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  • OpenGL ES functions not accepting values originating outside of it's view

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I've been unable to figure this out on my own. I currently have an Open GLES setup where a view controller both updates a game world (with a dt), fetches the data I need to render, passes it off to an EAGLView through two structures (built of Apple's ES1Renderer), and draws the scene. Whenever a value originates outside of the Open GL view, it can't be used to either translate objects using glTranslatef, or set up the scene using glOrthof. If I assign a new value to something, it will work - even if it is the exact same number. The two structures I have each contain a variety of floating-point numbers and booleans, along with two arrays. I can log the values from within my renderer - they make it there - but I receive errors from OpenGL if I try to do anything with them. No crashes result, but the glOrthof call doesn't work if I don't set the camera values to anything different. Code used to set up scene: [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); //clears the color buffer bit glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); //sets up the scene w/ ortho projection glViewport(0, 0, 320, 480); glLoadIdentity(); glOrthof(320, 0, dynamicData.cam_x2, dynamicData.cam_x1, 1.0, -1.0); glClearColor(1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); /*error checking code here*/ "dynamicData" (which is replaced every frame) is created within my game simulation. From within my controller, I call a method (w/in my simulation) that returns it, and pass the result on to the EAGLView, which passes it on to the renderer. I haven't been able to come up with a better solution for this - suggestions in this regard would be greatly appreciated as well. Also, this function doesn't work as well (values originate in the same place): glTranslatef(dynamicData.ship_x, dynamicData.ship_y, 0.0); Thanks in advance. Additional Definitions: Structure (declared in a separate header): typedef struct { float ship_x, ship_y; float cam_x1, cam_x2; } dynamicRenderData; Render data getter (and builder) (every frame) - (dynamicData)getDynRenderData { //d_rd is an ivar, zeroed on initialization d_rd.ship_x = mainShip.position.x; d_rd.ship_y = mainShip.position.y; d_rd.cam_x1 = d_rd.ship_x - 30.0f; d_rd.cam_x2 = d_rd.cam_x1 + 480.0f; return d_rd; } Zeroed at start. (d_rd.ship_x = 0;, etc…) Setting up the view. Prototype (GLView): - (void)draw: (dynamicRenderData)dynamicData Prototype (Renderer): - (void)drawView: (dynamicRenderData)dynamicData How it's called w/in the controller: //controller [glview draw: [world getDynRenderData]]; //glview (within draw) [renderer drawView: dynamicData];

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  • How to find the one Label in DataList that is set to True

    - by Doug
    In my .aspx page I have my DataList: <asp:DataList ID="DataList1" runat="server" DataKeyField="ProductSID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" onitemcreated="DataList1_ItemCreated" RepeatColumns="3" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" Width="1112px"> <ItemTemplate> ProductSID: <asp:Label ID="ProductSIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSID") %>' /> <br /> ProductSKU: <asp:Label ID="ProductSKULabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSKU") %>' /> <br /> ProductImage1: <asp:Label ID="ProductImage1Label" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductImage1") %>' /> <br /> ShowLive: <asp:Label ID="ShowLiveLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ShowLive") %>' /> <br /> CollectionTypeID: <asp:Label ID="CollectionTypeIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionTypeID") %>' /> <br /> CollectionHomePage: <asp:Label ID="CollectionHomePageLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionHomePage") %>' /> <br /> <br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:DataList> And in my code behind using the ItemCreated event to find and set the label.backcolor property. (Note:I'm using a recursive findControl class) protected void DataList1_ItemCreated(object sender, DataListItemEventArgs e) { foreach (DataListItem item in DataList1.Items) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Label itemLabel = form1.FindControlR("CollectionHomePageLabel") as Label; if (itemLabel !=null || itemLabel.Text == "True") { itemLabel.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.Yellow; } } When I run the page, the itemLabel is found, and the color shows. But it sets the itemLabel color to the first instance of the itemLabel found in the DataList. Of all the itemLabels in the DataList, only one will have it's text = True - and that should be the label picking up the backcolor. Also: The itemLabel is picking up a column in the DB called "CollectionHomePage" which is True/False bit data type. I must be missing something simple... Thanks for your ideas.

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  • R: Plotting a graph with different colors of points based on advanced criteria

