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  • "Possible SYN flooding" in log despite low number of SYN_RECV connections

    - by al4
    Recently we had an apache server which was responding very slowly due to SYN flooding. The workaround for this was to enable tcp_syncookies (net.ipv4.tcp_syncookies=1 in /etc/sysctl.conf). I posted a question about this here if you want more background. After enabling syncookies we started seeing the following message in /var/log/messages approximately every 60 seconds: [84440.731929] possible SYN flooding on port 80. Sending cookies. Vinko Vrsalovic informed me that this means the syn backlog is getting full, so I raised tcp_max_syn_backlog to 4096. At some point I also lowered tcp_synack_retries to 3 (down from the default of 5) by issuing sysctl -w net.ipv4.tcp_synack_retries=3. After doing this, the frequency seemed to drop, with the interval of the messages varying between roughly 60 and 180 seconds. Next I issued sysctl -w net.ipv4.tcp_max_syn_backlog=65536, but am still getting the message in the log. Throughout all this I've been watching the number of connections in SYN_RECV state (by running watch --interval=5 'netstat -tuna |grep "SYN_RECV"|wc -l'), and it never goes higher than about 240, much much lower than the size of the backlog. Yet I have a Red Hat server which hovers around 512 (limit on this server is the default of 1024). Are there any other tcp settings which would limit the size of the backlog or am I barking up the wrong tree? Should the number of SYN_RECV connections in netstat -tuna correlate to the size of the backlog? Update As best I can tell I'm dealing with legitimate connections here, netstat -tuna|wc -l hovers around 5000. I've been researching this today and found this post from a last.fm employee, which has been rather useful. I've also discovered that the tcp_max_syn_backlog has no effect when syncookies are enabled (as per this link) So as a next step I set the following in sysctl.conf: net.ipv4.tcp_syn_retries = 3 # default=5 net.ipv4.tcp_synack_retries = 3 # default=5 net.ipv4.tcp_max_syn_backlog = 65536 # default=1024 net.core.wmem_max = 8388608 # default=124928 net.core.rmem_max = 8388608 # default=131071 net.core.somaxconn = 512 # default = 128 net.core.optmem_max = 81920 # default = 20480 I then setup my response time test, ran sysctl -p and disabled syncookies by sysctl -w net.ipv4.tcp_syncookies=0. After doing this the number of connections in the SYN_RECV state still remained around 220-250, but connections were starting to delay again. Once I noticed these delays I re-enabled syncookies and the delays stopped. I believe what I was seeing was still an improvement from the initial state, however some requests were still delayed which is much worse than having syncookies enabled. So it looks like I'm stuck with them enabled until we can get some more servers online to cope with the load. Even then, I'm not sure I see a valid reason to disable them again as they're only sent (apparently) when the server's buffers get full. But the syn backlog doesn't appear to be full with only ~250 connections in the SYN_RECV state! Is it possible that the SYN flooding message is a red herring and it's something other than the syn_backlog that's filling up? If anyone has any other tuning options I haven't tried yet I'd be more than happy to try them out, but I'm starting to wonder if the syn_backlog setting isn't being applied properly for some reason.

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  • Hardware recommendations / parts list for a modern, quiet ZFS NAS box - 2011-Feb edition [closed]

