Search Results

Search found 6722 results on 269 pages for 'foo inc'.

Page 12/269 | < Previous Page | 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19  | Next Page >

  • How to use references, avoid header bloat, and delay initialization?

    - by Kyle
    I was browsing for an alternative to using so many shared_ptrs, and found an excellent reply in a comment section: Do you really need shared ownership? If you stop and think for a few minutes, I'm sure you can pinpoint one owner of the object, and a number of users of it, that will only ever use it during the owner's lifetime. So simply make it a local/member object of the owners, and pass references to those who need to use it. I would love to do this, but the problem becomes that the definition of the owning object now needs the owned object to be fully defined first. For example, say I have the following in FooManager.h: class Foo; class FooManager { shared_ptr<Foo> foo; shared_ptr<Foo> getFoo() { return foo; } }; Now, taking the advice above, FooManager.h becomes: #include "Foo.h" class FooManager { Foo foo; Foo& getFoo() { return foo; } }; I have two issues with this. First, FooManager.h is no longer lightweight. Every cpp file that includes it now needs to compile Foo.h as well. Second, I no longer get to choose when foo is initialized. It must be initialized simultaneously with FooManager. How do I get around these issues?

    Read the article

  • Is it bad practice to have state in a static class?

    - by Matthew
    I would like to do something like this: public class Foo { // Probably really a Guid, but I'm using a string here for simplicity's sake. string Id { get; set; } int Data { get; set; } public Foo (int data) { ... } ... } public static class FooManager { Dictionary<string, Foo> foos = new Dictionary<string, Foo> (); public static Foo Get (string id) { return foos [id]; } public static Foo Add (int data) { Foo foo = new Foo (data); foos.Add (foo.Id, foo); return foo; } public static bool Remove (string id) { return foos.Remove (id); } ... // Other members, perhaps events for when Foos are added or removed, etc. } This would allow me to manage the global collection of Foos from anywhere. However, I've been told that static classes should always be stateless--you shouldn't use them to store global data. Global data in general seems to be frowned upon. If I shouldn't use a static class, what is the right way to approach this problem? Note: I did find a similar question, but the answer given doesn't really apply in my case.

    Read the article

  • Liskov Substition and Composition

    - by FlySwat
    Let say I have a class like this: public sealed class Foo { public void Bar { // Do Bar Stuff } } And I want to extend it to add something beyond what an extension method could do....My only option is composition: public class SuperFoo { private Foo _internalFoo; public SuperFoo() { _internalFoo = new Foo(); } public void Bar() { _internalFoo.Bar(); } public void Baz() { // Do Baz Stuff } } While this works, it is a lot of work...however I still run into a problem: public void AcceptsAFoo(Foo a) I can pass in a Foo here, but not a super Foo, because C# has no idea that SuperFoo truly does qualify in the Liskov Substitution sense...This means that my extended class via composition is of very limited use. So, the only way to fix it is to hope that the original API designers left an interface laying around: public interface IFoo { public Bar(); } public sealed class Foo : IFoo { // etc } Now, I can implement IFoo on SuperFoo (Which since SuperFoo already implements Foo, is just a matter of changing the signature). public class SuperFoo : IFoo And in the perfect world, the methods that consume Foo would consume IFoo's: public void AcceptsAFoo(IFoo a) Now, C# understands the relationship between SuperFoo and Foo due to the common interface and all is well. The big problem is that .NET seals lots of classes that would occasionally be nice to extend, and they don't usually implement a common interface, so API methods that take a Foo would not accept a SuperFoo and you can't add an overload. So, for all the composition fans out there....How do you get around this limitation? The only thing I can think of is to expose the internal Foo publicly, so that you can pass it on occasion, but that seems messy.

    Read the article

  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

    Read the article

  • Problem updating collection using JPA

    - by FarmBoy
    I have an entity class Foo foo that contains Collection<Bar> bars. I've tried a variety of ways, but I'm unable to successfully update my collection. One attempt: foo = em.find(key); foo.getBars().clear(); foo.setBars(bars); em.flush; \\ commit, etc. This appends the new collection to the old one. Another attempt: foo = em.find(key); bars = foo.getBars(); for (Bar bar : bars) { em.remove(bar); } em.flush; At this point, I thought I could add the new collection, but I find that the entity foo has been wiped out. Here are some annotations. In Foo: @OneToMany(cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }, mappedBy = "foo") private List<Bar> bars; In Bar: @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }) @JoinColumn(name = "FOO_ID") private Foo foo; Has anyone else had trouble with this? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

    - by PaulH
    I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

    Read the article

  • How to Remove Extensions From, and Force the Trailing Slash at the End of URLs?