    - by balconydoor
    What I would like to do is a plot (using ggplot), where the x axis represent years which have a different colour for the last three years in the plot than the rest. The last three years should also meet a certain criteria and based on this the last three years can either be red or green. The criteria is that the mean of the last three years should be less (making it green) or more (making it red) than the 66%-percentile of the remaining years. So far I have made two different functions calculating the last three year mean: LYM3 <- function (x) { LYM3 <- tail(x,3) mean(LYM3$Data,na.rm=T) } And the 66%-percentile for the remaining: perc66 <- function(x) { percentile <- head(x,-3) quantile(percentile$Data, .66, names=F,na.rm=T) } Here are two sets of data that can be used in the calculations (plots), the first which is an example from my real data where LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1) and the second is just made up data where LYM3 perc66. df1<- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(347261.87, 145071.29, 110181.93, 183016.71, 210995.67, 205207.33, 103291.78, 247182.10, 152894.45, 170771.50, 206534.55, 287770.86, 223832.43, 297542.86, 267343.54, 475485.47, 224575.08, 147607.81, 171732.38, 126818.10, 165801.08, 136921.58, 136947.63, 83428.05, 144295.87, 68566.23, 59943.05, 49909.08, 52149.11, 117627.75, 132127.79, 130463.80)) df2 <- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(sample(50,29,replace=T),75,75,75)) Here’s my code for my plot so far: plot <- ggplot(df1, aes(x=Year, y=Data)) + theme_bw() + geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<2008, "black",ifelse(LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1),"green","red")))) + geom_line() + scale_x_continuous(breaks=c(1980,1985,1990,1995,2000,2005,2010), limits=c(1978,2011)) plot As you notice it doesn’t really do what I want it to do. The only thing it does seem to do is that it turns the years before 2008 into one level and those after into another one and base the point colour off these two levels. Since I don’t want this year to be stationary either, I made another tiny function: fun3 <- function(x) { df <- subset(x, Year==(max(Year)-2)) df$Year } So the previous code would have the same effect as: geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<fun3(df1), "black","red"))) But it still does not care about my colours. Why does it make the years into levels? And how come an ifelse function doesn’t work within another one in this case? How would it be possible to the arguments to do what I like? I realise this might be a bit messy, asking for a lot at the same time, but I hope my description is pretty clear. It would be helpful if someone could at least point me in the right direction. I tried to put the code for the plot into a function as well so I wouldn’t have to change the data frame at all functions within the plot, but I can’t get it to work. Thank you!

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  • Check my anagram code from a job interview in the past.

    - by Michael Dorgan
    Had the following as an interview question a while ago and choked so bad on basic syntax that I failed to advance (once the adrenalin kicks in, coding goes out the window.) Given a list of string, return a list of sets of strings that are anagrams of the input set. i.e. "dog","god", "foo" should return {"dog","god"}. Afterward, I created the code on my own as a sanity check and it's been around now for a bit. I'd welcome input on it to see if I missed anything or if I could have done it much more efficiently. Take it as a chance to improve myself and learn other techniques: void Anagram::doWork(list input, list &output) { typedef list SortType; SortType sortedInput; // sort each string and pair it with the original for(list<string>::iterator i = input.begin(); i != input.end(); ++i) { string tempString(*i); std::sort(tempString.begin(), tempString.end()); sortedInput.push_back(make_pair(*i, tempString)); } // Now step through the new sorted list for(SortType::iterator i = sortedInput.begin(); i != sortedInput.end();) { set<string> newSet; // Assume (hope) we have a match and pre-add the first. newSet.insert(i->first); // Set the secondary iterator one past the outside to prevent // matching the original SortType::iterator j = i; ++j; while(j != sortedInput.end()) { if(i->second == j->second) { // If the string matches, add it to the set and remove it // so that future searches need not worry about it newSet.insert(j->first); j = sortedInput.erase(j); } else { // else, next element ++j; } } // If size is bigger than our original push, we have a match - save it to the output if(newSet.size() > 1) { output.push_back(newSet); } // erase this element and update the iterator i = sortedInput.erase(i); } }

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  • Is there a reason why a base class decorated with XmlInclude would still throw a type unknown exception when serialized?

    - by Tedford
    I will simplify the code to save space but what is presented does illustrate the core problem. I have a class which has a property that is a base type. There exist 3 dervived classes which could be assigned to that property. If I assign any of the derived classes to the container then the XmlSerializer throws dreaded "The type xxx was not expected. Use the XmlInclude or SoapInclude attribute to specify types that are not known statically." exception when attempting to seralize the container. However my base class is already decorated with that attribute so I figure there must be an additional "hidden" requirement. The really odd part is that the default WCF serializer has no issues with this class hierarchy. The Container class [DataContract] [XmlRoot(ElementName = "TRANSACTION", Namespace = Constants.Namespace)] public class PaymentSummaryRequest : CommandRequest { /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the summary. /// </summary> /// <value>The summary.</value> /// <remarks></remarks> [DataMember] public PaymentSummary Summary { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Initializes a new instance of the <see cref="PaymentSummaryRequest"/> class. /// </summary> public PaymentSummaryRequest() { Mechanism = CommandMechanism.PaymentSummary; } } The base class [DataContract] [XmlInclude(typeof(xxxPaymentSummary))] [XmlInclude(typeof(yyyPaymentSummary))] [XmlInclude(typeof(zzzPaymentSummary))] [KnownType(typeof(xxxPaymentSummary))] [KnownType(typeof(xxxPaymentSummary))] [KnownType(typeof(zzzPaymentSummary))] public abstract class PaymentSummary { } One of the derived classes [DataContract] public class xxxPaymentSummary : PaymentSummary { } The serialization code var serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(PaymentSummaryRequest)); serializer.Serialize(Console.Out,new PaymentSummaryRequest{Summary = new xxxPaymentSummary{}}); The Exception System.InvalidOperationException: There was an error generating the XML document. --- System.InvalidOperationException: The type xxxPaymentSummary was not expected. Use the XmlInclude or SoapInclude attribute to specify types that are not known statically. at Microsoft.Xml.Serialization.GeneratedAssembly.XmlSerializationWriterPaymentSummaryRequest.Write13_PaymentSummary(String n, String ns, PaymentSummary o, Boolean isNullable, Boolean needType) at Microsoft.Xml.Serialization.GeneratedAssembly.XmlSerializationWriterPaymentSummaryRequest.Write14_PaymentSummaryRequest(String n, String ns, PaymentSummaryRequest o, Boolean isNullable, Boolean needType) at Microsoft.Xml.Serialization.GeneratedAssembly.XmlSerializationWriterPaymentSummaryRequest.Write15_TRANSACTION(Object o) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Serialize(XmlWriter xmlWriter, Object o, XmlSerializerNamespaces namespaces, String encodingStyle, String id) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Serialize(TextWriter textWriter, Object o, XmlSerializerNamespaces namespaces) at UserQuery.RunUserAuthoredQuery() in c:\Users\Tedford\AppData\Local\Temp\uqacncyo.0.cs:line 47