    - by dandv
    I want to build some really reliable storage for my data, and it seems that ZFS is the only filesystem at the moment that does live checksumming. That rules out DroboPro, so I'm looking to building a quiet ZFS NAS that would start with 4 2TB or larger hard drives. I'd like this system to be very reliable and relatively future-proof for 2-3 years, so I'm willing to invest some $$$ and buy higher end components. I did see questions here and on other forums about low-cost servers, but I'm not looking for those. I'd be super happy to go for an off-the-shelf solution, but I haven't found one that's quiet. I started doing the research (summarized on my wiki), but I realized that it just gets too complicated for what I know as a software dude, and I'm entering the analysis paralysis area. At this point, I'm basically looking for a parts list for a configuration that will work (and is modern), and I know there are folks around here who are way more competent than me. I've built computers and am comfortable assembling one and messing with *nix; I can follow guides; I just want to end the decision process for the hardware and software configuration. What I've researched so far (not that these are very modern components): Case: I think I've settled on the Antec Twelve Hundred case because it cools well, is quiet, and simply has 12 bays that allow elastic mounting. The SilverStone Raven is its counter-candidate, but I find its construction quite odd. For the PSU, I'm torn between Antec CP-850 and Nexus RX-8500, but I did this research more than a year ago. The Nexus has a very uniform power profile, and I'd rather not have the Antec spin up and down based on load. On the other hand, I'm not sure how often my file server will draw more than 400W under use. For the hard drives, I've read that WD Black drives are actually WD RE3 with a software setting changed. I'd also like to buy different drive types, not just 4 WDs. Recommendations? Right now I have a 2TB Hitachi Deskstar 7K300. For the motherboard, CPU and RAM I have no idea, other than the RAM must be ECC. I already asked a question here about ECC RAM, but I was misguided and was looking for a motherboard that would support USB 3.0 as well. I've learned to go with eSATA, or worry about USB later. Then there's the (liquid) cooling, Wi-Fi card, and FreeBSD vs. OpenSolaris Express. Lastly, I'm wondering if I can make this PC into a media server by adding a Blu-ray drive and a good sound card. But support for Blu-Ray is spotty on Linux, and I don't know if Windows 7 on VirtualBox would get sufficient hardware access to output HDMI or SPDIFF signals. (Running OpenSolaris virtualized is not an option because of the reliability risk.) Then there are HDCP concerns. Suggestions on that would be appreciated as well, but I don't want us to get sidetracked. A specific shopping list on the core components would be great, so I can start ordering, and in the meantime educate myself with regards to the other issues. Finally, I think this could become a great FAQ for those technically inclined to build their own ZFS server, but confused by the dizzying array of options out there, and I promise to compile the results and share my experience building and benchmarking the server.

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  • AWS Load balancer connection reset

    - by joshmmo
    I have an ELB set up with two instances. The issue I have with it is that when I do not add www. to it, the ELB just hangs. This is some info I get when I spider with wget: Spider mode enabled. Check if remote file exists. --2013-06-20 13:40:54-- http://learning.example.com/ Resolving learning.example.com... 54.xxx.x.x53, 50.xx.xxx.x71 Connecting to learning.example.com|54.xxx.x.x53|:80... connected. HTTP request sent, awaiting response... No data received. Retrying. when I add www. it works great. I have a GoDaddy SSL cert that I added to the listener section that covers 3 domains, www.learning.example.com, files.learning.example.com and learning.example.com. These are my listener settings: - HTTP 80 HTTPS 443 N/A N/A - SSL 443 SSL 443 Change canvasNew (Change) My EC2 instances are running apache2 on Ubuntu 12.04. I will be happy to post my vhosts file if needed. However, when I ran the server with the domains pointing to just one EC2 instance things worked fine. How can I fix this issue for learning.example.com? Why does www work just fine? A second question would be what is the difference between instance protocol and load balancer protocol? EDIT: Here are the dig results for learning.example.com from yesterday. I changed the DNS entry to point to one instance to make sure it was the elb. When I switch it back I will do it for www.learning.example.com ; <<>> DiG 9.9.1-P2 <<>> learning.example.com ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: NOERROR, id: 20210 ;; flags: qr rd ra; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 3, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;learning.example.com. IN A ;; ANSWER SECTION: learning.example.com. 2559 IN CNAME canvas-22222222222.us-west-1.elb.amazonaws.com. canvas-22222222222.us-west-1.elb.amazonaws.com. 60 IN A 54.xxx.x.x53 canvas-22222222222.us-west-1.elb.amazonaws.com. 60 IN A 50.xx.xxx.x71 ;; Query time: 83 msec ;; SERVER: 10.x.xx.20#53(10.x.xx.20) ;; WHEN: Thu Jun 20 13:40:47 2013 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 137 EDIT 2: Here is some more info that might be helpful. Port Configuration: 80 (HTTP) forwarding to 443 (HTTPS) Backend Authentication: Disabled Stickiness: Disabled(edit) 443 (SSL, Certificate: canvasNew) forwarding to 443 (SSL) Backend Authentication: Disabled So I switched everything to one EC2 IP address to bypass the elb to make sure things are working. It's running great. www and the non-www url work perfectly fine. Its only when I switch things to the ELB that learning.example.com hangs and www.learning.example.com works. Hopefully you can get some ideas flowing.