    - by Kronbernkzion
    Example of current file structure: example.com/foo.php example.com/bar.html example.com/directory/ example.com/directory/foo.php example.com/directory/bar.html example.com/cgi-bin/directory/foo.cgi I would like to remove HTML, PHP and CGI extensions from, and then force the trailing slash at the end of URLs. So, it could look like this: example.com/foo/ example.com/bar/ example.com/directory/ example.com/directory/foo/ example.com/directory/bar/ example.com/cgi-bin/directory/foo/ I am very frustrated because I've searched for 17 hours straight for solution and visited more than a few hundred pages on various blogs and forums. I'm not joking. So I think I've done my research. Here is the code that sits in my .htaccess file right now: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.html -f RewriteRule ^(([^/]+/)*[^./]+)/$ $1.html RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !(\.[a-zA-Z0-9]|/)$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /$1/ [R=301,L] As you can see, this code only removes .html (and I'm not very happy with it because I think it could be done a lot simpler). I can remove the extension from PHP files when I rename them to .html through .htaccess, but that's not what I want. I want to remove it straight. This is the first thing I don't know how to do. The second thing is actually very annoying. My .htaccess file with code above, adds .html/ to every string entered after example.com/directory/foo/. So if I enter example.com/directory/foo/bar (obviously /bar doesn't exist since foo is a file), instead of just displaying message that page is not found, it converts it to example.com/directory/foo/bar.html/, then searches for a file for a few seconds and then displays the not found message. This, of course, is bad behavior. So, once again, I need the code in .htaccess to do the following things: Remove .html extension Remove .php extension Remove .cgi extension Force the trailing slash at the end of URLs Requests should behave correctly (no adding trailing slashes or extensions to strings if file or directory doesn't exist on server) Code should be as simple as possible I would very much appreciate any help. And to first person that gives me the solution, I'll send two $50 iTunes Store gift cards for US store. If this offends anyone, I am truly sorry and I apologize. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Should we persist with an employee still writing bad code after many years?

    - by user94986
    I've been assigned the task of managing developers for a well-established company. They have a single developer who specialises in all their C++ coding (since forever), but the quality of the work is abysmal. Code reviews and testing have revealed many problems, one of the worst being memory leaks. The developer has never tested his code for leaks, and I discovered that the applications could leak many MBs with only a minute of use. User's were reporting huge slowdowns, and his take was, "it's nothing to do with me - if they quit and restart, it's all good again." I've given him tools to detect and trace the leaks, and sat down with him for many hours to demonstrate how the tools are used, where the problems occur, and what to do to fix them. We're 6 months down the track, and I assigned him to write a new module. I reviewed it before it was integrated into our larger code base, and was dismayed to discover the same bad coding as before. The part that I find incomprehensible is that some of the coding is worse than amateurish. For example, he wanted a class (Foo) that could populate an object of another class (Bar). He decided that Foo would hold a reference to Bar, e.g.: class Foo { public: Foo(Bar& bar) : m_bar(bar) {} private: Bar& m_bar; }; But (for other reasons) he also needed a default constructor for Foo and, rather than question his initial design, he wrote this gem: Foo::Foo() : m_bar(*(new Bar)) {} So every time the default constructor is called, a Bar is leaked. To make matters worse, Foo allocates memory from the heap for 2 other objects, but he didn't write a destructor or copy constructor. So every allocation of Foo actually leaks 3 different objects, and you can imagine what happened when a Foo was copied. And - it only gets better - he repeated the same pattern on three other classes, so it isn't a one-off slip. The whole concept is wrong on so many levels. I would feel more understanding if this came from a total novice. But this guy has been doing this for many years and has had very focussed training and advice over the past few months. I realise he has been working without mentoring or peer reviews most of that time, but I'm beginning to feel he can't change. So my question is, would you persist with someone who is writing such obviously bad code?

    Read the article

  • How do I ADD an Attribute to the Root Element in XML using XSLT?

