertToTestTVP] @UserDetails TestTVP READONLY, @Result INT OUT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET @Result = -1 --SET IDENTITY_INSERT [dbo].[tbl_TestTVP] ON INSERT INTO [dbo].[tbl_TestTVP] ( [GroupInsertID], [FirstName], [LastName] ) SELECT [GroupInsertID], [FirstName], [LastName] FROM @UserDetails IF @@ROWCOUNT > 0 BEGIN SET @Result = 1 SELECT @Result RETURN @Result END --SET IDENTITY_INSERT [dbo].[tbl_TestTVP] OFF END The TVP: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[TestTVP] AS TABLE( [GroupInsertID] [varchar](50) NOT NULL, [FirstName] [varchar](50) NOT NULL, [LastName] [varchar](50) NOT NULL ) GO The the auto gen tool runs, it creates the following erroneous method: /// <summary> /// Creates an object wrapper for the testInsertToTestTVP Procedure /// </summary> public static StoredProcedure TestInsertToTestTVP(string UserDetails, int? Result) { SubSonic.StoredProcedure sp = new SubSonic.StoredProcedure("testInsertToTestTVP", DataService.GetInstance("MyDAL"), "dbo"); sp.Command.AddParameter("@UserDetails", UserDetails, DbType.AnsiString, null, null); sp.Command.AddOutputParameter("@Result", DbType.Int32, 0, 10); return sp; } It sets UserDetails as type string. As it's good form to have two folders for a SubSonic DAL - Custom and Generated, I created a StoredProcedures.cs partial class in Custom that looks like this: /// <summary> /// Creates an object wrapper for the testInsertToTestTVP Procedure /// </summary> public static StoredProcedure TestInsertToTestTVP(DataTable dt, int? Result) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); SubSonic.StoredProcedure sp = new SubSonic.StoredProcedure("testInsertToTestTVP", DataService.GetInstance("MyDAL"), "dbo"); // TODO: Modify the SubSonic code base in sp.Command.AddParameter to accept // a parameter type of System.Data.SqlDbType.Structured, as it currently only accepts // System.Data.DbType. //sp.Command.AddParameter("@UserDetails", dt, System.Data.SqlDbType.Structured null, null); sp.Command.AddParameter("@UserDetails", dt, SqlDbType.Structured); sp.Command.AddOutputParameter("@Result", DbType.Int32, 0, 10); return sp; } As you can see, the method signature now contains a DataTable, and with my modification to the SubSonic framework, this now works perfectly. I'm wondering if the SubSonic guys can modify the auto-gen to recognize a TVP in a sproc signature, as to avoid having to re-write the warpper? Does SubSonic 3.x support Structured data types? Also, I'm sure many will be interested in using this code, so where can I upload the new code? Thanks.

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• Windows Service Hosting WCF Objects over SSL (https) - Custom JSON Error Handling Doesn't Work

  - by bpatrick100

  I will first show the code that works in a non-ssl (http) environment. This code uses a custom json error handler, and all errors thrown, do get bubbled up to the client javascript (ajax). // Create webservice endpoint WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); ServiceEndpoint serviceEndPoint = new ServiceEndpoint(ContractDescription.GetContract(Type.GetType(svcHost.serviceContract + ", " + svcHost.assemblyName)), binding, new EndpointAddress(svcHost.hostUrl)); // Add exception handler serviceEndPoint.Behaviors.Add(new FaultingWebHttpBehavior()); // Create host and add webservice endpoint WebServiceHost webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(svcHost.obj, new Uri(svcHost.hostUrl)); webServiceHost.Description.Endpoints.Add(serviceEndPoint); webServiceHost.Open(); I'll also show you what the FaultingWebHttpBehavior class looks like: public class FaultingWebHttpBehavior : WebHttpBehavior { public FaultingWebHttpBehavior() { } protected override void AddServerErrorHandlers(ServiceEndpoint endpoint, EndpointDispatcher endpointDispatcher) { endpointDispatcher.ChannelDispatcher.ErrorHandlers.Clear(); endpointDispatcher.ChannelDispatcher.ErrorHandlers.Add(new ErrorHandler()); } public class ErrorHandler : IErrorHandler { public bool HandleError(Exception error) { return true; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, ref Message fault) { // Build an object to return a json serialized exception GeneralFault generalFault = new GeneralFault(); generalFault.BaseType = "Exception"; generalFault.Type = error.GetType().ToString(); generalFault.Message = error.Message; // Create the fault object to return to the client fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", generalFault, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(GeneralFault))); WebBodyFormatMessageProperty wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); } } } [DataContract] public class GeneralFault { [DataMember] public string BaseType; [DataMember] public string Type; [DataMember] public string Message; } The AddServerErrorHandlers() method gets called automatically, once webServiceHost.Open() gets called. This sets up the custom json error handler, and life is good :-) The problem comes, when we switch to and SSL (https) environment. I'll now show you endpoint creation code for SSL: // Create webservice endpoint WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); ServiceEndpoint serviceEndPoint = new ServiceEndpoint(ContractDescription.GetContract(Type.GetType(svcHost.serviceContract + ", " + svcHost.assemblyName)), binding, new EndpointAddress(svcHost.hostUrl)); // This exception handler code below (FaultingWebHttpBehavior) doesn't work with SSL communication for some reason, need to resarch... // Add exception handler serviceEndPoint.Behaviors.Add(new FaultingWebHttpBehavior()); //Add Https Endpoint WebServiceHost webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(svcHost.obj, new Uri(svcHost.hostUrl)); binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.Transport; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.None; webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(svcHost.serviceContract, binding, string.Empty); Now, with this SSL endpoint code, the service starts up correctly, and wcf hosted objects can be communicated with just fine via client javascript. However, the custom error handler doesn't work. The reason is, the AddServerErrorHandlers() method never gets called when webServiceHost.Open() is run. So, can anyone tell me what is wrong with this picture? And why, is AddServerErrorHandlers() not getting called automatically, like it does when I'm using non-ssl endpoints? Thanks!