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  • RAID controller dropping the wrong drive

    - by bramp
    I've been having an issue with 3ware 9500S-8 RAID 10, and I have contracted their tech support, but I wanted to hear the serverfault community's recommendations. Firstly, all my data is backuped and secure, so I don't mind blowing my RAID away if I have to. But let me describe the problem I've been seeing. A month ago, disk 6 dropped out of the RAID. It is mirrored with disk 7, so I wasn't that bothered. I went to the data centre and replaced it. When I got back to the office, I noticed that disk 6 will still not in the RAID, and in fact the controller was show the name of the old drive still. A week later I went back and replace the drive again, thinking I might have swapped in a bad drive. Still the same problem. I decided to reboot the machine, to see if that would "force" the controller into seeing the new drive. It did, and a rebuild started to happen (from disk 7). Eventually both drives were showing as good. A week later, the MySQL database has flagged the database is corrupt, and is unable to repair it. I don't know what has gone wrong, but I suspected this 6-7 pair. At this point I noticed that the RAID had constantly been verifying itself, over and over. Regardless of this I began to rebuild the database, which took about 19 hours. It's a big database. Near the end of the repair, the RAID controller told me it had dropped disk 7, and that some data was most likely corrupted. I contacted LSI tech support, and they very promptly started to help me. I mentioned that drive 7 had been dropped. They suspect that drive 7 was always at fault, and drive 6 had always been good. I want to know how often a RAID controller would drop the wrong drive (in this case dropping drive 6 a month ago, instead of 7). I foolishly didn't run smartctl on the drives before I started swapping them out. I just assumed the RAID controller knew what it was talking about. I think my plan of action is to replace drive 7, rebuild the array from scratch, double check smartctl on ALL the disks, and then start restoring my data again. I would appreciate anyone's input on what the correct procedure for swapping drives is, and how often failures like this happen. If anyone would like more information then I'd be happy to provide it. thanks in advance. Oh some more information. I'm running CentOS 5.3, with two RAID arrays, a simple RAID 1 for the OS, and RAID 10 for the database. Both arrays are on different controllers. The RAID 10 is made of 10 identical ST3640323AS drives, until I swapped in a SAMSUNG HD103SJ last month.

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  • Where is my VMware-ws FreeNAS CIFS(ZFS) bottle-neck?