    - by kunjaan
    I want to match a root Element “FOO” and perform the transformation (add a version attribute) to it leaving the rest as it is. The Transformation I have so far looks like this: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace"> <xsl:template match="//FOO"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="@version"> <xsl:apply-templates select="node()|@*" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <FOO> <xsl:attribute name="version">1</xsl:attribute> <xsl:apply-templates select="node()|@*" /> </FOO> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> However this does not perform any transformation. It doesn't even detect the element. So I need to do add the namespace in order to make it work: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:fd="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace"> <xsl:template match="//fd:FOO"> … But this attaches a namespace attribute to the FOO element as well as other elements: <FOO xmlns:fd="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" version="1" id="fooid"> <BAR xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> Is there a way to say that the element is using the default namespace? Can we match and add elements in the default name space? Here is the original XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <FOO xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <BAR> <Attribute name="HEIGHT">2067</Attribute> </BAR> </FOO>

    Read the article

  • How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

    - by Josh Haberman
    Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

    Read the article

  • DataMapper: Create new record or update existing

    - by John Topley
    Does DataMapper provide a convenient way to create a new record when none exists or update an existing one? I couldn't find anything in the API documentation. This is what I have at the moment which doesn't seem very elegant: foo = Foo.get(id) if foo.nil? foo = Foo.create(#attributes...) else foo.update(#attributes...) end foo.save

    Read the article

  • improve javascript prototypal inheritance

    - by Julio
    I'm using a classical javascript prototypal inheritance, like this: function Foo() {} Naknek.prototype = { //Do something }; var Foo = window.Foo = new Foo(); I want to know how I can improve this and why I can't use this model: var Foo = window.Foo = new function() { }; Foo.prototype = { //Do something }; Why this code doesn't work? In my head this is more logical than the classical prototypal inheritance.

    Read the article

  • Are the following data type allocations analagous?

    - by byte
    I'm very interested in languages and their underpinnings, and I'd like to pose this question to the community. Are the following analagous to eachother in these languages? C# Foo bar = default(Foo); //alloc bar = new Foo(); //init VB.NET Dim bar As Foo = Nothing 'alloc bar = New Foo() 'init Objective-C Foo* bar = [Foo alloc]; //alloc bar = [bar init]; //init

    Read the article

  • accessing nth element (value) of a vector after sorting

    - by memC
    dear experts, This question is an extension of this question I asked. I have a std::vector vec_B.which stores instances of class Foo. The order of elements in this vector changes in the code. Now, I want to access the value of the current "last element" or current 'nth' element of the vector. If I use the code below to get the last element using getLastFoo() method, it doesn't return the correct value. For example, to begin with the last element of the vector has Foo.getNumber() = 9. After sorting it in descending order of num, for the last element, Foo.getNumber() = 0. But with the code below, it still returns 9.. that means it is still pointing to the original element that was the last element. What change should I make to the code below so that "lastFoo" points to the correct last element? class Foo { public: Foo(int i); ~Foo(){}; int getNum(); private: int num; }; Foo:Foo(int i){ num = i; } int Foo::getNum(){ return num; } class B { public: Foo* getLastFoo(); B(); ~B(){}; private: vector<Foo> vec_B; }; B::B(){ int i; for (i = 0; i< 10; i++){ vec_B.push_back(Foo(i)); } // Do some random changes to the vector vec_B so that elements are reordered. For // example rearrange elements in decreasing order of 'num' //... } Foo* B::getLastFoo(){ &vec_B.back(); }; int main(){ B b; Foo* lastFoo; lastFoo = b.getLastFoo() cout<<lastFoo->getNumber(); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Python new-style classes and __subclasses__ function

    - by Fraser Graham
    Can somebody explain to me why this works (in Python 2.5) : class Foo(object): pass class Bar(Foo): pass print(Foo.__subclasses__()) but this doesn't : class Foo(): pass class Bar(Foo): pass print(Foo.__subclasses__()) The latter returns "AttributeError: class Foo has no attribute '__subclasses__'" but i'm not sure why. I know this is related to old-style vs. new-style classes but i'm not clear on why that would make this functionality unavailable.

    Read the article

  • Ruby hash value truthiness and symbols

    - by John Topley
    Could somebody please explain why the variable named foo remains true in the code below, even though it's set to false when the method is called? And why the symbol version behaves as expected? def test(options = {}) foo = options[:foo] || true bar = options[:bar] || :true puts "foo is #{foo}, bar is #{bar}" end >> test(:foo => false, :bar => :false) foo is true, bar is false I've only tried this using Ruby 1.8.7.