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  • Spring 3 MVC - Form Failure Causes Exception When Reloading JSP

    - by jboyd
    Using Spring 3 MVC, please bear with the long code example, it's quite simple, but I want to make sure all relevant information is posted. Basically here is the use case: There is a registration page, a user can login, OR fill out a registration form. The login form is a simple HTML form, the registration form is a more complicated, Spring bound form that uses a RegistrationFormData bean. Here is the relevant code: UserController.java ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String login(Model model) { model.addAttribute("registrationInfo", new ProfileAdminFormData()); return "login"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login.do", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String doLogin( @RequestParam(value = "userName") String userName, @RequestParam(value = "password") String password, Model model) { logger.info("login.do : userName=" + userName + ", password=" + password); try { getUser().login(userName, password); } catch (UserNotFoundException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("loginError", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } return "redirect:/"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/register.do") public String register( @ModelAttribute(value = "registrationInfo") ProfileAdminFormData profileAdminFormData, BindingResult result, Model model) { //todo: redirect if (new RegistrationValidator(profileAdminFormData, result).validate()) { try { User().register(profileAdminFormData); return "index"; } catch (UserException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("registrationErrorMessage", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } } return "login"; } and the JSP: ... <form:form commandName="registrationInfo" action="register.do"> ... So the problem here is that when login fails I get an exception because there is no bean "registrationInfo" in the model attributes. What I need is that regardless of the path through this controller that the "registrationInfo" bean is not null, that way if login fails, as opposed to registration, that bean is still in the model. As you can see I create the registrationInfo object explicitly in my controller in the method bound to "/login", which is what I thought was going to be kind of a setup method" Something doesn't feel right about the "/login" method which sets up the page, but I needed to that in order to get the page to render at all without throwing an exception because there is no "registrationInfo" model attribute, as needed by the form in the JSP

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  • Spring.Net Message Selectors with compound statements don't seem to be working

    - by Jonathan Beerhalter
    I'm using Spring.NET to connect to ActiveMQ and do some fairly simple pub sub routing. Everything works fine when my selector is a simple expression like Car='Honda' but if I try a compound expression like Car='Honda' AND Make='Pilot' I never get any matches on my subscription. Here's the code to generate the subscription, does anyone see where I might be doing something wrong? public bool AddSubscription(string topicName, Dictionary<string,string> selectorList, GDException exp) { try { ActiveMQTopic topic = new ActiveMQTopic(topicName); string selectorString = ""; if (selectorList.Keys.Count == 0) { // Select all items for this topic selectorString = "2>1"; } else { foreach (string key in selectorList.Keys) { selectorString += key + " = '" + selectorList[key] + "'" + " AND "; } selectorString = selectorString.Remove(selectorString.Length - 5, 5); } IMessageConsumer consumer = this._subSession.CreateConsumer(topic, selectorString, false); if (consumer != null) { _consumers.Add(consumer); consumer.Listener += new MessageListener(HandleRecieveMessage); return true; } else { exp.SetValues("Error adding subscription, null consumer returned"); return false; } } catch (Exception ex) { exp.SetValues(ex); return false; } } And then the code to send the message, which seems simple enough to me public void SendMessage(GDPubSubMessage messageToSend) { if (!this.isDisposed) { if (_producers.ContainsKey(messageToSend.Topic)) { IBytesMessage bytesMessage = this._pubSession.CreateBytesMessage(messageToSend.Payload); foreach (string key in messageToSend.MessageProperties.Keys) { bytesMessage.Properties.SetString(key, messageToSend.MessageProperties[key]); } _producers[messageToSend.Topic].Send(bytesMessage, false, (byte)255, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(1)); } else { ActiveMQTopic topic = new ActiveMQTopic(messageToSend.Topic); _producers.Add(messageToSend.Topic, this._pubSession.CreateProducer(topic)); IBytesMessage bytesMessage = this._pubSession.CreateBytesMessage(messageToSend.Payload); foreach (string key in messageToSend.MessageProperties.Keys) { bytesMessage.Properties.SetString(key, messageToSend.MessageProperties[key]); } _producers[messageToSend.Topic].Send(bytesMessage); } } else { throw new ObjectDisposedException(this.GetType().FullName); } } 07/102009: Update Ok, found the problem bytesMessage.Properties.SetString(key, messageToSend.MessageProperties[key]); This justs sets a single property, so my messages are only being tagged with a single property, hence the combo subscription never gets hit. Anyone know how to add more properties? You'd think bytesMessage.Properties would have a Add method, but it doesn't.

