Search Results

Search found 2623 results on 105 pages for 'mr matt'.

Page 12/105 | < Previous Page | 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19  | Next Page >

  • Optimizing Levenshtein Distance Algorithm

    - by Matt
    I have a stored procedure that uses Levenshtein Distance to determine the result closest to what the user typed. The only thing really affecting the speed is the function that calculates the Levenshtein Distance for all the records before selecting the record with the lowest distance (I've verified this by putting a 0 in place of the call to the Levenshtein function). The table has 1.5 million records, so even the slightest adjustment may shave off a few seconds. Right now the entire thing runs over 10 minutes. Here's the method I'm using: ALTER function dbo.Levenshtein ( @Source nvarchar(200), @Target nvarchar(200) ) RETURNS int AS BEGIN DECLARE @Source_len int, @Target_len int, @i int, @j int, @Source_char nchar, @Dist int, @Dist_temp int, @Distv0 varbinary(8000), @Distv1 varbinary(8000) SELECT @Source_len = LEN(@Source), @Target_len = LEN(@Target), @Distv1 = 0x0000, @j = 1, @i = 1, @Dist = 0 WHILE @j <= @Target_len BEGIN SELECT @Distv1 = @Distv1 + CAST(@j AS binary(2)), @j = @j + 1 END WHILE @i <= @Source_len BEGIN SELECT @Source_char = SUBSTRING(@Source, @i, 1), @Dist = @i, @Distv0 = CAST(@i AS binary(2)), @j = 1 WHILE @j <= @Target_len BEGIN SET @Dist = @Dist + 1 SET @Dist_temp = CAST(SUBSTRING(@Distv1, @j+@j-1, 2) AS int) + CASE WHEN @Source_char = SUBSTRING(@Target, @j, 1) THEN 0 ELSE 1 END IF @Dist > @Dist_temp BEGIN SET @Dist = @Dist_temp END SET @Dist_temp = CAST(SUBSTRING(@Distv1, @j+@j+1, 2) AS int)+1 IF @Dist > @Dist_temp SET @Dist = @Dist_temp BEGIN SELECT @Distv0 = @Distv0 + CAST(@Dist AS binary(2)), @j = @j + 1 END END SELECT @Distv1 = @Distv0, @i = @i + 1 END RETURN @Dist END Anyone have any ideas? Any input is appreciated. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Post on a logged in users facebook wall

    - by Matt Nathanson
    Hey all, I've created a widget that will essentially unlock a music track, providing you post to either your twitter account, or facebook wall. I've signed up through facebook connect and I am able to successfully post onto my own wall... but the functionality I'm looking for is to be able to take ones username and password and automatically log in to facebook, and send my desired message. Like I said, it posts on my wall successfully, it's just not using the username and password from the field to log in to their respective facebooks and post. <?php $facename = $_POST['facename']; $facepass = $_POST['facepass']; define('FB_APIKEY', 'my_api_key'); define('FB_SECRET', 'my_secret_phrase_'); define('FB_SESSION', 'my_session_id'); require_once('facebook.php'); echo "post on wall"; try { $facebook = new Facebook(FB_APIKEY, FB_SECRET); $facebook->api_client->session_key = FB_SESSION; $fetch = array('friends' => array('pattern' => '.*', 'query' => "select uid2 from friend where uid1={$facename}")); echo $facebook->api_client->admin_setAppProperties(array('preload_fql' => json_encode($fetch))); $message = 'I downloaded Automatic Loveletter\'s new single \'To Die For\' here!'; if( $facebook->api_client->stream_publish($message)) echo "Added on FB Wall"; } catch(Exception $e) { echo $e . "<br />"; } ?> Any help in the right direction is greatly appreciated! Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • PHP Codeigniter Undefined Offset Error