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• Displaying FontFamily in Combobox

  - by Torsten

  Hi. My goal is to manipulate the text-styles of my application via DependencyProperties. I got a diagram in which the texts are to be manipulated in size, fontfamily, color, etc. So I'd like to use an interface similar to a rich text editor like Word. I'm using this code in my TextStyleVM http://shevaspace.blogspot.com/2006/12/i-have-some-fun-with-formattedtext_14.html So I have a FontFamilyProperty and a Getter and Setter for it: public static DependencyProperty FontFamilyProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "FontFamily", typeof(FontFamily), typeof(OutlinedText), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata( SystemFonts.MessageFontFamily, FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsRender | FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsMeasure), new ValidateValueCallback(IsValidFontFamily)); public FontFamily FontFamily { get { return (FontFamily)base.GetValue(FontFamilyProperty); } set { base.SetValue(FontFamilyProperty, value); } } Then there is a ToStyle method, which sets the style for the labels of the diagram, which are to be manipulated: Style style = new Style(); Binding fontFamilyBinding = new Binding("FontFamily"); fontFamilyBinding.Source = this; Setter fontFamilySetter = new Setter(); fontFamilySetter.Property = TextBlock.FontFamilyProperty; fontFamilySetter.Value = fontFamilyBinding; style.Setters.Add(fontFamilySetter); return style; Now this works for a TextBox. The textbox displays the current FontFamily, and if I enter a new, valid FontFamily like Arial into the textbox the FontFamily of the labels are changed. However, what I'd like to have is a combobox, which displays the SystemFonts and where I can choose one FontFamily for my labels. However, the binding doesn't seem to work. Neither the system fonts nor the current fonts of the labels are displayed. The combobox is just empty. This is my xaml: <r:RibbonLabel Content="FontFamily" /> <!--these do not work--> <r:RibbonComboBox SelectedItem="{Binding FontFamily}"/> <r:RibbonComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding FontFamily}"/> <!--this works--> <r:RibbonTextBox Text="{Binding FontFamily}"/> Now, I assume I have to set a different Setter for a ComboBox in the ToStyle Method. But I have no clue, which one. Maybe someting like this: fontFamilySetter.Property = ComboBox.ItemSource; However, if I set that Property, the TextBox still works. So is this the wrong place to start at? I'd also be grateful if someone could hint me to some documentation about using these Style-, Setter-, Binding-key-words, which are used in the ToStyle method, since this is somebody elses code I'm working with.

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• How to call function that inside JQuery Plugin From outside the plugin?

  - by CaTz

  hi, i am using textarea elastic plugin JQuery. this is the plugin (function(jQuery){ jQuery.fn.extend({ elastic: function() { // We will create a div clone of the textarea // by copying these attributes from the textarea to the div. var mimics = [ 'paddingTop', 'paddingRight', 'paddingBottom', 'paddingLeft', 'fontSize', 'lineHeight', 'fontFamily', 'width', 'fontWeight']; return this.each( function() { // Elastic only works on textareas if ( this.type != 'textarea' ) { return false; } var $textarea = jQuery(this), $twin = jQuery('<div />').css({'position': 'absolute','display':'none','word-wrap':'break-word'}), lineHeight = parseInt($textarea.css('line-height'),10) || parseInt($textarea.css('font-size'),'10'), minheight = parseInt($textarea.css('height'),10) || lineHeight*3, maxheight = parseInt($textarea.css('max-height'),10) || Number.MAX_VALUE, goalheight = 0, i = 0; // Opera returns max-height of -1 if not set if (maxheight < 0) { maxheight = Number.MAX_VALUE; } // Append the twin to the DOM // We are going to meassure the height of this, not the textarea. $twin.appendTo($textarea.parent()); // Copy the essential styles (mimics) from the textarea to the twin var i = mimics.length; while(i--){ $twin.css(mimics[i].toString(),$textarea.css(mimics[i].toString())); } // Sets a given height and overflow state on the textarea function setHeightAndOverflow(height, overflow){ curratedHeight = Math.floor(parseInt(height,10)); if($textarea.height() != curratedHeight){ $textarea.css({'height': curratedHeight + 'px','overflow':overflow}); } } // This function will update the height of the textarea if necessary function update() { // Get curated content from the textarea. var textareaContent = $textarea.val().replace(/&/g,'&amp;').replace(/ /g, '&nbsp;').replace(/<|>/g, '&gt;').replace(/\n/g, '<br />'); var twinContent = $twin.html(); if(textareaContent+'&nbsp;' != twinContent){ // Add an extra white space so new rows are added when you are at the end of a row. $twin.html(textareaContent+'&nbsp;'); // Change textarea height if twin plus the height of one line differs more than 3 pixel from textarea height if(Math.abs($twin.height()+lineHeight/3 - $textarea.height()) > 3){ var goalheight = $twin.height()+lineHeight/3; if(goalheight >= maxheight) { setHeightAndOverflow(maxheight,'auto'); } else if(goalheight <= minheight) { setHeightAndOverflow(minheight,'hidden'); } else { setHeightAndOverflow(goalheight,'hidden'); } } } } // Hide scrollbars $textarea.css({'overflow':'hidden'}); // Update textarea size on keyup $textarea.keyup(function(){ update(); }); $textarea.focus(function(){ update(); }); // And this line is to catch the browser paste event $textarea.live('input paste',function(e){ setTimeout( update, 250); }); // Run update once when elastic is initialized update(); }); } }); })(jQuery); How can i call from the outside of the plugin to the update function that is inside?

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• IDataServiceMetadataProvider - Entities dont show up in $metadata.