    - by maka
    Background: I'm building a quiet HTPC + NAS that is also supposed to be used for general computer usage. I'm so far generally happy with things, it was just that I was expecting a little better IO performance. I have no clue if my expectations are unreal. The NAS is there as a general purpose file storage and as a media server for XBMC and other devices. ZFS is a requirement. Question: Where is my bottle-neck, and is there anything I can do config wise, to improve my performance? I'm thinking VM-disk settings could be something but I really have no idea where to go since I'm neither experienced with FreeNAS nor VMware-WS. Tests: When I'm on the host OS and copy files (from the SSD) to the CIFS share, I get around 30 Mbytes/sec read and write. When I'm on my laptop laptop, wired to the network, I get about the same specs. The test I've done are with a 16 GB ISO, and with about 200 MB of RARs and I've tried avoiding the RAM-cache by reading different files than the ones I'm writing ( 10 GB). It feels like having less CPU cores is a lot more efficient, since the resource manager in Windows reports less CPU-usage. With 4 cores in VMware, CPU usage was 50-80%, with 1 core it was 25-60%. EDIT: HD ActiveTime was quite high on SSD so I moved the page file, disabled hibernate and enabled Win DiskCache both on SSD and RAID. This resulted in no real performance difference for one file, but if i transferred 2 files the total speed went up to 50 Mbytes/s vs ~40. The ActiveTime avg also went down a lot (to ~20%) but has now higher bursts. DiskIO is on ~ 30-35 Mbytes/s avgs, with ~100Mb bursts. Network is on 200-250Mbits/s with ~45 active TCP connections. Hardware Asus F2A85-M Pro A10-5700 16GB DDR3 1600 OCZ Vertex 2 128GB SSD 2x Generic 1tb 7200 RPM drives as RAID0 (in win7) Intel Gigabit Desktop CT Software Host OS: Win7 (SSD) VMware Worksation 9 (SSD) FreeNAS 8.3 VM (20GB VDisk on SSD) CPU: I've tried 1, 2 and 4 cores. Virtualisation engine, Preferred mode: Automatic 10,24Gb ram 50Gb SCSI VDisk on the RAID0, VDisk is formatted as ZFS and exposed through CIFS through FreeNAS. NIC Bridge, Replicate physical network state Below are two typical process print-outs while I'm transfering one file to the CIFS share. last pid: 2707; load averages: 0.60, 0.43, 0.24 up 0+00:07:05 00:34:26 32 processes: 2 running, 30 sleeping Mem: 101M Active, 53M Inact, 1620M Wired, 2188K Cache, 149M Buf, 8117M Free Swap: 4096M Total, 4096M Free PID USERNAME THR PRI NICE SIZE RES STATE TIME WCPU COMMAND 2640 root 1 102 0 50164K 10364K RUN 0:25 25.98% smbd 1897 root 6 44 0 168M 74808K uwait 0:02 0.00% python last pid: 2746; load averages: 0.93, 0.60, 0.33 up 0+00:08:53 00:36:14 33 processes: 2 running, 31 sleeping Mem: 101M Active, 53M Inact, 4722M Wired, 2188K Cache, 152M Buf, 5015M Free Swap: 4096M Total, 4096M Free PID USERNAME THR PRI NICE SIZE RES STATE TIME WCPU COMMAND 2640 root 1 76 0 50164K 10364K RUN 0:52 16.99% smbd 1897 root 6 44 0 168M 74816K uwait 0:02 0.00% python I'm sorry if my question isn't phrased right, I'm really bad at these kind of things, and it is the first time I post here at SU. I also appreciate any other suggestions to something, I could have missed.

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  • Set up lnux box for hosting a-z [apache mysql php ssl]

    - by microchasm
    I am in the process of reinstalling the OS on a machine that will be used to host a couple of apps for our business. The apps will be local only; access from external clients will be via vpn only. The prior setup used a hosting control panel (Plesk) for most of the admin, and I was looking at using another similar piece of software for the reinstall - but I figured I should finally learn how it all works. I can do most of the things the software would do for me, but am unclear on the symbiosis of it all. This is all an attempt to further distance myself from the land of Configuration Programmer/Programmer, if at all possible. I can't find a full walkthrough anywhere for what I'm looking for, so I thought I'd put up this question, and if people can help me on the way I will edit this with the answers, and document my progress/pitfalls. Hopefully someday this will help someone down the line. The details: CentOS 5.5 x86_64 httpd: Apache/2.2.3 mysql: 5.0.77 (to be upgraded) php: 5.1 (to be upgraded) The requirements: SECURITY!! Secure file transfer Secure client access (SSL Certs and CA) Secure data storage Virtualhosts/multiple subdomains Local email would be nice, but not critical The Steps: Download latest CentOS DVD-iso (torrent worked great for me). Install CentOS: While going through the install, I checked the Server Components option thinking I was going to be using another Plesk-like admin. In hindsight, considering I've decided to try to go my own way, this probably wasn't the best idea. Basic config: Setup users, networking/ip address etc. Yum update/upgrade. Upgrade PHP: To upgrade PHP to the latest version, I had to look to another repo outside CentOS. IUS looks great and I'm happy I found it! cd /tmp #wget http://dl.iuscommunity.org/pub/ius/stable/Redhat/5/x86_64/epel-release-1-1.ius.el5.noarch.rpm #rpm -Uvh epel-release-1-1.ius.el5.noarch.rpm #wget http://dl.iuscommunity.org/pub/ius/stable/Redhat/5/x86_64/ius-release-1-4.ius.el5.noarch.rpm #rpm -Uvh ius-release-1-4.ius.el5.noarch.rpm yum list | grep -w \.ius\. [will list all packages available in the IUS repo] rpm -qa | grep php [will list installed packages needed to be removed. the installed packages need to be removed before you can install the IUS packages otherwise there will be conflicts] #yum shell >remove php-gd php-cli php-odbc php-mbstring php-pdo php php-xml php-common php-ldap php-mysql php-imap Setting up Remove Process >install php53 php53-mcrypt php53-mysql php53-cli php53-common php53-ldap php53-imap php53-devel >transaction solve >transaction run Leaving Shell #php -v PHP 5.3.2 (cli) (built: Apr 6 2010 18:13:45) This process removes the old version of PHP and installs the latest. To upgrade mysql: Pretty much the same process as above with PHP #/etc/init.d/mysqld stop [OK] rpm -qa | grep mysql [installed mysql packages] #yum shell >remove mysql mysql-server Setting up Remove Process >install mysql51 mysql51-server mysql51-devel >transaction solve >transaction run Leaving Shell #service mysqld start [OK] #mysql -v Server version: 5.1.42-ius Distributed by The IUS Community Project And this is where I'm at. I will keep editing this as I make progress. Any tips on how to Configure Virtualhosts for SSL, setting up a CA, setting up SFTP with openSSH, or anything else would be appreciated.