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am building a Codeigniter shopping cart. On the cart details page I have a form input field allowing the user to type in the quantity required of a product, and a submit button to post the information to the update function. When there is just one item in the cart, when updating the quantity everything works as it should. However, when there is more than one item, changing the quantity of an item and clicking submit results in a ‘Undefined Offset 1: error on the following code in the Model (specifically the two lines within the array) : function validate_update_cart() { $total = $this->cart->total_items(); $item = $this->input->post('rowid'); $qty = $this->input->post('qty'); for($i=0;$i < $total;$i++) { $data = array( 'rowid' => $item[$i], 'qty' => $qty[$i] ); $this->cart->update($data); } } This is the View code to which the above refers: <form action="<?php echo base_url(); ?>home/update" method="post"> <div><input type="hidden" name="rowid[]" value="<?php echo $item['rowid']; ?>"/></div> <div><input type="text" name="qty[]" value="<?php echo $item['qty']; ?>" maxlength="2" class="chg-qty"/></div> <div><input type="submit" value="update" class="update-quantity"/></div> </form> And this is the Controller: function update() { $this->products_model->validate_update_cart(); redirect('cart'); } Please can anyone explain why this is happening? Many thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Async trigger for an update panel refreshes entire page when triggering too much in too short of tim

    - by Matt
    I have a search button tied to an update panel as a trigger like so: <asp:Panel ID="CRM_Search" runat="server"> <p>Search:&nbsp;<asp:TextBox ID="CRM_Search_Box" CssClass="CRM_Search_Box" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="CRM_Search_Button" CssClass="CRM_Search_Button" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="SearchLeads" /></p> </asp:Panel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="CRM_Search_Button" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> /* Content Here */ </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> In my javascript I use jQuery to grab the search box and tie it's keyup to make the search button click: $($(".CRM_Search_Box")[0]).keyup( function () { $($(".CRM_Search_Button")[0]).click(); } ); This works perfectly, except when I start typing too fast. As soon as I type too fast (my guess is if it's any faster than the data actually returns) the entire page refreshes (doing a postback?) instead of just the update panel. I've also found that instead of typing, if I just click the button really fast it starts doing the same thing. Is there any way to prevent it from doing this? Possibly prevent 2nd requests until the first has been completed? If I'm not on the right track then anyone have any other ideas? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • What is the Best way to databind an ASP.NET TreeView for table with many to many parent child relati

    - by Matt W
    I've got a table which has the usual ParentID, ChildID as it's first two columns in a self-referencing tree data structure. My issue is that when I pull this out and use the following code: DataSet set = DA.GetNewCategories(); set.Relations.Add( new DataRelation("parentChildCategories", set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryParentID"], set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryID"]) ); StringBuilder buildXml = new StringBuilder(); StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(buildXml); set.WriteXml(writer); TreeView2.DataSource = new HierarchicalDataSet(set, "CategoryID", "CategoryParentID"); TreeView2.DataBind(); I get the error: These columns don't currently have unique values I believe this is because my data has children with multiple parent nodes. This is fine for my application - I don't mind if one row of data is rendered in multiple nodes of my TreeView. Could someone shed light on this please? It doesn't seem unreasonable to have a DataSet render XML which has nodes appearing in multiple places, but I can't figure out how to do it. Thanks, Matt.

    Read the article

  • Relay WCF Service

    - by Matt Ruwe
    This is more of an architectural and security question than anything else. I'm trying to determine if a suggested architecture is necessary. Let me explain my configuration. We have a standard DMZ established that essentially has two firewalls. One that's external facing and the other that connects to the internal LAN. The following describes where each application tier is currently running. Outside the firewall: Silverlight Application In the DMZ: WCF Service (Business Logic & Data Access Layer) Inside the LAN: Database I'm receiving input that the architecture is not correct. Specifically, it has been suggested that because "a web server is easily hacked" that we should place a relay server inside the DMZ that communicates with another WCF service inside the LAN which will then communicate with the database. The external firewall is currently configured to only allow port 443 (https) to the WCF service. The internal firewall is configured to allow SQL connections from the WCF service in the DMZ. Ignoring the obvious performance implications, I don't see the security benefit either. I'm going to reserve my judgement of this suggestion to avoid polluting the answers with my bias. Any input is appreciated. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Using nhibernate <loader> element with HQL queries