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  • How to return a property name when comparing two properties at class-level

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hi I have implemented an 'EqualTo' Validation Attribute, that compares two Properties of an object, during ModelBinding in ASP.NET MVC 2. The problem I have is not with it not working, because it does work. The problem is, when I do my request - which is an ajax request - I get back errors to my front-end, where it sets a class on the input fields to indicate invalid input. What it does is iterate through a list of Errors (in a JsonResult), and set a class. This is all dandy. But the ValidationAtrribute I am having trouble with is set at a Class-level, i.e., it's not like other ValidationAttributes where you set something like "[Required]" or something like that. [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple=true, Inherited=false)] public class EqualToAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public String SourceProperty { get; set; } public String MatchProperty { get; set; } public EqualToAttribute(string source, string match) { SourceProperty = source; MatchProperty = match; } public override Boolean IsValid(Object value) { Type objectType = value.GetType(); PropertyInfo[] properties = objectType.GetProperties(); object sourceValue = new object(); object matchValue = new object(); Type sourceType = null; Type matchType = null; int counter = 0; foreach (PropertyInfo propertyInfo in properties) { if (propertyInfo.Name == SourceProperty || propertyInfo.Name == MatchProperty) { if (counter == 0) { sourceValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); sourceType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } if (counter == 1) { matchValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); matchType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } counter++; if (counter == 2) { break; } } } if (sourceType != null && matchType != null) { return sourceValue.ToString().Equals(matchValue.ToString()); //return Convert.ChangeType(sourceValue, sourceType) == Convert.ChangeType(matchValue, matchType); } return false; } private object _typeId = new object(); public override object TypeId { get { return this._typeId; } } } Now this code works, except for the fact that the validation process does not return which Property failed. And I simply can't figure out how to make it return one of the two. In reality I don't care which one it returns.. because both are failing.. Do you have an idea how to make it return the/or both Property/Properties that is/are failing.

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  • Objective-C++ Memory Problem

    - by Stephen Furlani
    Hello, I'm having memory woes. I've got a C++ Library (Equalizer from Eyescale) and they use the Traversal Visitor Pattern to allow you to add new functionality to their classes. I've finally figured out how it works, and I've got a Visitor that just returns the properties from one of the objects. (since I don't know how they're allocated). so. My little code does this: VisitorResult AGLContextVisitor::visit( Channel* channel ) { // Search through Nodes, Pipes until we get to the right window. // Add some code to make sure we find the right one? // Not executing the following code as C++ in gdb? eq::Window* w = channel->getWindow(); OSWindow* osw = w->getOSWindow(); AGLWindow* aw = (AGLWindow *)osw; AGLContext agl_ctx = aw->getAGLContext(); this->setContext(agl_ctx); return TRAVERSE_PRUNE; } So here's the problem. eq::Window* w = channel->getWindow(); (gdb) print w 0x0 BUT If I do this: (gdb) set objc-non-blocking-mode off (gdb) print w=channel->getWindow() 0x300effb9 // an honest memory location, and sets w as verified in the Debugger window of XCode. It does the same thing for osw. I don't get it. Why would something work in (gdb) but not in the code? The file is completely a cpp file, but it seems to be running in objc++, since I need to turn blocking off. Help!? I feel like I'm missing some memory-management basic thing here, either with C++ or Obj-C. [edit] channel-getWindow() is supposed to do this: /** @return the parent window. @version 1.0 */ Window* getWindow() { return _window; } The code also executes fine if I run it from a C++-only application. [edit] No... I tried creating a simple stand-alone program since I was tired of running it as a plugin. Messy to debug. And no, it doesn't run in the C++ program either. So I'm really at a loss as to what I'm doing wrong. Thanks, -- Stephen Furlani

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  • grdb not working variables

