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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • Validating Login / Changing User settings / Php Mysql

    - by Marcelo
    Hi everyone, my questions are about login, and changing already saved data. (Q1) 'Till now I've only saved input in the tables of the database (registration steps), now I need to check if the input (login steps), are the same of my table in database, in fact I have 3 types of users, then I'll have to check 3 kind of tables. Then if the input data matches with one of those 3 tables I will redirect the user to his specific area. I'm thinking about saved the submitted data $login=$_REQUEST['login']; and $password=$_REQUEST['password']; and compare with the login column in the database. Then if the login matches, I'll compare the password submitted with the one in the row, not in the column. But I don't know how to do this search and comparison,neither what to use. Then if both matches I'll redirect the user. Else I'll send an login error message. (this I know how to do) (Q2) What if need to change an already saved user ? For example to change an email address. My changing user's data web page is exactly the same like the registration user web page. Can I load the already saved options and values of registration (table user for example). Then the user will change whatever he thinks it's necessary, and then when he submits the new information, they would not create a new row in my table, but just be overwritten the old information? How can I do this? Sorry for any mistake in English, and Thanks for the attention.

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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  • I can't get RedirectToAction to work

    - by DaveDev
    I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect from if the user is valid. But nothing happens. The breakpoint in the redirected-to action method never gets hit. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group"); } else { return Json("Invalid"); } } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } And in another Controller, I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect to: // HttpVerbs.Post doesn't work either [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Index(int? page) { const int pageSize = 10; IEnumerable<Group> groups = GetGroups(); var paginatedGroups = new PaginatedList<Group>(groups, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View(paginatedGroups); } private IEnumerable<Group> GetGroups() { return groupRepository.GetGroups(); } Is there anything obviously wrong with what I'm doing? Could somebody suggest a different approach I could take?

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  • redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

    - by Jim Sp
    I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

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  • Java - How to find the redirected url of a url?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am accessing web pages through java as follows: URLConnection con = url.openConnection(); But in some cases, a url redirects to another url. So I want to know the url to which the previous url redirected. Below are the header fields that I got as a response: null-->[HTTP/1.1 200 OK] Cache-control-->[public,max-age=3600] last-modified-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Transfer-Encoding-->[chunked] Date-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Vary-->[Accept-Encoding] Expires-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 14:45:35 GMT] Set-Cookie-->[cl_def_hp=copenhagen; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT, cl_def_lang=en; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT] Connection-->[close] Content-Type-->[text/html; charset=iso-8859-1;] Server-->[Apache] So at present, I am constructing the redirected url from the value of the Set-Cookie header field. In the above case, the redirected url is copenhagen.craigslist.org Is there any standard way through which I can determine which url the particular url is going to redirect. I know that when a url redirects to other url, the server sends an intermediate response containing a header field that tells the url which it is going to redirect but I am not receiving that intermediate response through the url.openConnection(); method.

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  • What can I do to get Mozilla Firefox to preload the eventual image result?

    - by Dalal
    I am attempting to preload images using JavaScript. I have declared an array as follows with image links from different places: var imageArray = new Array(); imageArray[0] = new Image(); imageArray[1] = new Image(); imageArray[2] = new Image(); imageArray[3] = new Image(); imageArray[0].src = "http://www.bollywoodhott.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/12/arjun-rampal.jpg"; imageArray[1].src = "http://labelleetleblog.files.wordpress.com/2009/06/josie-maran.jpg"; imageArray[2].src = "http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_22EXDJCJp3s/SxbIcZHTHTI/AAAAAAAAIXc/fkaDiOKjd-I/s400/black-male-model.jpg"; imageArray[3].src = "http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg"; The image fade and transformation effects that I am doing using this array work properly for the first 3 images, but for the last one, imageArray[3], the actual image data of the image does not get preloaded and it completely ruins the effect, since the actual image data loads AFTERWARDS, only at the time it needs to be displayed, it seems. This happens because the last link http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg is not a direct link to the image. If you go to that link, your browser will redirect you to the ACTUAL location. Now, my image preloading code in Chrome works perfectly well, and the effects look great. Because it seems that Chrome preloads the actual data - the EVENTUAL image that is to be shown. This means that in Chrome if I preloaded an image that will redirect to 'stop stealing my bandwidth', then the image that gets preloaded is 'stop stealing my bandwidth'. How can I modify my code to get Firefox to behave the same way?

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  • Update successful notice with pure css and a close button

    - by Crays
    Hi guys, i've seen websites that allow you to say update your profile and when the stuff is done, they'll stay in the same page or redirect you to another and with a fancy notice that says "Update successful. click here to close" with a lowered opacity black background and a box in the middle with the text within. I've got most of the stuff, the lowred opacity black background, the middle box with the text and even the click here to close function. But how i did the "Click here to close" function is by using a link. Let's say after updating the profile, my script redirect me to index.php?update=successful then i use $update = $_GET['update']; if ($update == "successful") { echo '<div id="BlackScreen"><p id="MiddleBox">You\'ve successfully update your status!<br><span class="close"><a class="menu" href="index.php">Click to close. </a></span></div></div>'; } so that the lowered opacity background div will be gone, but is there another way to do this? Any tips please?