    - by Matt
    Hi All I'm attempting to use an HQL query in element to load an entity based on other entities. My class is as follows public class ParentOnly { public ParentOnly(){} public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string ParentObjectName { get; set; } } and the mapping looks like this <class name="ParentOnly"> <id name="Id"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="ParentObjectName" /> <loader query-ref="parentonly"/> </class> <query name="parentonly" > select new ParentOnly() from SimpleParentObject as spo where spo.Id = :id </query> The class that I am attemping to map on top of is SimpleParentObject, which has its own mapping and can be loaded and saved without problems. When I call session.Get(id) the sql runs correctly against the SimpleParentObject table, and the a ParentOnly object is instantiated (as I can step through the constructer), but only a null comes back, rather than the instantiated ParentOnly object. I can do this succesfully using a instead of the HQL, but am trying to build this in a database independent fashion. Any thoughts on how to get the and elements to return a populated ParentOnly object...? Thanks Matt

    Read the article

  • [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified - works

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am developing a java app (with odbc bridge - forgive me - the only paradox driver I have been able to obtain is the microsoft odbc driver) - which works fine while in eclipse, (and netbeans) - connecting and obtaining data from an ancient paradox 5.x database. So long as it is run from inside my IDE - it compiles and runs flawlessly. When I export it to a runable jar, suddenly [code][Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified[/code] occurs. The jar is being run on the same box as my developing IDE - so I am confused about the cause. It is being run via console from a user account, as per the IDE. My connection string is "jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Paradox Driver (*.db )};DriverID=538; Fil=Paradox 5.X; DefaultDir=C:\paradox\database\location\" - obtained from connectionstrings.com - and as mentioned before, working fine while run from the IDE. The above seems to 'magically' create its own connection, avoiding the setup of a dsn - I am unsure quite how it does - but it works. The only other thing I can think that might be pertinent is that my PC is a 64bit o/s (windows server 2008). Please help, any suggestions or comments will be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • PHP, We have sessions, and cookies....I love cookies, but they are blowing my mind right now.

    - by Matt
    I am not sure how to go about accessing the variable I need to set on a cookie... I was thinking about using the $_POST global but I dont know how based on my design if it will work. I am using a master page type design seperating index.php from my function includes and database information and individual pages (that will be returned to an include in index.php based on a $_GET) Okay so back to my question. What is the most efficient way to set a cookie on a design that has a main page that everything will branch from. How would I pull the value. Is $_POST a good enough way to go about it? Also...by saying it must be the first thing sent...does that mean I cannot run any serverside scripts before that? I could definately utilize a login query I think but I dont want to write code just to be dissapointed based on my lack of time and knowledge. I did search for answers...I know this most likely feels like a generic question that could be answered in a difference place...but I know I will get an accurate and professional answer here...so I dont want to bet on the half answers I found otherwise. Of course I will sanitize everything and not store any sensitive information (passwords,address,phone,or anything really for that matter besides some kind of session ID and the username) If this is confusing I am sorry but I am on a gov computer...and they lock these tighter than ft knox...so getting my code on here will be a chore until I get back to my room. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Creating Persistent Drive Labels With UDEV Using /dev/disk/by-path

    - by Matt
    I have a new BackBlaze Pod (BackBlaze Pod 2.0). It has 45 3TB drives and they when I first set it up they were labeled /dev/sda through /dev/sdz and /dev/sdaa through /dev/sdas. I used mdadm to setup three really big 15 drive RAID6 arrays. However, since first setup a few weeks ago I had a couple of the hard drives fail on me. I've replaced them but now the arrays are complaining because they can't find the missing drives. When I list the the disks... ls -l /dev/sd* I see that /dev/sda /dev/sdf /dev/sdk /dev/sdp no longer appear and now there are 4 new ones... /dev/sdau /dev/sdav /dev/sdaw /dev/sdax I also just found that I can do this... ls -l /dev/disk/by-path/ total 0 lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 10 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:0:0:0 -> ../../sdau lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:1:0:0 -> ../../sdb lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:2:0:0 -> ../../sdc lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:3:0:0 -> ../../sdd lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:4:0:0 -> ../../sde lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 10 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:0:0:0 -> ../../sdae lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:1:0:0 -> ../../sdg lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:2:0:0 -> ../../sdh lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:3:0:0 -> ../../sdi lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:4:0:0 -> ../../sdj lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 10 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:0:0:0 -> ../../sdav lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:1:0:0 -> ../../sdl lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:2:0:0 -> ../../sdm lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:3:0:0 -> ../../sdn lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:4:0:0 -> ../../sdo lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 10 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:0:0:0 -> ../../sdax lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:1:0:0 -> ../../sdq lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:2:0:0 -> ../../sdr lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:3:0:0 -> ../../sds lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:4:0:0 -> ../../sdt lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:0:0:0 -> ../../sdu lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:1:0:0 -> ../../sdv lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:2:0:0 -> ../../sdw lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:3:0:0 -> ../../sdx lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:4:0:0 -> ../../sdy lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-3:0:0:0 -> ../../sdz I didn't list them all....you can see the problem above. They're sorted by scsi id here but sda is missing...replaced by sdau...etc... So obviously the arrays are complaining. Is it possible to get Linux to reread the drive labels in the correct order or am I screwed? My initial design with 15 drive arrays is not ideal. With 3TB drives the rebuild times were taking 3 or 4 days....maybe more. I'm scrapping the whole design and I think I am going to go with 6 x 7 RAID5 disk arrays and 3 hot spares to make the arrays a bit easier to manage and shorten the rebuild times. But I'd like to clean up the drive labels so they aren't out of order. I haven't figured out how to do this yet. Does anyone know how to get this straightened out? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Programmatically Creating fieldset, ol/ul and li tags in ASP.Net, C#