    - by stupid_idiot
    hi, i know this is kinda retarded but I just can't figure it out. I'm debugging this: xor eax,eax mov ah,[var1] mov al,[var2] call addition stop: jmp stop var1: db 5 var2: db 6 addition: add ah,al ret the numbers that I find on addresses var1 and var2 are 0x0E and 0x07. I know it's not segmented, but that ain't reason for it to do such escapades, because the addition call works just fine. Could you please explain to me where is my mistake? I see the problem, dunno how to fix it yet though. The thing is, for some reason the instruction pointer starts at 0x100 and all the segment registers at 0x1628. To address the instruction the used combination is i guess [cs:ip] (one of the segment registers and the instruction pointer for sure). The offset to var1 is 0x10 (probably because from the begining of the code it's the 0x10th byte in order), i tried to examine the memory and what i got was: 1628:100 8 bytes 1628:108 8 bytes 1628:110 <- wtf? (assume another 8 bytes) 1628:118 ... whatever tricks are there in the memory [cs:var1] points somewhere else than in my code, which is probably where the label .data would usually address ds.... probably.. i don't know what is supposed to be at 1628:10 ok, i found out what caused the assness and wasted me whole fuckin day. the behaviour described above is just correct, the code is fully functional. what i didn't know is that grdb debugger for some reason sets the begining address to 0x100... the sollution is to insert the directive ORG 0x100 on the first line and that's the whole thing. the code was working because instruction pointer has the right address to first instruction and goes one by one, but your assembler doesn't know what effective address will be your program stored at so it pretty much remains relative to first line of the code which means all the variables (if not using label for data section) will remain pointing as if it started at 0x0. which of course wouldn't work with DOS. and grdb apparently emulates some DOS features... sry for the language, thx everyone for effort, hope this will spare someone's time if having the same problem... heheh.. at least now i know the reason why to use .data section :))))

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  • Killing Mysql processes staying in sleep command.

    - by Shino88
    Hey I am connecting a MYSQL database through hibernate and i seem to have processes that are not being killed after they are finished in the session. I have called flush and close on each session but when i check the server the last processes are still there with a sleep command. This is a new problem which i am having and was not the case yesterday. Is there any way i can ensure the killng of theses processes when i am done with a session. Below is an example of one of my classes. public JSONObject check() { //creates a new session needed to add elements to a database Session session = null; //holds the result of the check in the database JSONObject check = new JSONObject(); try{ //creates a new session needed to add elements to a database SessionFactory sessionFactory = new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); session = sessionFactory.openSession(); if (justusername){ //query created to select a username from user table String hquery = "Select username from User user Where username = ? "; //query created Query query = session.createQuery(hquery); //sets the username of the query the values JSONObject contents query.setString(0, username); // executes query and adds username string variable String user = (String) query.uniqueResult(); //checks to see if result is found (null if not found) if (user == null) { //adds false to Jobject if not found check.put("indatabase", "false"); } else { check.put("indatabase", "true"); } //adds check to Jobject to say just to check username check.put("justusername", true); } else { //query created to select a username and password from user table String hquery = "Select username from User user Where username = :user and password = :pass "; Query query = session.createQuery(hquery); query.setString("user", username); query.setString("pass", password); String user = (String) query.uniqueResult(); if(user ==null) { check.put("indatabase", false); } else { check.put("indatabase", true); } check.put("justusername", false); } }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); //logg.log(Level.WARNING, " Exception", e.getMessage()); }finally{ // Actual contact insertion will happen at this step session.flush(); session.close(); } //returns Jobject return check; }

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  • NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

    - by Brent Traut
    I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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  • Can't insert a number into a C++ custom streambuf/ostream

    - by 0xbe5077ed
    I have written a custom std::basic_streambuf and std::basic_ostream because I want an output stream that I can get a JNI string from in a manner similar to how you can call std::ostringstream::str(). These classes are quite simple. namespace myns { class jni_utf16_streambuf : public std::basic_streambuf<char16_t> { JNIEnv * d_env; std::vector<char16_t> d_buf; virtual int_type overflow(int_type); public: jni_utf16_streambuf(JNIEnv *); jstring jstr() const; }; typedef std::basic_ostream<char16_t, std::char_traits<char16_t>> utf16_ostream; class jni_utf16_ostream : public utf16_ostream { jni_utf16_streambuf d_buf; public: jni_utf16_ostream(JNIEnv *); jstring jstr() const; }; // ... } // namespace myns In addition, I have made four overloads of operator<<, all in the same namespace: namespace myns { // ... utf16_ostream& operator<<(utf16_ostream&, jstring) throw(std::bad_cast); utf16_ostream& operator<<(utf16_ostream&, const char *); utf16_ostream& operator<<(utf16_ostream&, const jni_utf16_string_region&); jni_utf16_ostream& operator<<(jni_utf16_ostream&, jstring); // ... } // namespace myns The implementation of jni_utf16_streambuf::overflow(int_type) is trivial. It just doubles the buffer width, puts the requested character, and sets the base, put, and end pointers correctly. It is tested and I am quite sure it works. The jni_utf16_ostream works fine inserting unicode characters. For example, this works fine and results in the stream containing "hello, world": myns::jni_utf16_ostream o(env); o << u"hello, wor" << u'l' << u'd'; My problem is as soon as I try to insert an integer value, the stream's bad bit gets set, for example: myns::jni_utf16_ostream o(env); if (o.badbit()) throw "bad bit before"; // does not throw int32_t x(5); o << x; if (o.badbit()) throw "bad bit after"; // throws :( I don't understand why this is happening! Is there some other method on std::basic_streambuf I need to be implementing????