  - by TomTom

  I am trying to write our own RIA services provider to expose data from a server that I access via ODBC. I follow th eguidelines set out at http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2010/03/02/creating-a-data-service-provider-part-9-un-typed.aspx I have written our own IDataServiceMetadataProvider / IDataServiceQueryProvider pair and get no errors on what i do. I am putting in a resource set like this: ResourceType tableType = new ResourceType( typeof(Dictionary<string, object>), ResourceTypeKind.EntityType, null, "Martini", table_name, false ); tableType.CanReflectOnInstanceType = false; var prodKey = new ResourceProperty( "Key", ResourcePropertyKind.Key | ResourcePropertyKind.Primitive, ResourceType.GetPrimitiveResourceType(typeof(int)) ); prodKey.CanReflectOnInstanceTypeProperty = false; tableType.AddProperty(prodKey); var prodName = new ResourceProperty( "Name", ResourcePropertyKind.Primitive, ResourceType.GetPrimitiveResourceType(typeof(string)) ); prodName.CanReflectOnInstanceTypeProperty = false; tableType.AddProperty(prodName); _MetaDataProvider.AddResourceType(tableType); _MetaDataProvider.AddResourceSet(new ResourceSet(table_name, tableType)); I see the requests coming in for enumerating the resource sets. I check them there in a breakpoint, and the resource set and the type is there, with all properties. Still, the output I get is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> - <service xml:base="http://localhost:2377/MartiniData.svc/" xmlns:atom="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" xmlns:app="http://www.w3.org/2007/app" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2007/app"> - <workspace> <atom:title>Default</atom:title> </workspace> </service> And for the $metadata version: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> - <edmx:Edmx Version="1.0" xmlns:edmx="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/06/edmx"> - <edmx:DataServices xmlns:m="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata" m:DataServiceVersion="1.0"> - <Schema Namespace="Martini" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices" xmlns:m="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/05/edm"> <EntityContainer Name="Martini" m:IsDefaultEntityContainer="true" /> </Schema> </edmx:DataServices> </edmx:Edmx> The actual metadata for the types never shows up, no error is shown. pretty frustrating. Anyone any idea?

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• Reproduce PIPE functionality in IronPython

  - by Muppet Geoff

  Hi, I am hoping some genious out there can help me out with this... I am using sox to merge and resample a group of WAV files, and pipe the output directly to the input of NeroAACEnc for encoding to AAC format. I originally ran the process in a script, which included: sox.exe d:\audio\1.wav d:\audio\2.wav d:\audio\3.wav -c 1 -r 22050 -t wav - | neroAacEnc.exe -q 0.5 -if - -of test.m4a This worked as expected. The '-' in the comand line translates as 'Pipe/redirect input/output (stdin/stdout)' - So Sox pipes to stdout, and NeroAACEnc reads from stdin, the | joins them together. I then migrated the whole solution to Python, and the equivalent command became: from subprocess import call, Popen, PIPE runwav = Popen(['sox.exe', 'd:\audio\1.wav', 'd:\audio\2.wav', 'd:\audio\3.wav', '-c', '1', '-r', '22050', '-t', 'wav', '-'], shell=False, stdout=PIPE) runm4b = call(['neroAacEnc.exe', '-q', '0.5', '-if', '-', '-of', 'test.m4a'], shell=False, stdin=runwav.stdout) This also worked like a charm, exactly as expected. Slightly more convoluted, but hey :) Well now I have to move it to IronPython, and the Subprocess module isn't available (the partial implementation that is, doesn't have Popen/PIPE support - plus it seems silly to add a custom library when there is probably a native alternative). I should mention here, that I opted for IronPython over C#, because I am comfortable with Python now - however, there is a chance of moving it again later to C# native, and I am using IronPython to ease myself into it :) I have no C# or .net experience. So far I have the following equivalent, that sets up the 2 processes: from System.Diagnostics import Process wav = Process() wav.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False wav.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True wav.StartInfo.FileName = 'sox.exe' wav.StartInfo.Arguments = 'd:\audio\1.wav d:\audio\2.wav d:\audio\3.wav -c 1 -r 22050 -t wav -' wav.Start() m4b = Process() m4b.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False m4b.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True m4b.StartInfo.FileName = 'neroAacEnc.exe' m4b.StartInfo.Arguments = '-q 0.5 -if - -of test.m4a' m4b.Start() I know that these 2 processes start (I can see Nero and Sox in the task manager) but what I can't figure out (for the life of me) is how to string the two output/input streams together, as with the previous two solutions. I have searched and searched, so I thought I'd ask! If anyone knows either: How to join the two streams with the same net result as the Python and Commandline versions; or A better way to acheive what I am trying to do. I would be extremely grateful! Many thanks in advance, Geoff P.S. A code sample based off the above would be awesome :) or a specific code example of a similar process that I can easily translate... this has broked my brayne.

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• Can't Set Crystal Report Selection Formula Programatically

  - by eidylon

  Hello all, first, I can't stand Crystal! Okay, that's off my chest... Now, we have an old VB6 app we maintain for a client, which uses the Crystal Automation library to programatically change the record selection formulas in a bunch of Crystal Reports 8.5 reports. There are two reports which are ALMOST identical. I had to change them recently to add another field from another table. When I added the table in to the reports though, while it added it in the visual designer, it did not add it in the FROM clause of the SQL statement. So, I manually edited the SQL statement to add in the additional join. KO, works great. If i run the reports in Crystal preview mode, they work exactly as expected. Now, the users went to test the changes from within the VB app. One of the reports works fine and dandy. The other report however, is failing to set the selection formula as expected. The code sets the selection formulas using the function PESetSelectionFormula. I verified that the string being passed in to the function as the new selection formula is correct via a step-through examination of the variables. The call to PESetSelectionFormula seems to be working okay, and is returning a value of 1, which as near as I can find anywhere indicates success. (The other report, which is working fine from code is also returning 1.) However, the report is failing with an error: Error Code: 534 - Error detected by database DLL. The code, for debugging purposes dumps out the SQL string currently being used by the report. The SQL coming out of the report is: SELECT ... FROM ... WHERE ORDER BY ... As you can see, the WHERE clause is blank, which I would imagine is why the database DLL is upchucking on this statement. I don't understand why the automation library is not setting the WHERE clause even though the call to PESetSelectionFormula is being passed a valid string and is returning success. I thought perhaps it was because I had manually edited the SQL in the report to add the table it wasn't adding, but I did the same thing in the other nearly identical report, and that one is working fine. Anyone have any ideas why PESetSelectionFormula might report success but not actually do anything? P.S. I have already tried doing a Database Verify Database from the menus, and that said the report was all up to date and did not help at all.