    - by Matt
    Hi, I need to write an ASP.Net form which will produce the following HTML: <fieldset> <legend>Contact Details</legend> <ol> <li> <label for="name">Name:</label> <input id="name" name="name" class="text" type="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="email">Email address:</label> <input id="email" name="email" class="text" type="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="phone">Telephone:</label> <input id="phone" name="phone" class="text" type="text" /> </li> </ol> </fieldset> However, the fields which are to be added to the form will be determined at runtime, so I need to create the fieldset at runtime and add an ordered list and listitems to it, with labels, textboxes, checkboxes etc as appropriate. I can’t find standard ASP.Net objects which will create these tags. For instance, I’d like to do something like the following in C#: FieldSet myFieldSet = new FieldSet(); myFieldSet.Legend = “Contact Details”; OrderedList myOrderedList = new OrderedList(); ListItem listItem1 = new ListItem(); ListItem listItem2 = new ListItem(); ListItem listItem3 = new ListItem(); // code here which would add labels and textboxes to the ListItems myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem1); myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem2); myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem3); myFieldSet.Controls.Add(myOrderedList); Form1.Controls.Add(myFieldSet); Are there any standard ASP.Net objects which can produce this, or is there some other way of achieving the same result? Matt

    Read the article

  • Use of clone() and appendTo() with draggable - unexpected results with dragging

    - by Matt Gutting
    I'm constructing a UI for a doctor scheduling app. We have several doctors, each of whom can go in one of several locations on a scheduled day (M - F). I have the main day/location grid (table) in the center of the screen. At the left is a table for the doctor names. On loading, each table cell contains a span (outlined) with the doctor name. The doctor name can go in one slot for each day. I didn't want to just put 5 copies of the doctor name, because the doctor might not be available all 5 days of the week. The idea was: Drag the span and drop into the calendar table. On the drag "start" event, clone the span and append it to the table cell. Now there is another span ready to be dropped into the calendar table. One line of code does the work: $(ui.helper).clone(true).prependTo(ui.helper.parent()); This works. But when I move the cloned span, the original one moves in sync - preserving the spatial relationships as I move the clone around (no doubt there's a "position:relative;left=XX;top=YY" inserted somewhere). I'm sure there's a way to do what I'm thinking of, while keeping the two spans independent. But I'm not thinking of one. Does anyone have an idea? Thanks! Matt I posted this identical question to the jQuery forum as well.

    Read the article

  • Pulling info from database and dynamically adding them into different divs

    - by Matt Nathanson
    This may be a bit of a php n00b question but i've managed to get it working this far and I'm a little bit stuck. I'm pulling 12 images with descriptions out of a database. I want to insert them into a client rotator that has 3 sets of 4. They will be contained in divs called clientrotate1, clientrotate2, and clientrotate3 respectively. Inside each of those divs I want to have 4 images with classes thumb1, thumb2, thumb3, and thumb4 I am successful in having the images and descriptions pull into clientrotator 1. Where I get stuck is to how to dynamically add the 2nd and 3rd set of data into clientrotator2 and clientrotator3. Here is my function: public function DisplayClientRotator(){ $result = mysql_query( 'SELECT * FROM project ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 12' ) or die("SELECT Error: ".mysql_error()); $iterator = 1; while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo "<div id='clientrotate1'>"; echo "<div class='thumb$iterator'>"; echo "<img style='width: 172px; height: 100px;' src=".$row['photo']." />"; echo "<div class='transbox'>"; echo "<div class='thumbtext'>"; echo $row['campaign']; echo "</div>"; echo "</div>"; echo "</div>"; echo "</div>"; $iterator++; } Any help or pointers int he right direction would be greatly appreciated! Thanks so much, Matt