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  • Please verify my layout: bottom button keeps coming up over keyboard

    - by steff
    Hi everyone, I have a layout which does almost what I want. There's just one bug regarding the button at the bottom. I should stay at the bottom at all times. But whenever I bring up the soft-keyboard the button will be displayed above the keyboard. This is not what I want but it should become covered by the keyboard. Moreover, I'd be happy if you could comment on how the layout's built. Thanks, steff <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical"> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/l_layout_tags" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal"> <TextView android:text="TAGS:" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <AutoCompleteTextView android:id="@+id/actv_tags" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:imeOptions="actionDone" /> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/btn_add_tag" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:src="@android:drawable/ic_input_add" android:onClick="addTag"/> </LinearLayout> <ScrollView android:id="@+id/sv_scroll_contents" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@id/l_layout_tags" android:scrollbarFadeDuration="2000" > <TableLayout android:id="@+id/t_layout_contents" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:stretchColumns="1" android:paddingRight="5dip"> <TableRow android:id="@+id/tr_template"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/iv_blank" android:src="@android:color/transparent" /> <EditText android:id="@+id/et_content1" android:gravity="top" android:maxWidth="200dp" android:imeOptions="actionDone" /> </TableRow> </TableLayout> </ScrollView> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/l_layout_media_btns" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_centerHorizontal="true" android:layout_below="@id/sv_scroll_contents" > <ImageButton android:id="@+id/btn_camera" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:src="@android:drawable/ic_menu_camera" android:onClick="takePicture" /> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/btn_video" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:src="@android:drawable/ic_menu_camera" /> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/btn_audio" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:src="@android:drawable/ic_btn_speak_now" /> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/btn_sketch" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:src="@android:drawable/ic_menu_edit" /> </LinearLayout> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/btn_save_note" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:src="@android:drawable/ic_menu_upload" /> </RelativeLayout>