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• Diophantine Equation [closed]

  - by ANIL

  In mathematics, a Diophantine equation (named for Diophantus of Alexandria, a third century Greek mathematician) is a polynomial equation where the variables can only take on integer values. Although you may not realize it, you have seen Diophantine equations before: one of the most famous Diophantine equations is: X^n+Y^n=Z^n We are not certain that McDonald's knows about Diophantine equations (actually we doubt that they do), but they use them! McDonald's sells Chicken McNuggets in packages of 6, 9 or 20 McNuggets. Thus, it is possible, for example, to buy exactly 15 McNuggets (with one package of 6 and a second package of 9), but it is not possible to buy exactly 16 nuggets, since no non- negative integer combination of 6's, 9's and 20's adds up to 16. To determine if it is possible to buy exactly n McNuggets, one has to solve a Diophantine equation: find non-negative integer values of a, b, and c, such that 6a + 9b + 20c = n. Problem 1 Show that it is possible to buy exactly 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, and 55 McNuggets, by finding solutions to the Diophantine equation. You can solve this in your head, using paper and pencil, or writing a program. However you chose to solve this problem, list the combinations of 6, 9 and 20 packs of McNuggets you need to buy in order to get each of the exact amounts. Given that it is possible to buy sets of 50, 51, 52, 53, 54 or 55 McNuggets by combinations of 6, 9 and 20 packs, show that it is possible to buy 56, 57,..., 65 McNuggets. In other words, show how, given solutions for 50-55, one can derive solutions for 56-65. Problem 2 Write an iterative program that finds the largest number of McNuggets that cannot be bought in exact quantity. Your program should print the answer in the following format (where the correct number is provided in place of n): "Largest number of McNuggets that cannot be bought in exact quantity: n" Hints: Hypothesize possible instances of numbers of McNuggets that cannot be purchased exactly, starting with 1 For each possible instance, called n, a. Test if there exists non-negative integers a, b, and c, such that 6a+9b+20c = n. (This can be done by looking at all feasible combinations of a, b, and c) b. If not, n cannot be bought in exact quantity, save n When you have found six consecutive values of n that in fact pass the test of having an exact solution, the last answer that was saved (not the last value of n that had a solution) is the correct answer, since you know by the theorem that any amount larger can also be bought in exact quantity

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• C# and NpgsqlDataAdapter returning a single string instead of a data table

  - by tme321

  I have a postgresql db and a C# application to access it. I'm having a strange error with values I return from a NpgsqlDataAdapter.Fill command into a DataSet. I've got this code: NpgsqlCommand n = new NpgsqlCommand(); n.Connection = connector; // a class member NpgsqlConnection DataSet ds = new DataSet(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); // DBTablesRef are just constants declared for // the db table names and columns ArrayList cols = new ArrayList(); cols.Add(DBTablesRef.all); //all is just * ArrayList idCol = new ArrayList(); idCol.Add(DBTablesRef.revIssID); ArrayList idVal = new ArrayList(); idVal.Add(idNum); // a function parameter // Select builder and Where builder are just small // functions that return an sql statement based // on the parameters. n is passed to the where // builder because the builder uses named // parameters and sets them in the NpgsqlCommand // passed in String select = SelectBuilder(DBTablesRef.revTableName, cols) + WhereBuilder(n,idCol, idVal); n.CommandText = select; try { NpgsqlDataAdapter da = new NpgsqlDataAdapter(n); ds.Reset(); // filling DataSet with result from NpgsqlDataAdapter da.Fill(ds); // C# DataSet takes multiple tables, but only the first is used here dt = ds.Tables[0]; } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } So my problem is this: the above code works perfectly, just like I want it to. However, if instead of doing a select on all (*) if I try to name individual columns to return from the query I get the information I asked for, but rather than being split up into seperate entries in the data table I get a string in the first index of the data table that looked something like: "(0,5,false,Bob Smith,7)" And the data is correct, I would be expecting 0, then 5, then a boolean, then some text etc. But I would (obviously) prefer it to not be returned as just one big string. Anyone know why if I do a select on * I get a datatable as expected, but if I do a select on specific columns I get a data table with one entry that is the string of the values I'm asking for?

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• Need help receiving ByteArray data

  - by k80sg

  Hi folks, I am trying to receive byte array data from a machine. It sends out 3 different types of data structure each with different number of fields which consist of mostly int and a few floats, and byte sizes, the first being 320 bytes, 420 for the second type and 560 for the third. When the sending program is launched, it fires all 3 types of data simultaneouly with an interval of 1 sec. Example: Sending order: Pack1 - 320 bytes 1 sec later Pack2 - 420 bytes 1 sec later Pack3 - 560 bytes 1 sec later Pack1 - 320 bytes ... .. . How do I check the incoming byte size before passing it to: byte[] handsize = new byte[bytesize]; as the data I receive are all out of order, for instance using the following the read all int: System.out.println("Reading data in int format:" + " " + datainput.readInt()); I get many different sets of values whenever I run my prog although with some valid field data but they are all over the place. I am not too sure how exactly should I do it but I tried the following and apparently my data fields are not receiving in correct sequence: BufferedInputStream bais = new BufferedInputStream(requestSocket.getInputStream()); DataInputStream datainput = new DataInputStream(bais); byte[] handsize = new byte[560]; datainput.readFully(handsize); int n = 0; int intByte[] = new int[140]; for (int i = 0; i < 140 ; i++) { System.out.println("Reading data in int format:" + " " + datainput.readInt()); intByte[n] = datainput.readInt(); n = n + 1; System.out.println("The value in array is:" + intByte[0]); System.out.println("The value in array is:" + intByte[1]); System.out.println("The value in array is:" + intByte[2]); System.out.println("The value in array is:" + intByte[3]); Also from the above code, the order of the values printed out with System.out.println("Reading data in int format:" + " " + datainput.readInt()); and System.out.println("The value in array is:" + intByte[0]); System.out.println("The value in array is:" + intByte[1]); are different. Any help will be appreciated. Thanks