    Read the article

  • Parse XML function names and call within whole assembly

    - by Matt Clarkson
    Hello all, I have written an application that unit tests our hardware via a internet browser. I have command classes in the assembly that are a wrapper around individual web browser actions such as ticking a checkbox, selecting from a dropdown box as such: BasicConfigurationCommands EventConfigurationCommands StabilizationCommands and a set of test classes, that use the command classes to perform scripted tests: ConfigurationTests StabilizationTests These are then invoked via the GUI to run prescripted tests by our QA team. However, as the firmware is changed quite quickly between the releases it would be great if a developer could write an XML file that could invoke either the tests or the commands: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <testsuite> <StabilizationTests> <StressTest repetition="10" /> </StabilizationTests> <BasicConfigurationCommands> <SelectConfig number="2" /> <ChangeConfigProperties name="Weeeeee" timeOut="15000" delay="1000"/> <ApplyConfig /> </BasicConfigurationCommands> </testsuite> I have been looking at the System.Reflection class and have seen examples using GetMethod and then Invoke. This requires me to create the class object at compile time and I would like to do all of this at runtime. I would need to scan the whole assembly for the class name and then scan for the method within the class. This seems a large solution, so any information pointing me (and future readers of this post) towards an answer would be great! Thanks for reading, Matt

    Read the article

  • .net Class "is not a member of" Class .. even though it is?

    - by Matt Thrower
    Hi, Looking over some older code, I've run into a strange namespace error. Let's say I have two projects, HelperProject and WebProject. The full namespace of each - as given in application properties - is myEmployer.HelperProject and myEmployer.Web.WebProject. The pages in the web project are full of statements that use classes from the helper project. There are no imports/using statements but there is a reference to the helper project added in the bin. A few example lines might be: myEmployer.HelperProject.StringHelper.GetFixedLengthText(Text, "", Me.Width, 11) myEmploter.HelperProject.Utils.StringHelper.EstimatePixelLength(Text, 11) However every line that is written in this manner is throwing the error 'HelperProject' is not a member of 'myEmployer'. If you declare the statements like this: HelperProject.StringHelper.GetFixedLengthText(Text, "", Me.Width, 11) HelperProject.Utils.StringHelper.EstimatePixelLength(Text, 11) Everything seems fine. In the solution object browser and the bin folder, HelperProject appears with its full namespace, myEmployer.HelperProject. I don't want to have to change all the statements, and besides I suspect this is masking a more fundamental problem here. But I have no idea what's going on. Can anyone offer any pointers please? Cheers, Matt

    Read the article

  • With regards to urllib AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'urlopen'

    - by Matt
    import re import string import shutil import os import os.path import time import datetime import math import urllib from array import array import random filehandle = urllib.urlopen('http://www.google.com/') #open webpage s = filehandle.read() #read print s #display #what i plan to do with it once i get the first part working #results = re.findall('[<td style="font-weight:bold;" nowrap>$][0-9][0-9][0-9][.][0-9][0-9][</td></tr></tfoot></table>]',s) #earnings = '$ ' #for money in results: #earnings = earnings + money[1]+money[2]+money[3]+'.'+money[5]+money[6] #print earnings #raw_input() this is the code that i have so far. now i have looked at all the other forums that give solutions such as the name of the script, which is parse_Money.py, and i have tried doing it with urllib.request.urlopen AND i have tried running it on python 2.5, 2.6, and 2.7. If anybody has any suggestions it would be really welcome, thanks everyone!! --Matt ---EDIT--- I also tried this code and it worked, so im thinking its some kind of syntax error, so if anybody with a sharp eye can point it out, i would be very appreciative. import shutil import os import os.path import time import datetime import math import urllib from array import array import random b = 3 #find URL URL = raw_input('Type the URL you would like to read from[Example: http://www.google.com/] :') while b == 3: #get file name file1 = raw_input('Enter a file name for the downloaded code:') filepath = file1 + '.txt' if os.path.isfile(filepath): print 'File already exists' b = 3 else: print 'Filename accepted' b = 4 file_path = filepath #open file FileWrite = open(file_path, 'a') #acces URL filehandle = urllib.urlopen(URL) #display souce code for lines in filehandle.readlines(): FileWrite.write(lines) print lines print 'The above has been saved in both a text and html file' #close files filehandle.close() FileWrite.close()