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  • Facebook Oauth Logout

    - by Derek Troy-West
    I have an application that integrates with Facebook using Oauth 2. I can authorize with FB and query their REST and Graph APIs perfectly well, but when I authorize an active browser session is created with FB. I can then log-out of my application just fine, but the session with FB persists, so if anyone else uses the browser they will see the previous users FB account (unless the previous user manually logs out of FB also). The steps I take to authorize are: Call [LINK: graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id...] This step opens a Facebook login/connect window if the user's browser doesn't already have an active FB session. Once they log-in to facebook they redirect to my site with a code I can exchange for an oauth token. Call [LINK: graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id..] with the code from (1) Now I have an Oauth Token, and the user's browser is logged into my site, and into FB. I call a bunch of APIs to do stuff: i.e. [LINK: graph.facebook.com/me?access_token=..] Lets say my user wants to log out of my site. The FB terms and conditions demand that I perform Single Sign Off, so when the user logs out of my site, they also are logged out of Facebook. There are arguments that this is a bit daft, but I'm happy to comply if there is any way of actually achieving that. I have seen suggestions that: A. I use the Javascript API to logout: FB.Connect.logout(). Well I tried using that, but it didn't work, and I'm not sure exactly how it could, as I don't use the Javascript API in any way on my site. The session isn't maintained or created by the Javascript API so I'm not sure how it's supposed to expire it either. B. Use [LINK: facebook.com/logout.php]. This was suggested by an admin in the Facebook forums some time ago. The example given related to the old way of getting FB sessions (non-oauth) so I don't think I can apply it in my case. C. Use the old REST api expireSession or revokeAuthorization. I tried both of these and while they do expire the Oauth token they don't invalidate the session that the browser is currently using so it has no effect, the user is not logged out of Facebook. I'm really at a bit of a loose end, the Facebook documentation is patchy, ambiguous and pretty poor. The support on the forums is non-existant, at the moment I can't even log in to the facebook forum, and aside from that, their own FB Connect integration doesn't even work on the forum itself. Doesn't inspire much confidence. Ta for any help you can offer. Derek ps. Had to change HTTPS to LINK, not enough karma to post links which is probably fair enough.

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  • [C#] Convert string to double with 2 digit after decimal separator

    - by st.stoqnov
    All began with these simple lines of code: string s = "16.9"; double d = Convert.ToDouble(s); d*=100; The result should be 1690.0, but it's not. d is equal to 1689.9999999999998. All I want to do is to round a double to value with 2 digit after decimal separator. Here is my function. private double RoundFloat(double Value) { float sign = (Value < 0) ? -0.01f : 0.01f; if (Math.Abs(Value) < 0.00001) Value = 0; string SVal = Value.ToString(); string DecimalSeparator = System.Globalization.CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.NumberFormat.CurrencyDecimalSeparator; int i = SVal.IndexOf(DecimalSeparator); if (i > 0) { int SRnd; try { // ????? ??????? ????? ???? ?????????? ?????????? SRnd = Convert.ToInt32(SVal.Substring(i + 3, 1)); } catch { SRnd = 0; } if (SVal.Length > i + 3) SVal = SVal.Substring(0, i + 3); //SVal += "00001"; try { double result = (SRnd >= 5) ? Convert.ToDouble(SVal) + sign : Convert.ToDouble(SVal); //result = Math.Round(result, 2); return result; } catch { return 0; } } else { return Value; } But again the same problem, converting from string to double is not working as I want. A workaround to this problem is to concatenate "00001" to the string and then use the Math.Round function (commented in the example above). This double value multiplied to 100 (as integer) is send to a device (cash register) and this values must be correct. I am using VS2005 + .NET CF 2.0 Is there another more "elegant" solution, I am not happy with this one.

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  • Very slow compile times on Visual Studio