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• Updating / refreshing a live geojson layer | JSON & JS Variable

  - by Ozaki

  TLDR I am trying to get my geoJSON layer to update, currently it will 1. Create the vector mark, 2. Remove the vector mark, 3. Set the JS variable for lat and lon, 4. Unset the variable??? :S Hey S O. I have a geojson layer set up as follows: //GeoJSON Layer// var layer1 = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("My GeoJSON Layer", "coordinates", {format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: style_red}); My features are set up as follows: var latitude = 0.0; // as 0.0 it will draw the point in. var longitude = 0.0; // as 0.0 it will draw the point in. //var longitude = getlongitude; where getlongitude = JSON string of longitude. var point = new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(longitude, latitude); pointFeature = new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector(point, null, style_red); var style_red = OpenLayers.Util.extend({}, layer_style); style_red.strokeColor = "red"; style_red.fillColor = "black"; style_red.fillOpacity = 0.5; style_red.graphicName = "circle"; style_red.pointRadius = 3.8; style_red.strokeWidth = 2; style_red.strokeLinecap = "butt"; and my layer updating function: function UpdateLayer(){ var p = new OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON({ 'internalProjection': new OpenLayers.Projection("EPSG:900913"), 'externalProjection': new OpenLayers.Projection("EPSG:4326") }); var url = "coordinates"; OpenLayers.loadURL(url, {}, null, function(r) { var f = p.read(r.responseText); map.layers[2].destroyFeatures(); map.layers[2].addFeatures(pointFeature); }); setTimeout("UpdateLayer()",1000) } Any idea what I am doing wrong or what I am missing? Edit1 It now removes the feature (was map.layers[1]) previously... But will not add the new feature.. Edit2 I managed to get it to redraw a point but not with live data. It should draw the point at what (latitude) & (longitude) are equal to. I am trying to set latitude & longitude to some JSON string but every time straight after it sets the variable it changes it back to "undefined" as soon as it passes the line after var latitude? (using firebug & firequery to debug)

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• VBA/SQL recordsets

  - by intruesiive

  The project I'm asking about is for sending an email to teachers asking what books they're using for the classes they're teaching next semester, so that the books can be ordered. I have a query that compares the course number of this upcoming semester's classes to the course numbers of historical textbook orders, pulling out only those classes that are being taught this semester. That's where I get lost. I have a table that contains the following: -Professor -Course Number -Year -Book -Title The data looks like this: professor year course number title smith 13 1111 Pride and Prejudice smith 13 1111 The Fountainhead smith 13 1222 The Alchemist smith 12 1111 Pride and Prejudice smith 11 1222 Infinite Jest smith 10 1333 The Bible smith 13 1333 The Bible smith 12 1222 The Alchemist smith 10 1111 Moby Dick johnson 12 1222 The Tipping Point johnson 11 1333 Anna Kerenina johnson 10 1333 Everything is Illuminated johnson 12 1222 The Savage Detectives johnson 11 1333 In Search of Lost Time johnson 10 1333 Great Expectations johnson 9 1222 Proust on the Shore Here's what I need the code to do "on paper": Group the records by professor. Determine every unique course number in that group, and group records by course number. For each unique course number, determine the highest year associated. Then spit out every record with that professor+course number+year combination. With the sample data, the results would be: professor year course number title smith 13 1111 Pride and Prejudice smith 13 1111 The Fountainhead smith 13 1222 The Alchemist smith 13 1333 The Bible johnson 12 1222 The Tipping Point johnson 11 1333 Anna Kerenina johnson 12 1222 The Savage Detectives johnson 11 1333 In Search of Lost Time I'm thinking I should make a record set for each teacher, and within that, another record set for each course number. Within the course number record set, I need the system to determine what the highest year number is - maybe store that in a variable? Then pull out every associated record so that if the teacher ordered 3 books the last time they taught that class (whether it was in 2013 or 2012 and so on) all three books display. I'm not sure I'm thinking of record sets in the right way, though. My SQL so far is basic and clearly doesn't work: SELECT [All].Professor, [All].Course, Max([All].Year) FROM [All] GROUP BY [All].Professor, [All].Course; Thanks for your help.

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• Loading a ConfigurationSection with a required child ConfigurationElement with .Net configuration fr