    Read the article

  • WCF service with PHP client - complex type as parameter not working

    - by Matt F
    Hi, I have a WCF service with three methods. Two of the methods return custom types (these work as expected), and the third method takes a custom type as a parameter and returns a boolean. When calling the third method via a PHP soap client it returns an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' exception. Example Custom Type: _ Public Class MyClass Private _propertyA As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyA() As Double Get Return _propertyA End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyA = value End Set End Property Private _propertyB As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyB() As Double Get Return _propertyB End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyB = value End Set End Property Private _propertyC As Date <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyC() As Date Get Return _propertyC End Get Set(ByVal value As Date) _propertyC = value End Set End Property End Class Method: Public Function Add(ByVal param As MyClass) As Boolean Implements IService1.Add ' ... End Function PHP client call: $client-Add(array('param'=array( 'PropertyA' = 1, 'PropertyB' = 2, 'PropertyC' = "2009-01-01" ))); The WCF service works fine with a .Net client but I'm new to PHP and can't get this to work. Is it possible to create an instance of 'MyClass' in PHP. Any help would be appreciated. Note: I'm using PHP 5 (XAMPP 1.7.0 for Windows). Thanks Matt

    Read the article

  • Handle order dependence in loops

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm making a templating system where I instantiate each tag using a foreach loop. The issue is that some of the tags rely on each other so, I'm wondering how to get around that ordering from the looping. Here's an example: Class A { public $width; __construct() { $this->width = $B->width; // Undefined! Or atleast not set yet.. } } Class B { public $width; __construct() { $this->width = "500px"; } __tostring() { return "Hello World!"; } } Template.php $tags = array("A", "B"); foreach ($tags as $tag) { $TagObj[$tag] = new $tag(); } echo $TagObj['A']->width; // Nadamundo! EDIT: Ok just to clarify.. My main problem is that Class A relies on Class B, but class A is instantiated before class B, so therefore width has not yet been defined in class B. I am looking for a good way to make sure all the classes are loaded for everyone allowing the interdependencies to exist. For the future, please don't consider any syntax errors.. I just made up this example on the spot. Also assume that I have access to class B from class A after class B gets instantiated. I know this has applications elsewhere and I'm sure this has been solved before, if someone could enlighten me or point me in the right direction that'd be great! Thanks! Matt Mueler

    Read the article

  • Unable to use stored procs in a generic repository for the entity framework. (ASP.NET MVC 2)

    - by Matt
    Hi, I have a generic repository that uses the entity framework to manipulate the database. The original code is credited to Morshed Anwar's post on CodeProject. I've taken his code and modified is slightly to fit my needs. Unfortunately I'm unable to call an Imported Function because the function is only recognized for my specific instance of the entity framework public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; public ObjectResult<MyObject> CallFunction() { // This does not work because "CallSomeImportedFunction" only works on // My object. I also cannot cast it (TrackItDBEntities)_ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); // Not really sure why though... but either way that kind of ruins the genericness off it. return _ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); } } Anyone know how I can make this work with the repository I already have? Or does anyone know a generic way of calling stored procedures with entity framework? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Php index page utitlizing an idea for a superswitch...