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  • Wierdness debugging Visual Studio C++ 2008

    - by Jeff Dege
    I have a legacy C++ app, that in its most incarnation we've been building with makefiles and VS2003's command-line tool. I'm trying to get it to build using VS2008 and MsBuild. The build is working OK, but I'm getting errors where I'd never seen errors, before, and stepping through in VS2008's debugger only confuses me. The app links a number of static libraries, which fall into two categories: those that are part of the same application suite, and those that are shared between a number of application suites. Originally, I had a .csproj file for each static library, and two .sln files, one for the application suite (including the suite-specific libraries) and one for the non-suite-specific shared libraries. The shared libraries were included in the link, their projects were not included in the application suite .sln. The application instantiates an object from a class that is defined in one of the shared libraries. The class has a member object of a class that wraps a linked list. The constructor of the linked list class sets its "head" pointer to null. When I run the app, and try to add an element to the linked list, I get an error - the head pointer contains the value 0xCCCCCCCC. So I step through with the debugger. And see weirdness. When the current line in the debugger is in a source file belonging to the static library, the head pointer contains 0x00000000. When I step into the constructor, I can see the pointer being set to that value, and when I'm stepped into any other method of the class, I can see that the head pointer still contains 0x00000000. But when I step out into methods that are defined in the application suite .sln, it contains 0xCCCCCCCC. It's not like it's being overwritten. It changes back and forth depending upon which source file I am currently debugging. So I included the shared library's project in the application suite .sln, and now I see the head pointer containing 0xCCCCCCCC all the time. It looks like the constructor of the linked list class is not being called. So now, I'm entirely confused. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Deleting a node in a family tree

    - by user559142
    Hi, I'm trying to calclulate the best way to delete a node in a family tree. First, a little description of how the app works. My app makes the following assumption: Any node can only have one partner. That means that any child a single node has, it will also be the partner nodes child too. Therefore, step relations, divorces etc aren't compensated for. A node always has two parents - A mother and father cannot be added seperately. If the user doesn't know the details - the nodes attributes are set to a default value. Also any node can add parents, siblings, children to itself. Therefore in law relationships can be added. I have the following classes: FamilyMember String fName; String lName; String dob; String gender; FamilyMember mother, father, partner; ArrayListchildren; int index; int generation; void linkParents(); void linkPartner(); void addChild(); //gets & sets for fields Family ArrayListfamily; void addMember(); void removeMember(); FamilyMember getFamilyMember(index); ArrayListgetFamilyMembers(); FamilyTree Family family; void removeMember(); //need help void displayFamilyMembers(); void addFamilyMember(); void enterDetails(); void displayAncestors(); void displayDescendants(); void printDescendants(); FamilyMember findRootNode(); void sortGenerations(); void getRootGeneration(); I am having trouble with identifying the logic for removing a member. All other functions work fine. Has anyone developed a family tree app before who knows how to deal with removing various different nodes in the family "tree"? e.g. removing a leaf removing a leaf with partner (what if partner has parents etc) removing a parent It seems to be another recursive property but my head is swelling from over thought.

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  • how to deal with the position in a c# stream

    - by CapsicumDreams
    The (entire) documentation for the position property on a stream says: When overridden in a derived class, gets or sets the position within the current stream. The Position property does not keep track of the number of bytes from the stream that have been consumed, skipped, or both. That's it. OK, so we're fairly clear on what it doesn't tell us, but I'd really like to know what it in fact does stand for. What is 'the position' for? Why would we want to alter or read it? If we change it - what happens? In a pratical example, I have a a stream that periodically gets written to, and I have a thread that attempts to read from it (ideally ASAP). From reading many SO issues, I reset the position field to zero to start my reading. Once this is done: Does this affect where the writer to this stream is going to attempt to put the data? Do I need to keep track of the last write position myself? (ie if I set the position to zero to read, does the writer begin to overwrite everything from the first byte?) If so, do I need a semaphore/lock around this 'position' field (subclassing, perhaps?) due to my two threads accessing it? If I don't handle this property, does the writer just overflow the buffer? Perhaps I don't understand the Stream itself - I'm regarding it as a FIFO pipe: shove data in at one end, and suck it out at the other. If it's not like this, then do I have to keep copying the data past my last read (ie from position 0x84 on) back to the start of my buffer? I've seriously tried to research all of this for quite some time - but I'm new to .NET. Perhaps the Streams have a long, proud (undocumented) history that everyone else implicitly understands. But for a newcomer, it's like reading the manual to your car, and finding out: The accelerator pedal affects the volume of fuel and air sent to the fuel injectors. It does not affect the volume of the entertainment system, or the air pressure in any of the tires, if fitted. Technically true, but seriously, what we want to know is that if we mash it to the floor you go faster..