  - by Vadim Rybak

  I have a console application that is trying to load a CustomConfigurationSection from a web.config file. The custom configuration section has a custom configuration element that is required. This means that when I load the config section, I expect to see an exception if that config element is not present in the config. The problem is that the .NET framework seems to be completely ignoring the isRequired attribute. So when I load the config section, I just creates an instance of the custom configuration element and sets it on the config section. My question is, why is this happening? I want the GetSection() method to fire a ConfigurationErrors exception since a required element is missing from the configuration. Here is how my config section looks. public class MyConfigSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("MyConfigElement", IsRequired = true)] public MyConfigElement MyElement { get { return (MyConfigElement) this["MyConfigElement"]; } } } public class MyConfigElement : ConfigurationElement { [ConfigurationProperty("MyAttribute", IsRequired = true)] public string MyAttribute { get { return this["MyAttribute"].ToString(); } } } Here is how I load the config section. class Program { public static Configuration OpenConfigFile(string configPath) { var configFile = new FileInfo(configPath); var vdm = new VirtualDirectoryMapping(configFile.DirectoryName, true, configFile.Name); var wcfm = new WebConfigurationFileMap(); wcfm.VirtualDirectories.Add("/", vdm); return WebConfigurationManager.OpenMappedWebConfiguration(wcfm, "/"); } static void Main(string[] args) { try{ string path = @"C:\Users\vrybak\Desktop\Web.config"; var configManager = OpenConfigFile(path); var configSection = configManager.GetSection("MyConfigSection") as MyConfigSection; MyConfigElement elem = configSection.MyElement; } catch (ConfigurationErrorsException ex){ Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } Here is what my config file looks like. <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyConfigSection" type="configurationFrameworkTestHarness.MyConfigSection, configurationFrameworkTestHarness" /> </configSections> <MyConfigSection> </MyConfigSection> The wierd part is that if I open the config file and load the section 2 times in a row, I will get the exception that I expect. var configManager = OpenConfigFile(path); var configSection = configManager.GetSection("MyConfigSection") as MyConfigSection; configManager = OpenConfigFile(path); configSection = configManager.GetSection("MyConfigSection") as MyConfigSection; If I use the code above, then the exception will fire and tell me that MyConfigElement is required. The question is Why is it not throwing this exception the first time??

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• How to eager load sibling data using LINQ to SQL?

  - by Scott

  The goal is to issue the fewest queries to SQL Server using LINQ to SQL without using anonymous types. The return type for the method will need to be IList<Child1>. The relationships are as follows: Parent Child1 Child2 Grandchild1 Parent Child1 is a one-to-many relationship Child1 Grandchild1 is a one-to-n relationship (where n is zero to infinity) Parent Child2 is a one-to-n relationship (where n is zero to infinity) I am able to eager load the Parent, Child1 and Grandchild1 data resulting in one query to SQL Server. This query with load options eager loads all of the data, except the sibling data (Child2): DataLoadOptions loadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.GrandChild1List); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.Parent); dataContext.LoadOptions = loadOptions; IQueryable<Child1> children = from child in dataContext.Child1 select child; I need to load the sibling data as well. One approach I have tried is splitting the query into two LINQ to SQL queries and merging the result sets together (not pretty), however upon accessing the sibling data it is lazy loaded anyway. Adding the sibling load option will issue a query to SQL Server for each Grandchild1 and Child2 record (which is exactly what I am trying to avoid): DataLoadOptions loadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.GrandChild1List); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.Parent); loadOptions.LoadWith<Parent>(o => o.Child2List); dataContext.LoadOptions = loadOptions; IQueryable<Child1> children = from child in dataContext.Child1 select child; exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=1 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=2 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=3 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=4 I've also written LINQ to SQL queries to join in all of the data in hopes that it would eager load the data, however when the LINQ to SQL EntitySet of Child2 or Grandchild1 are accessed it lazy loads the data. The reason for returning the IList<Child1> is to hydrate business objects. My thoughts are I am either: Approaching this problem the wrong way. Have the option of calling a stored procedure? My organization should not be using LINQ to SQL as an ORM? Any help is greatly appreciated. Thank you, -Scott

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• Insert default value if input-text is deleted

  - by Kim Andersen

  Hi all I have the following piece of jQuery code: $(".SearchForm input:text").each(function(){ /* Sets the current value as the defaultvalue attribute */ if(allowedDefaults.indexOf($(this).val()) > 0 || $(this).val() == "") { $(this).attr("defaultvalue", $(this).val()); $(this).css("color","#9d9d9d"); /* Onfocus, if default value clear the field */ $(this).focus(function(){ if($(this).val() == $(this).attr("defaultvalue")) { $(this).val(""); $(this).css("color","#4c4c4c"); } }); /* Onblur, if empty, insert defaultvalue */ $(this).blur(function(){ alert("ud"); if($(this).val() == "") { $(this).val($(this).attr("defaultvalue")); $(this).css("color","#9d9d9d"); }else { $(this).removeClass("ignore"); } }); } }); I use this code to insert some default text into some of my input fields, when nothing else is typed in. This means that when a user sees my search-form, the defaultvalues will be set as an attribute on the input-field, and this will be the value that is shown. When a user clicks inside of the input field, the default value will be removed. When the user sees an input field at first is looks like this: <input type="text" value="" defaultvalue="From" /> This works just fine, but I have a big challenge. If a user have posted the form, and something is entered into one of the fields, then I can't show the default value in the field, if the user deletes the text from the input field. This is happening because the value of the text-field is still containing something, even when the user deletes the content. So my problem is how to show the default value when the form is submitted, and the user then removes the typed in content? When the form is submitted the input looks like this, and keeps looking like this until the form is submitted again: <input type="text" value="someValue" defaultvalue="From" /> So I need to show the default value in the input-field right after the user have deleted the content in the field, and removed the focus from the field. Does everyone understand what my problem is? Otherwise just ask, I have struggled with this one for quite some times now, so any help will be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, Kim Andersen

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• PHP Doctrine frustration: loading models doesn't work..?