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  • is it better to test if a function is needed inside or outside of it?

    - by b0x0rz
    what is the best practice? call a function then return if you test for something, or test for something then call? i prefer the test inside of function because it makes an easier viewing of what functions are called. for example: protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.FixURLCosmetics(); } and private void FixURLCosmetics() { HttpContext context = HttpContext.Current; if (!context.Request.HttpMethod.ToString().Equals("GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { // if not a GET method cancel url cosmetics return; }; string url = context.Request.RawUrl.ToString(); bool doRedirect = false; // remove > default.aspx if (url.EndsWith("/default.aspx", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { url = url.Substring(0, url.Length - 12); doRedirect = true; } // remove > www if (url.Contains("//www")) { url = url.Replace("//www", "//"); doRedirect = true; } // redirect if necessary if (doRedirect) { context.Response.Redirect(url); } } is this good: if (!context.Request.HttpMethod.ToString().Equals("GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { // if not a GET method cancel url cosmetics return; }; or should that test be done in Application_BeginRequest? what is better? thnx

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  • ASP.NET how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

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  • Creating a HTTP handler for IIS that transparently forwards request to different port?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a public web server with the following software installed: IIS7 on port 80 Subversion over apache on port 81 TeamCity over apache on port 82 Unfortunately, both Subversion and TeamCity comes with their own web server installations, and they work flawlessly, so I don't really want to try to move them all to run under IIS, if that is even possible. However, I was looking at IIS and I noticed the HTTP redirect part, and I was wondering... Would it be possible for me to create a HTTP handler, and install it on a sub-domain under IIS7, so that all requests to, say, http://svn.vkarlsen.no/anything/here is passed to my HTTP handler, which then subsequently creates a request to http://localhost:81/anything/here, retrieves the data, and passes it on to the original requestee? In other words, I would like IIS to handle transparent forwards to port 81 and 82, without using the redirection features. For instance, Subversion doesn't like HTTP redirect and just says that the repository has been moved, and I need to relocate my working copy. That's not what I want. If anyone thinks this can be done, does anyone have any links to topics I need to read up on? I think I can manage the actual request parts, even with authentication, but I have no idea how to create a HTTP handler. Also bear in mind that I need to handle sub-paths and documents beneath the top-level domain, so http://svn.vkarlsen.no/whatever/here needs to be handled by a single handler, I cannot create copies of the handler for all sub-directories since paths are created from time to time.

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  • Saving tags into a database table in CakePHP

    - by Cameron
    I have the following setup for my CakePHP app: Posts id title content Topics id title Topic_Posts id topic_id post_id So basically I have a table of Topics (tags) that are all unique and have an id. And then they can be attached to post using the Topic_Posts join table. When a user creates a new post they will fill in the topics by typing them in to a textarea separated by a comma which will then save these into the Topics table if they do not already exist and then save the references into the Topic_posts table. I have the models set up like so: Post model: class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Topic' => array('with' => 'TopicPost') ); } Topic model: class Topic extends AppModel { public $hasMany = array( 'TopicPost' ); } TopicPost model: class TopicPost extends AppModel { public $belongsTo = array( 'Topic', 'Post' ); } And for the New post method I have this so far: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('post')) { //$this->Post->create(); if ($this->Post->saveAll($this->request->data)) { // Redirect the user to the newly created post (pass the slug for performance) $this->redirect(array('controller'=>'posts','action'=>'view','id'=>$this->Post->id)); } else { $this->Session->setFlash('Server broke!'); } } } As you can see I have used saveAll but how do I go about dealing with the Topic data?

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  • IE Information Bar, download file...how do I code for this?

    - by flatline
    I have a web page (asp.net) that compiles a package then redirects the user to the download file via javascript (window.location = ....). This is accompanied by a hard link on the page in case the redirect doesn't work - emulating the download process on many popular sites. When the IE information bar appears at the top due to restricted security settings, and a user clicks on it to download the file, it redirects the user to the page, not the download file, which refreshes the page and removes the hard link. What is the information bar doing here? Shouldn't it send the user to the location of the redirect? Am I setting something wrong in the headers of the download response, or doing something else wrong to send the file in the first place? C# Code: m_context.Response.Buffer = false; m_context.Response.ContentType = "application/zip"; m_context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", fs.Length.ToString()); m_context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", string.Format("attachment; filename={0}_{1}.zip", downloadPrefix, DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd_HH-mm"))); //send the file