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  • Mac Safari randomly recreating cookie when I refresh my login screen. Very bizarre

    - by mcintyre321
    We have found an issue in our app where Safari on the Mac randomly recreates a login cookie from a logged off session. I have a fiddler archive with this behaviour here. Note that some stuff has been removed from this to make it easier to get, but nothing which sets a cookie or anything has been taken out - only repetitions of requests 3-8. I'll talk you through the running order Request 1: user logs out via call to /logout.aspx - Set-Cookie returned setting cookie expiry date to 1999 Requests 2-8: user refreshes login page sending calls to root or /res/en-US/s.js - no cookie is sent to server or received back, and access is denied. I have cut out a lot of requests of this nature from the log as they are boring Request 9: request for /res/en-US/s.js - Hv3 authentication cookie has mysteriously reappeared! Wat. There was NO set-cookie! WTFF! Request 10+ : now the cookie has reappeared, the site logs the user in AGAIN The cookie, when examined in Safari looks like <dict> <key>Created</key> <real>259603523.26834899</real> <key>Domain</key> <string>.mysite.dev</string> <key>Expires</key> <date>2010-03-24T16:05:22Z</date> <key>HttpOnly</key> <string>TRUE</string> <key>Name</key> <string>.Hv3</string> <key>Path</key> <string>/</string> </dict> One thing to note is that in Safari, the cookie domain is .mysite.dev not mysite.dev (which is the cookie domain specified in web.config) - however, given that access is denied in requests 2-8, it looks like the cookie has expired OK. If you look in the list of cookies in the browser during 2-8, the .Hv3 cookie is not there. Is this our bug or Safari's? What can I do to stop it happening?

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  • ASP.NET Repeater Control Not Working in FireFox

    - by Robert Hyland
    everyone: I have an ASP.NET Application that uses a Repeater control to display a thumbnail gallery. When the user mouses over one of the thumbnails, the main image will present that thumbnail. It uses a Repeater control in a UserControl like this: <asp:Image ID="pictureImage" runat="server" Visible="true" Width="200px" /> <asp:Repeater ID="rpProductImages" runat="server" Visible="false"> <ItemTemplate> <div> <div style="float: left" id="smallImage" runat="server"> <div class="smallAltImage" onmouseover="showImage();" style="border: 1px solid #999999; margin: 5px 5px 5px 4px; width: 45px; height: 45px; background-position: center; background-repeat: no-repeat; background-image: url('<%#ResolveClientUrl(productImagesPath)%><%# String.Format("{0}", DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "ImageName")) %>');"> </div> <asp:Label ID="lblImageName" runat="server" Visible="false"><%# Eval("ImageName")%></asp:Label> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Then, in a javascript file, this: function showImage(){ // Get thumbnail path. var img = (this.style.backgroundImage).substring(4, (this.style.backgroundImage).length - 1); $('#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_ProductDetails1_pictureImage').attr('src', img); } It works fine in IE9, displaying the fully-qualified path for the image. In FireFox8, however, the img src looks like this: ""ProductImages/K42JY_500.jpg"" ... with two-sets of quotes! I think that the Repeater control is the central cause of the problem but I Googled and Googled again and could not find anyone that has experienced this similar situation! In fact, I'll PayPal anyone who can help me solve this with $50.00 (can't you tell I'm in the XMAS spirit, here?!) Any help is appreciated and "Thank You" in advance!

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  • Action Cache for root URL not working

    - by askegg
    Here's the setup. I have web site which is essentially a simple CMS. Here is the routes file: map.connect ':url', :controller => :pages, :action => :show map.root :controller => :pages, :action => :show, :url => "/" The page controller is thus: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :verify_access, :except => [:show] # Cache show action if we are not logged in. caches_action :show, :layout => false, :unless => Proc.new { |controller| controller.logged_in? } def update @page = Page.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| expire_action :action => :show, :url => @page.url So when a visitor hits "/" it maps to :controller = "pages, :action = "show, :url = "/". This generates a cached version on first try, then returns the appropriate result there after. The log files show: Processing PagesController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-08-02 14:15:01) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"show", "url"=>"/", "controller"=>"pages"} Cached fragment hit: views/out.local// (0.1ms) Rendering template within layouts/application Filter chain halted as [#<ActionController::Filters::AroundFilter:0x23eb03c @identifier=nil, @method=#<Proc:0x01904858@/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.3/lib/action_controller/caching/actions.rb:64>, @kind=:filter, @options={:only=>#<Set: {"show"}>, :if=>nil, :unless=>#<Proc:0x025137ac@/Users/askegg/Sites/out/app/controllers/pages_controller.rb:6>}>] did_not_yield. Completed in 2ms (View: 1, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://out.local/] OK - all good so far. When I update the page, it should expire the cache (see above). The logs show: Page Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."id" = 3) Page Load (0.1ms) SELECT "pages".id FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."url" = '/' AND "pages".domain_id = 1 AND "pages".id <> 3) LIMIT 1 Expired fragment: views/out.local/index (0.1ms) Redirected to http://out.local/pages/3 Completed in 9ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://out.local/pages/3] See the problem? Rails is clearing the cache named "index", but it sets it as "/". Naturally this results in the cache NOT being cleared, so visitors are now seeing the old version.