  - by ropstah

  I'm almost losing it, i really hope someone can help me out! I'm using Doctrine with CodeIgniter. Everything is setup correctly and works until I generate the classes and view the website. Fatal error: Class 'BaseObjecten' not found in /var/www/vhosts/domain.com/application/models/Objecten.php on line 13 I'm using the following bootstrapper (as CodeIgniter plugin): <?php // system/application/plugins/doctrine_pi.php // load Doctrine library require_once BASEPATH . '/plugins/Doctrine/lib/Doctrine.php'; // load database configuration from CodeIgniter require_once APPPATH.'/config/database.php'; // this will allow Doctrine to load Model classes automatically spl_autoload_register(array('Doctrine', 'autoload')); // we load our database connections into Doctrine_Manager // this loop allows us to use multiple connections later on foreach ($db as $connection_name => $db_values) { // first we must convert to dsn format $dsn = $db[$connection_name]['dbdriver'] . '://' . $db[$connection_name]['username'] . ':' . $db[$connection_name]['password']. '@' . $db[$connection_name]['hostname'] . '/' . $db[$connection_name]['database']; Doctrine_Manager::connection($dsn,$connection_name); } // CodeIgniter's Model class needs to be loaded require_once BASEPATH.'/libraries/Model.php'; // telling Doctrine where our models are located Doctrine::loadModels(APPPATH.'/models'); // (OPTIONAL) CONFIGURATION BELOW // this will allow us to use "mutators" Doctrine_Manager::getInstance()->setAttribute( Doctrine::ATTR_AUTO_ACCESSOR_OVERRIDE, true); // this sets all table columns to notnull and unsigned (for ints) by default Doctrine_Manager::getInstance()->setAttribute( Doctrine::ATTR_DEFAULT_COLUMN_OPTIONS, array('notnull' => true, 'unsigned' => true)); // set the default primary key to be named 'id', integer, 4 bytes Doctrine_Manager::getInstance()->setAttribute( Doctrine::ATTR_DEFAULT_IDENTIFIER_OPTIONS, array('name' => 'id', 'type' => 'integer', 'length' => 4)); ?> Anyone? p.s. I also tried adding the following right after // (OPTIONAL CONFIGURATION) Doctrine_Manager::getInstance()->setAttribute(Doctrine::ATTR_MODEL_LOADING, Doctrine::MODEL_LOADING_CONSERVATIVE); spl_autoload_register(array('Doctrine', 'modelsAutoload'));

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• How can I troubleshoot an APPCRASH in Internet Explorer?

  - by Schnapple

  I'm writing an ActiveX control using the firebreath framework (hi taxilian!) and while it technically works, I'm running into a weird issue that appears to be unique to me. I've followed the instructions to create a simple plugin and then I ran it in Internet Explorer 8 on Windows 7 x64 (firebreath sets up a test page for the control). But as soon as I try to test it (clicking on a link that fires off JavaScript to interact with the control), IE crashes. Hard. "Internet Explorer has stopped working" style. If I try the control in Firefox (the resulting registered DLL can also be called as a Firefox plugin using a MIME type), it works fine. If I try it on my XP box, it works fine. I emailed the DLL and the testing page to a coworker in the next cube who is like me also running Windows 7 x64 and it works for him just fine as well, so it's not something unique to Windows 7 or x64. When it crashes I get this message: Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iexplore.exe Application Version: 8.0.7600.16385 Application Timestamp: 4a5bc69e Fault Module Name: RPCRT4.dll Fault Module Version: 6.1.7600.16385 Fault Module Timestamp: 4a5bdb3b Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 000220b1 OS Version: 6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.1 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 0a9e Additional Information 2: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Additional Information 3: 0a9e Additional Information 4: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Which tells me nothing extremely useful. I can have it attach to a debugger but it just tells me a long list of DLL's, none of which are the ActiveX control in question. It's almost like it's not even getting there. I did a sfc /scannow yesterday to see if anything on my system is corrupt and nothing came up as wrong. I tried various different security levels in IE, but nothing seems to have any effect. As this is a development machine there has been all matter of crap installed on it, so I figure it's bound to be something I've installed since October (when Win7 was released) but I cannot figure out what it is. I presume the information it's giving me when I attach to Visual Studio is useful somehow but I don't know how to interpret it. Admittedly I'm mainly a C#/.NET developer who's a bit out of his element with C/C++ and troubleshooting native code, but does anyone have any advice on how to proceed on figuring out why this very simple ActiveX control crashes IE on my machine and nowhere else?

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• Need to set cursor position to the end of a contentEditable div, issue with selection and range obje

  - by DavidR

  I'm forgetting about cross-browser compatibility for the moment, I just want this to work. What I'm doing is trying to modify a script (and you probably don't need to know this) located at typegreek.com The basic script is found here. Basically what it does is when you type in characters, it converts the character your are typing into greek characters and prints it onto the screen. What I'm trying to do is to get it to work on contentEditable div's (It only works for Textareas) My issue is with this one function: The user types a key, it get's converted to a greek key, and goes to a function, it gets sorted through some if's, and where it ends up is where I can add div support. Here is what I have so far, myField is the div, myValue is the greek character. //Get selection object... var userSelection if (window.getSelection) {userSelection = window.getSelection();} else if (document.selection) {userSelection = document.selection.createRange();} //Now get the cursor position information... var startPos = userSelection.anchorOffset; var endPos = userSelection.focusOffset; var cursorPos = endPos; //Needed later when reinserting the cursor... var rangeObj = userSelection.getRangeAt(0) var container = rangeObj.startContainer //Now take the content from pos 0 -> cursor, add in myValue, then insert everything after myValue to the end of the line. myField.textContent = myField.textContent.substring(0, startPos) + myValue + myField.textContent.substring(endPos, myField.textContent.length); //Now the issue is, this updates the string, and returns the cursor to the beginning of the div. //so that at the next keypress, the character is inserted into the beginning of the div. //So we need to reinsert the cursor where it was. //Re-evaluate the cursor position, taking into account the added character. var cursorPos = endPos + myValue.length; //Set the caracter position. rangeObj.setStart(container,cursorPos) Now, this works only as long as I don't type more than the size of the original text. Say I had 30 characters in the div before hand. If I type more than that 30, it adds character 31, but places the cursor back at 30. I can type character 32 at pos.31, then character 33 at pos.32, but if I try to put character 34 in, it adds the character, and sets the cursor back at 32. The issue is that the function for adding the new character screws up if cursorPos is greater than what is defined in the range. Any ideas?