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  • Kohana Auth Library Deployment

    - by Steve
    My Kohana app runs perfectly on my local machine. When I deployed my app to a server (and adjust the config files appropriately), I can no longer log into the app. I've traced through the app login routine on both my local version and the server version and they both agree with each other all the way through until you get to the auth.php controller logged_in() routine where suddenly, at line 140 - the is_object($this-user) test - the $user object no longer exists!?!?!? The login() function call that calls the logged_in() function successfully passes the following test, which causes a redirect to the logged_in() function. if(Auth::instance()->login($user, $post['password'])) Yes, the password and hash, etc all work perfectly. Here is the offending code: public function logged_in() { if ( ! is_object($this->user)) { // No user is currently logged in url::redirect('auth/login'); } etc... } As the code is the same between my local installation and the server, I reckon it must be some server setting that is messing with me. FYI: All the rest of the code works because I have a temporary backdoor available that allows me to use the application (view pages of tables, etc) without being logged in. Any ideas?

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  • Control within another control in asp.net disables server-side events?

    - by Xaisoft
    I have a control which has a button on it. All the button does is redirect the user to another page. On this control I have another control which just display some stuff, nothing fancy. When I click on the button, it does nothing. When I remove or comment out the other control, the button event works. Is this by design? I am not sure how to fix it or what is causing it. ControlA.ascx contains a button with an event like so: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Home.aspx"); } ControlA.ascx contains another control inside of it, lets call it ControlB.ascx. The Button1 click event does not fire when ControlB.ascx is in ControlA.ascx, but when I remove it or take it out, Button1 event fires and it goes to Home.aspx. This does not only happen for Button1, if I decide to add a second button and create an event for it, if ControlB is in ControlA, the second button event won't fire either.

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  • Is there a better way to change user password in cakephp using Auth?

    - by sipiatti
    Hi, I am learning cakephp by myself. I tried to create a user controller with a changepassword function. It works, but I am not sure if this is the best way, and I could not googled up useful tutorials on this. Here is my code: class UsersController extends AppController { var $name = 'Users'; function login() { } function logout() { $this->redirect($this->Auth->logout()); } function changepassword() { $session=$this->Session->read(); $id=$session['Auth']['User']['id']; $user=$this->User->find('first',array('conditions' => array('id' => $id))); $this->set('user',$user); if (!empty($this->data)) { if ($this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['password'])==$user['User']['password']) { if ($this->data['User']['passwordn']==$this->data['User']['password2']) { // Passwords match, continue processing $data=$this->data; $this->data=$user; $this->data['User']['password']=$this->Auth->password($data['User']['passwordn']); $this->User->id=$id; $this->User->save($this->data); $this->Session->setFlash('Password changed.'); $this->redirect(array('controller'=>'Toners','action' => 'index')); } else { $this->Session->setFlash('New passwords differ.'); } } else { $this->Session->setFlash('Typed passwords did not match.'); } } } } password is the old password, passwordn is the new one, password2 is the new one retyped. Is there any other, more coomon way to do it in cake?

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  • How to connect to a third party website in classic asp using javascript for password encryption and yet not giving in the password.

    - by Abbi
    Hi I have to make changes to classic asp website where once a button is clicked it autologins to a third party website with a intermediate page that warns that you are logging in to a third party website. The thirdparty is providing us with a username and password and gave us an examle javascript to encode the password to send to them. Now where do I store the userid and password. I cannot execute the javascript on the serverside. It has to go to the client. If the asp page which has the encryption javascript goes to the client side then the source can be viewed and the username and password is given out. Is there a way that I can have hidden asp page whose only job is to encrypt the password and create a new url and auto redirect it to that new url. So when the user clicks ok on the intermediate warning page I redirect it to this hidden asp page which does the encryption and a creates a url for get method and redirects to that page. I am a novice as far as java script and classic asp is concerned. Any ideas/ advice will be appreciated. Thanks, --Abbi

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  • FormsAuthentication authCookie is null only for some users

    - by mbalkema
    I am experiencing a strange problem with asp.net forms authentication. This problem only occurs for 3 users out of 30+ users that have successfully logged in. I am using very basic auth code that I have used many times and have never seen this problem. After the users successfully authenticates and the auth cookie is created, cookie added, and response.redirect to FormsAuthentication.GetRedirect(userid, false) is called. The Application_AuthenticateRequest method in Global.asax is hit. // Extract the forms authentication cookie string cookieName = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName; HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[cookieName]; if (null == authCookie) { // There is no authentication cookie. return; } So immediately after a "good" cookie is saved and the redirect occurs the cookie is null. I have run the code through the debugger and the cookie is only null on these 3 users. But the cookie looks the same as the cookie for the many users that login successfully. Any ideas? This is standard code that should just work.

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  • how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? Error compiler gives me is "Error 1 The type or namespace name 'MyMasterPage' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

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  • logic before dispatcher + controller?