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • How do I hide the text links over a toggleable horizontal list with background images.

    - by Sivakanesh
    I'm trying to create a UL/LI horizontal list with background images only, with no text link visible. The reason for this is so that when I over over a list item, the background would rollover and when I click on it the current item would toggle. basically it is a horizontal menu with background images that can be toggled; mimicking the job of a radio button. I have done it like this; <div id="options"> <ul id="list"> <li class="active"><a href="#" class="option1 active" id="link1"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option2" id="link2"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option3" id="link3"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> </ul> </div> The CSS for option1, option2 and option3 simply define the background image. #options LI{list-style-type: none; display : inline} a.option1{ background:url('../images/option1.png') no-repeat;} a.option2{ background:url('../images/option2.png') no-repeat;} a.option3{ background:url('../images/option3.png') no-repeat;} a.option1, a.option2, a.option3{ background-position:top; display:inline; width:230px; height:40px; } And the hover & active css part simply sets the background position like so- a.option1:hover, a.option2:hover, a.option3:hover{ background-position:bottom; } a.active{ background-position:bottom !important; } This works fine, however on top of the background I get the words "XXXXX" as text links and I'm struggling to hide them. They are interfering with the hover action and preventing rollover (even if I replace XXXXX with a period or something short). I can't just remove the text from the link as it would hide the whole LI element. I have tried to use display:none; or text-indent:-999px but then the whole UI element becomes invisible. I can't understand what I'm doing wrong. Are you able to help? Thanks

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  • Using hidden values with jQuery (and ASP.NET MVC) -- not working?

    - by SlackerCoder
    Im using a couple of JSON calls to render data, etc etc. In order to keep the proper key value, I am storing it in a tag. I have this in several places in my code, none of which cause an issue like this one is. Here is the jQuery: The call that "sets" the value: $("a[id^='planSetupAddNewPlan']").live('click', function() { var x = $(this).attr('id'); x = x.substring(19); $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(x); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList", { GroupKey: x }, function(data) { $("#planSetupAddNew").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); alert('First Inside 2 ' + x); $.blockUI({ message: $("#planSetupAddNew") }); }); }); The call that "gets" the value: $("#ddlPlanSetupAddNewProduct").live('change', function() { var a = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); var prod = $(this).val(); alert(a); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList", { GroupKey: a, Product: prod }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { $("#planSetupAddNewPlan").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do something } }); }); Here is the html in question: <div id="planSetupAddNew" style="display:none; cursor: default;"> <input type="hidden" id="hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey" /> <div id="planSetupAddNewData"> </div> </div> In the first section, the alert ('First Inside 2 ' + x) returns what I expect (where x = the key value), and if I add a line to display the contents of the hidden field, that works as well: ie. var key = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); alert(key); In the "alert(a);" call, I am getting "undefined". I have looked at the other code in the same view and it is the same and it works. I must be missing something, or have some sort of mistype that I havent caught. Just an overview of the controller events: The first call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList) will return an html string building a "form" for users to enter information into. The second call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList) just changes a second dropdown based on the first dropdown selection (overwriting the html in the div). If you need more info, let me know! Any thoughts/tips/pointers/suggestions?!?! Thanks for all your help :)

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  • How do I make a rectangle move in an image?

    - by alicedimarco
    Basically I have an image loaded, and when I click a portion of the image, a rectangle (with no fill) shows up. If I click another part of the image again, that rectangle will show up once more. With each click, the same rectangle should appear. So far I have this code, now I don't know how to make the image appear. My image from my file directory. I have already made the code to get the image from my file directory. import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import java.awt.event.MouseListener; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JOptionPane; import javax.swing.JPanel; public class MP2 extends JPanel implements MouseListener{ JFrame frame; JPanel panel; int x = 0; int y = 0; String input; public MP2(){ } public static void main(String[] args){ JFrame frame = new JFrame(); MP2 panel = new MP2(); panel.addMouseListener(panel); frame.add(panel); frame.setSize(200,200); frame.setVisible(true); } public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent event) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub this.x = event.getX(); this.y = event.getY(); this.repaint(); input = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Something pops out"); System.out.println(input); } public void mouseEntered(MouseEvent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } public void mouseExited(MouseEvent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } public void mousePressed(MouseEvent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } public void mouseReleased(MouseEvent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } public void paintComponent(Graphics g){ super.paintComponent(g); // this.setBackground(Color.white); *Sets the bg color of the panel g.setColor(new Color(255,0,0)); g.drawRect(x, y, 100, 100); } }

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  • how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

    - by Austin
    I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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