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• Multi-part question about multi-threading, locks and multi-core processors (multi ^ 3)

  - by MusiGenesis

  I have a program with two methods. The first method takes two arrays as parameters, and performs an operation in which values from one array are conditionally written into the other, like so: void Blend(int[] dest, int[] src, int offset) { for (int i = 0; i < src.Length; i++) { int rdr = dest[i + offset]; dest[i + offset] = src[i] > rdr? src[i] : rdr; } } The second method creates two separate sets of int arrays and iterates through them such that each array of one set is Blended with each array from the other set, like so: void CrossBlend() { int[][] set1 = new int[150][75000]; // we'll pretend this actually compiles int[][] set2 = new int[25][10000]; // we'll pretend this actually compiles for (int i1 = 0; i1 < set1.Length; i1++) { for (int i2 = 0; i2 < set2.Length; i2++) { Blend(set1[i1], set2[i2], 0); // or any offset, doesn't matter } } } First question: Since this apporoach is an obvious candidate for parallelization, is it intrinsically thread-safe? It seems like no, since I can conceive a scenario (unlikely, I think) where one thread's changes are lost because a different threads ~simultaneous operation. If no, would this: void Blend(int[] dest, int[] src, int offset) { lock (dest) { for (int i = 0; i < src.Length; i++) { int rdr = dest[i + offset]; dest[i + offset] = src[i] > rdr? src[i] : rdr; } } } be an effective fix? Second question: If so, what would be the likely performance cost of using locks like this? I assume that with something like this, if a thread attempts to lock a destination array that is currently locked by another thread, the first thread would block until the lock was released instead of continuing to process something. Also, how much time does it actually take to acquire a lock? Nanosecond scale, or worse than that? Would this be a major issue in something like this? Third question: How would I best approach this problem in a multi-threaded way that would take advantage of multi-core processors (and this is based on the potentially wrong assumption that a multi-threaded solution would not speed up this operation on a single core processor)? I'm guessing that I would want to have one thread running per core, but I don't know if that's true.

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• Asp.net hosting equivalent of Dreamhost (pricing, features and support)

  - by Cherian

  Disclaimer: I have browsed http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/asp.net+hosting and didn’t find anything quite similar in value to Dreamhost. One of the biggest impediments IMHO for developing web applications on asp.net is the cost of deployment. I am not talking about building sites like Stackoverflow.com or plentyoffish.com. This is about sites that are bigger than brochureware and smaller than ones that require dedicated servers. Let me give you an example. xmec.org is an asp.net site I maintain for my college alumni. On an average it’s slated to hit around 1000-1100 views per day. At present it’s hosted on godaddy. The service is so damn pathetic; I am using it only because of the lack of options. The site doesn’t scale (no, it’s not the code) and the web control panels are extremely slow. The money I pay doesn’t justify the service or the performance. Every deployment push is a visit to the infuriating web control panel to set the permissions and the root directories. Had I developed it in python, this would have been deployed on Dreamhost.com with $10/year hosting fees (they have offers running all throughout) 50 GB space 5 MySQL Databases Shell / FTP Users POP / SMTP Access Unlimited Domains hosting Unlimited Sub domains hosting Unlimited Domains Forwarded/Mirrored Custom DNS (These are the only ones I could think of. More at the feature page) With a dream host shell, I even have a svn checked-out version of wordpress for my blog. Now, that’s control! To my question: Is there any asp.net (preferably .net 3.5. Dreamhost keeps on updating versions every fortnight) hosting company providing remotely similar feature-sets and pricing like Dreamhost. My requirements are: Less than $15-25/ year Typical WISP minus PHP .net 3.5 SP1 Full Trust mode(I can live with medium trust, if not for the IL emitting libraries) Isolated Application Pool 5 – 10 MySQL db’s Unlimited domain hosting MsSql 2005 or 2008 FTP support At Least 5 GB space SMTP IIS 7 Log files Accessibility Moderately good control panel Scripting, shell support Nominal bandwidth Another case in point: Recently I’ve been contemplating building a tool-website to find duplicates and weird characters in my Google contacts and fix them. With asp.net, the best part is that I can do this with LINQ to XML in less than 100 lines of code. What’s bad is the hosting part. I don’t think I stand to make any money out of this and therefore can’t afford to host it on GoGrid or DiscountAsp.net. Godaddy is not an option either. If I do this in python, I can push to this my existing $10 Dreamhost account with another domain pointed. No extra cost. Svn exported with scripts (capability) to change the connection string! Looking at the problem holistically, I think I represent a large breed of programmers playing it cheap and experimenting different things on a regular basis, one of which will become the next twitter/digg.

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• How to make and use first object in Objective C to store sender tag

  - by dbonneville

  I started with a sample program that simply sets up a UIView with some buttons on it. Works great. I want to access the sender tag from each button and save it. My first thought was to save it to a global variable but I couldn't get it to work right. I thought the best way would be to create an object with one property and synthesize it so I can get or set it as needed. First, I created GlobalGem.h: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface GlobalGem : NSObject { int gemTag; } @property int gemTag; -(void) print; @end Then I created GlobalGem.m: #import "GlobalGem.h" @implementation GlobalGem @synthesize gemTag; -(void) print { NSLog(@"gemTag value is %i", gemTag); } @end The sample code I worked from doesn't do anything I can see in "main" where the program initializes. They just have their methods and are set up to handle IBOutlet actions. I want to use this object in the IBOutlet methods. But I don't know where to create the object. In the viewDidLoad, I tried this: GlobalGem *aGem = [[GlobalGem alloc]init]; [aGem print]; I added reference to the .h file of course. The print method works. In the nslog I get "gemTag value is 0". But now I want to use the instance aGem in some of the IBOutlet actions. For instance, if I put this same method in one of the outlet actions like this: - (IBAction)touchButton:(id)sender { [aGem print]; } ...I get a build error saying that "aGem is undeclared". Yes, I'm new to objective c and am very confused. Is the instance I created, aGem, in the viewDidLoad not accessible outside of that method? How would I create an instance of a Class that I can store a variable value that any of the IBOutlet methods can access? All the buttons need to be able to store their sender tag in the instance aGem and I'm stuck. As I mentioned earlier, I was able to write the sender tag to a global variable I declared in the UIView .h file that came with the program, but I ran into issues using it. Where am I off?

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