    - by Spoonface
    I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

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  • Any reason why my $.ajax success callback is not executed in Jquery?

    - by arma
    Hello, Today i discovered that my dev version of my website do not execute success callback, but all other javascript and jquery code is running good. Even my ajax request is performed and i can see response in firebug. $('#login').submit(function(){ var email = $('#l_email').val(); var pass = $('#l_pass').val(); if(email && pass != ''){ var str = decodeURIComponent($(this).serialize()); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "login.php", data: str, success: function(msg){ if(msg == 'OK'){ window.location = 'index.php' }else if (msg == 'NOT_OK'){ if(lang == 'lv'){ alert(message); }else if(lang == 'ru'){ alert(message); } }else if (msg == 'EMAIL_NOT_VALID'){ if(lang == 'lv'){ alert(message); }else if(lang == 'ru'){ alert(message); } } } }); }else{ alert('That form is empty.'); } return false; }); The thing is $.ajax part executes fine and i can see response in firebug "OK". But redirect is not happening and even if i replace that redirect with something like alert or console.log nothing comes up. What could cause this? It's really hard to track since firebug gives no errors.

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  • Log in to subdomain via main domain

    - by Mattias
    I have a website, available through multiple domainnames. like www.domain1.com .... www.domain5.com All my customers have their own subdomain. like: customer1.domain1.com customer2.domain1.com .... customer351.domain4.com Currently i dont use SSL, each customer log in their own account via their sub domain. I want to change this, and make all customers log in on a central log in page, that would use SSL, for example. https://login.domain1.com And somehow redirect each user to the correct sub domain adress. (Sub domain that don't use SSL) How do I do this, and maintain security? One idea i had: Login - add random value somewhere in the database, Redirect to subdomain, with querystring the randomvalue. And after that the session takes care of it, Each value can be used once only.. But how secure is that? I guess someone would ask the question "why?" to me. Because SSL costs money. And unfortunately i dont have a lot of it. :D Thanks for your time!

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  • PHP Infine Loope Problem

    - by Ashwin
    function httpGet( $url, $followRedirects=true ) { global $final_url; $url_parsed = parse_url($url); if ( empty($url_parsed['scheme']) ) { $url_parsed = parse_url('http://'.$url); } $final_url = $url_parsed; $port = $url_parsed["port"]; if ( !$port ) { $port = 80; } $rtn['url']['port'] = $port; $path = $url_parsed["path"]; if ( empty($path) ) { $path="/"; } if ( !empty($url_parsed["query"]) ) { $path .= "?".$url_parsed["query"]; } $rtn['url']['path'] = $path; $host = $url_parsed["host"]; $foundBody = false; $out = "GET $path HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $out .= "Host: $host\r\n"; $out .= "User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1) Gecko/20061010 Firefox/2.0\r\n"; $out .= "Connection: Close\r\n\r\n"; if ( !$fp = @fsockopen($host, $port, $errno, $errstr, 30) ) { $rtn['errornumber'] = $errno; $rtn['errorstring'] = $errstr; } fwrite($fp, $out); while (!@feof($fp)) { $s = @fgets($fp, 128); if ( $s == "\r\n" ) { $foundBody = true; continue; } if ( $foundBody ) { $body .= $s; } else { if ( ($followRedirects) && (stristr($s, "location:") != false) ) { $redirect = preg_replace("/location:/i", "", $s); return httpGet( trim($redirect) ); } $header .= $s; } } fclose($fp); return(trim($body)); } This code sometimes go infinite loop. What's wrong here?

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  • Creating 1 page PDF of iPad Screen view - How?

    - by user314695
    Hi All, I've asked this question on a couple other forums and have had zero response, so I'm hoping someone here can help point me in the right direction. I have a pretty simple one screen application for my work. It's basically just a recreation of a 1 page paper report that has a company logo, some labels, a few text boxes and a scroll text box for the report. I need to be able to fill out the report then click a button to save it in a graphical form so I can fax, print or email it later. Currently, I'm just programmatically taking a screen capture and saving it to the photo's library (default for screen capture). Then I can just email it from photo's. This works ok, but is kind of hacky, at best. I've read through the new iPad 3.2 guide for creating PDF's (apparently it's supposed to be much easier than before) but I can not get it to work and I've spent countless hours on it now. I'm hoping someone has the answer for me. Alternatively, if anyone knows how I can redirect where the screen capture is stored (default is in the photo album) then maybe I can make that function work. If I could redirect the screen capture to store in my applications document folder, then I can use MFMailCompose to attach it to an email. Lastly, on a side note, does anyone know of a good way to capture a digital signature via touch. For instance, I'd love to have my users be able to just sign their name via touch at the bottom of the document before I convert to PDF or take a screen capture. Thanks in advance for your help. -Ray

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