    Read the article

  • Why is `goog.Disposable.call(this);` necessary?

    - by David Faux
    In this snippet of Google Closure javascript code involving a constructor, why is goog.Disposable.call(this); necessary? Doesn't Foo already inherit from Disposable with goog.inherits(foo, goog.Disposable);? goog.provide('foo'); /** * @constructor */ foo = function(){ goog.Disposable.call(this); } goog.inherits(foo, goog.Disposable); foo.prototype.doSomething = function(){ ... } foo.prototype.disposeInternal = function(){ ... }

    Read the article

  • How to reload python module from itself?

    - by mivulf
    I have a python module with a lot of variables. These variables are used and changed by many other modules. And I want to reload this module from itself when it happens (for refresh). How to do that? # ================================== # foo.py spam = 100 def set_spam(value): spam = value foo = reload(foo) # reload module from itself # ================================== # bar.py import foo print foo.spam # I expect 100 # assume that value changes here from some another modules (for example, from eggs.py, apple.py and fruit.py) foo.set_spam(200) print foo.spam # I expect 200

    Read the article

  • I can't get the MapsDemo that comes with "Google APIs by Google Inc, Android API8, revision 2" to work

    - by Hanspeter Adam
    I have tried everything according to instructions to get the MapsDemo to work on API8. I followed all the certificate signing instructions and all I get is a blank (blue) screen on the emulator. I see that people have been having the same issues but all the suggested solutions boil down to the certificate signing and that has not worked for me. One guy on the Internet even said he got it to work but never said how!!!! So, I thought I'd try the MapsDemo that comes with "Google APIs by Google Inc, Android API7, revision 1". There I saw the map come up on the emulator but only once. That one time it came up clearly and I was able to pan it but after exiting the app and trying it again, it no longer worked. Now all I get is some faint outlines that makes it look like it's trying to work but for some reason is not successful. I am running on Windows Vista Service Pack 2 and using Eclipse Helios. Please help, Hans

    Read the article

  • Weird bug in 'tar' not including files named .__init__.py

    - by Sridhar Ratnakumar
    Does anyone know why tar is not including files named .__init__.py (note the dot)? $ mkdir /tmp/work && cd /tmp/work $ mkdir foo $ touch foo/.__init__.py $ touch foo/.namespace__init__.py $ tar czf foo.tar.gz foo $ mkdir e && mv foo.tar.gz e/ && cd e/ $ tar zxf foo.tar.gz $ ls -al foo/ total 0 drwxr-xr-x 2 sridharr wheel 102 14 Mar 17:16 . drwxr-xr-x 3 sridharr wheel 136 14 Mar 17:17 .. -rw-r--r-- 1 sridharr wheel 0 14 Mar 17:16 .namespace__init__.py $ $ echo ".__init__.py file is missing. WTF? This is OSX 10.6"

    Read the article

  • Apache + PHP in paths with accented letters

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm not able to run a PHP enabled web site under Apache on Windows XP if the path to DOCUMENT_ROOT contains accented letters. I'm not referring to the script file names themselves but to any folder in the path components. I have this virtual host definition: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName foo.local DocumentRoot "E:/gonzález/sites/foo" ErrorLog logs/foo.local-error.log CustomLog logs/foo.local-access.log combined <Directory "E:/gonzález/sites/foo"> AllowOverride All Options Indexes FollowSymLinks Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> If I save the file in ANSI I get a syntax error: DocumentRoot must be a directory If I save the file in Unicode I get another syntax error: Invalid command '\xff\xfe#', perhaps misspelled or defined by a module not included in the server configuration (looks like it's complaining about the BOM) If I save the file in BOM-less UTF-8 Apache works fine and it serves static files with no apparent issue... ... however, PHP complaints when loading any *.php file (even an empty one): Warning: Unknown: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in Unknown on line 0 Fatal error: Unknown: Failed opening required 'E:/gonzález/sites/foo/vacio.php' (include_path='.;C:\Archivos de programa\PHP\pear') in Unknown on line 0 I decided to try the 8+3 short name of the directory (just a test, I don't want to use such a workaround): <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName foo.local DocumentRoot "E:/GONZLE~1/sites/foo" ErrorLog logs/foo.local-error.log CustomLog logs/foo.local-access.log combined <Directory "E:/GONZLE~1/sites/foo"> AllowOverride All Options Indexes FollowSymLinks Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> But I get the same behaviour: Warning: Unknown: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in Unknown on line 0 Fatal error: Unknown: Failed opening required 'E:/gonzález/sites/foo/vacio.php' (include_path='.;C:\Archivos de programa\PHP\pear') in Unknown on line 0 While there're obvious workarounds (use plain ASCII in all directory names or create NTFS junctions to hide actual names) I can't believe that this cannot be done. Do you have more information about the subject? My specs include 32 bit Windows XP Professional SP3, Apache/2.2.13 and PHP/5.2.11 running as Apache module (but I've noticed the same issue in another box with Windows Vista and PHP/5.3.1).