    - by Matt
    I dont know if this is a great idea...or a crap one. But I was thinking I may use one page to display all my pages using includes. Here is what my index.php would look like...on the functions include there is a function called "superSwitch" which will determine what requested page will be included....for instance if I do a get ?a=a it will goto the function superSwitch(a) superSwitch will take it and associate it with (login.php) then respond with such... here is the code for the index.php...please let me know if this makes sense and might work, or should I just stick to long blocks of code (which is why I am trying this because I hate long pages full of code...) of course as you can tell it is not actually including anything yet...the print is for debugging purposes. :) Thanks, Matt <?php //includes Functions include_once('inc/func.inc.php'); //set superget variable $superget = @$_GET['a']; //check if superget is set or null if (!$superget) { echo "Nothing Requested :)"; } else { //sanitizes the superget request $supergetr = supergetSanitize($superget) //uses the result "good" or "nogood" to determine what happens if ( $supergetr == "good" ) { //pulls superSwitch value of the request $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } //if the sanitize is nogood else { //the superSwitch is instructed to respond with a 404 page $superget = "404" $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } } ?>

    Read the article

  • Resolve php "deadlock"

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm currently running into a situation that I guess would be called deadlock. I'm implementing a message service that calls various object methods.. it's quite similar to observer pattern.. Here's whats going on: Dispatcher.php Dispatcher.php <? class Dispatcher { ... public function message($name, $method) { // Find the object based on the name $object = $this->findObjectByName($name); // Slight psuedocode.. for ease of example if($this->not_initialized($object)) $object = new $object(); // This is where it locks up. } return $object->$method(); ... } class A { function __construct() { $Dispatcher->message("B", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class A"; } } class B { function __construct() { // Assume $Dispatcher is the classes $Dispatcher->message("A", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class B"; } } ?> It locks up when neither object is initialized. It just goes back and forth from message each other and no one can be initialized. Any help would be immensely helpful.. Thanks! Matt Mueller

    Read the article

  • Should a connect method return a value?

    - by Matt S
    I was looking at some code I've inherited and I couldn't decided if I like a bit of code. Basically, there is a method that looks like the following: bool Connect(connection parameters){...} It returns true if it connects successfully, false otherwise. I've written code like that in the past, but now, when I see this method I don't like it for a number of reasons. Its easy to write code that just ignores the returned value, or not realize it returns a value. There is no way to return an error message. Checking the return of the method doesn't really look nice: if (!Connect(...)){....} I could rewrite code to throw an exception when it doesn't successfully connect, but I don't consider that an exceptional situation. Instead I'm thinking of refactoring the code as follows: void Connect(Connection Parameters, out bool successful, out string errorMessage){...} I like that other developers have to provide the success and error strings so they know the method has error conditions and I can know return a message Anyone have any thoughts on the matter? Thanks -Matt

    Read the article

  • Resolve php endless recursion issue

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm currently running into an endless recursion situation. I'm implementing a message service that calls various object methods.. it's quite similar to observer pattern.. Here's whats going on: Dispatcher.php class Dispatcher { ... public function message($name, $method) { // Find the object based on the name $object = $this->findObjectByName($name); // Slight psuedocode.. for ease of example if($this->not_initialized($object)) $object = new $object(); // This is where it locks up. } return $object->$method(); ... } class A { function __construct() { $Dispatcher->message("B", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class A"; } } class B { function __construct() { // Assume $Dispatcher is the classes $Dispatcher->message("A", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class B"; } } It locks up when neither object is initialized. It just goes back and forth from message each other and no one can be initialized. I'm looking for some kind of queue implementation that will make messages wait for each other.. One where the return values still get set. I'm looking to have as little boilerplate code in class A and class B as possible Any help would be immensely helpful.. Thanks! Matt Mueller

    Read the article

  • Modularizing web applications

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I was wondering how big companies tend to modularize components on their page. Facebook is a good example: There's a team working on Search that has its own CSS, javascript, html, etc.. There's a team working on the news feed that has its own CSS, javascript, html, etc... ... And the list goes on They cannot all be aware of what everyone is naming their div tags and whatnot, so what's the controller(?) doing to hook all these components in on the final page?? Note: This doesn't just apply to facebook - any company that has separate teams working on separate components has some logic that helps them out. EDIT: Thanks all for the responses, unfortunately I still haven't really found what I'm looking for - when you check out the source code (granted its minified), the divs have UIDs, my guess is that there is a compilation process that runs through and makes each of the components unique, renaming divs and css rules.. any ideas? EDIT 2: Thanks all for contributing your thoughts - the bounty went to the highest upvoted answer. The question was designed to be vague- I think it led to a really interesting discussion. As I improve my build process, I will contribute my own thoughts and experiences. Thanks all! Matt Mueller

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19  | Next Page >