    Read the article

  • Use subpath internal proxy for subdomains, but redirect external clients if they ask for that subpath?

    - by HostileFork
    I have a VirtualHost that I'd like to have several subdomains on. (For the sake of clarity, let's say my domain is example.com and I'm just trying to get started by making foo.example.com work, and build from there.) The simplest way I found for a subdomain to work non-invasively with the framework I have was to proxy to a sub-path via mod_rewrite. Thus paths would appear in the client's URL bar as http://foo.example.com/(whatever) while they'd actually be served http://foo.example.com/foo/(whatever) under the hood. I've managed to do that inside my VirtualHost config file like this: ServerAlias *.example.com RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^foo\.example\.com [NC] # <--- RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/foo/.*$ [NC] # AND is implicit with above RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ /foo/$1 [PT] (Note: It was surprisingly hard to find that particular working combination. Specifically, the [PT] seemed to be necessary on the RewriteRule. I could not get it to work with examples I saw elsewhere like [L] or trying just [P]. It would either not show anything or get in loops. Also some browsers seemed to cache the response pages for the bad loops once they got one... a page reload after fixing it wouldn't show it was working! Feedback welcome—in any case—if this part can be done better.) Now I'd like to make what http://foo.example.com/foo/(whatever) provides depend on who asked. If the request came from outside, I'd like the client to be permanently redirected by Apache so they get the URL http://foo.example.com/(whatever) in their browser. If it came internally from the mod_rewrite, I want the request to be handled by the web framework...which is unaware of subdomains. Is something like that possible?

    Read the article

  • Fill down in Excel, but based on multiple values

    - by Jenn D.
    I have spreadsheets (not created by me) that have blank entries in one column where they should really have data. I want to take every empty cell and fill it with the nearest value above it. I'm looking for as little manual intervention as possible, because I'll have to do it repeatedly. I thought some previous version of Excel, or maybe another spreadsheet from the distant past, would do this by default -- that is, if you selected the column with foo and bar, and chose the equivalent of "fill down", you would get what's in the WANT column. What I actually get in Excel is the GET column. HAVE: WANT: GET: foo 1 foo 1 foo 1 2 foo 2 foo 2 bar 1 bar 1 foo 1 2 bar 2 foo 2 3 bar 3 foo 3 I'm worried that this might need a macro to be done properly. I used to be a whiz with Excel macros, and then suddenly they were all in VB. My fallback position will be to dump the whole thing to CSV and write a Python script, but if there's any way to do it in Excel that would be much preferable. Even if it involves a couple of different manual steps, that's fine; just not one step per group of lines. That is, a process of "copy the column, do X to it, cut and paste it back" would work, but "do X for each occurrence of foo or bar" won't. The files are too big for that. Any thoughts are appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Apache 2 Symbolic link not allowed or link target not accessible

    - by astropanic
    My apache server runs as user foo. I have some Rails applications in /home/foo/app1 /home/foo/app2. Each of them has an vhost <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName app1.foobar.com ServerAlias www.app1.foobar.com DocumentRoot /var/www/html/app1/current/public RailsEnv production <Directory /var/www/html/app1/current/public> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews </Directory> </VirtualHost> I have a symlink in /var/www/html/app1 : current -> /home/foo/app1/tmp_20102611 All file permissons are set correctly (user foo group foo), I can go through the filesystem from shell. SELINUX is disabled Distro is CentOs 5.5 Which the above symlink I get an 403 and an error entry in error_log Symbolic link not allowed or link target not accessible:/var/www/html/app1/current When I symlink my app in the subdir of /var/www/html instead of /home/foo it works. How I can avoid this error still placing my app in my /home/foo directory ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19  | Next Page >