    - by johnc
    We are getting very slow compile times, which can take upwards of 20+ minutes on dual core 2GHz, 2G Ram machines. A lot of this is due to the size of our solution which has grown to 70+ projects, as well as VSS which is a bottle neck in itself when you have a lot of files. (swapping out VSS is not an option unfortunately, so I don't want this to descend into a VSS bash) We are looking at combing projects (not nice, as we like the separation of concerns, but is a good opportunity to refactor away some dead wood). We are also looking at having multiple solutions to achieve greater separation of concerns and quicker compile times for each element of the application. This I can see will become a dll hell as we try to keep things in synch. I am interested to know how other teams have dealt with this scaling issue, what do you do when your code base reaches a critical mass that you are wasting half the day watching the status bar deliver compile messages UPDATE Apologies, I neglected to mention this is a C# solution. Thanks for all the cpp suggestions, but it's been a few years since I've had to worry about headers. At a distance I say I miss C++, but I'm not sure I want to go back EDIT: Nice suggestions that have helped so far (not saying there aren't other nice suggestions below, just what has helped) New 3GHz laptop - the power of lost utilization works wonders when whinging to management Disable Anti Virus during compile 'Disconnecting' from VSS (actually the network) during compile - I may get us to remove VS-VSS integration altogether and stick to using the VSS UI Still not rip-snorting through a compile, but every bit helps. Orion did mention in a comment that generics may have a play also. From my tests there does appear to be a minimal performance hit, but not high enough to sure - compile times can be inconsistent due to disc activity. Due to time limitations, my tests didn't include as many Generics, or as much code, as would appear in live system, so that may accumulate. I wouldn't avoid using generics where they are supposed to be used, just for compile time performance WORKAROUND We are testing the practice of building new areas of the application in new solutions, importing in the latest dlls as required, them integrating them into the larger solution when we are happy with them. We may also do them same to existing code by creating temporary solutions that just encapsulate the areas we need to work on, and throwing them away after reintegrating the code. We need to weigh up the time it will take to reintegrate this code against the time we gain by not having Rip Van Winkle like experiences with rapid recompiling during development.

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  • Concatenate & Minify JS on the fly OR at build time - ASP.NET MVC

    - by Charlino
    As an extension to this question here Linking JavaScript Libraries in User Controls I was after some examples of how people are concatinating & minifying javascript on the fly OR at build time. I would also like to see how it then works into your master pages. I don't mind page specific files being minified and linked inidividually as they currently are (see below) but all the js files on the main master page (I have about 5 or 6) I would like concatenated and minified. Bonus points for anyone who also incorporates CSS concatenation & minification! :-) Current master page with the common js files that I would like concatenated & minified: <%@ Master Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewMasterPage" %> <head runat="server"> ... BLAH ... <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="AdditionalHead" runat="server" /> ... BLAH ... <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/site.css") %> <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/jquery-ui-1.7.1.css") %> <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/jquery.lightbox-0.5.css") %> <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/ie6.css", 6) %> <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/ie7.css", 7) %> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="AdditionalCSS" runat="server" /> </head> <body> ... BLAH ... <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js", "/scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js") %> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/jquery-ui-1.7.1.js", "/scripts/jquery-ui-1.7.1.min.js") %> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/jquery.validate.js", "/scripts/jquery.validate.min.js") %> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/jquery.lightbox-0.5.js", "/scripts/jquery.lightbox-0.5.min.js") %> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/global.js", "/scripts/global.min.js") %> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="AdditionalJS" runat="server" /> </body> Used in a page like this (which I'm happy with): <asp:Content ID="signUpContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="AdditionalJS" runat="server"> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/pages/account.signup.js", "/scripts/pages/account.signup.min.js") %> </asp:Content> EDIT: What I'm using now Since asking this question, Microsoft have released their own JS & CSS compression library called Microsoft AJAX Minifier, I'd definitely recommend checking it out. It includes MSBuild tasks which are the duck's nuts.

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  • Subclassed django models with integrated querysets

    - by outofculture
    Like in this question, except I want to be able to have querysets that return a mixed body of objects: >>> Product.objects.all() [<SimpleProduct: ...>, <OtherProduct: ...>, <BlueProduct: ...>, ...] I figured out that I can't just set Product.Meta.abstract to true or otherwise just OR together querysets of differing objects. Fine, but these are all subclasses of a common class, so if I leave their superclass as non-abstract I should be happy, so long as I can get its manager to return objects of the proper class. The query code in django does its thing, and just makes calls to Product(). Sounds easy enough, except it blows up when I override Product.__new__, I'm guessing because of the __metaclass__ in Model... Here's non-django code that behaves pretty much how I want it: class Top(object): _counter = 0 def __init__(self, arg): Top._counter += 1 print "Top#__init__(%s) called %d times" % (arg, Top._counter) class A(Top): def __new__(cls, *args, **kwargs): if cls is A and len(args) > 0: if args[0] is B.fav: return B(*args, **kwargs) elif args[0] is C.fav: return C(*args, **kwargs) else: print "PRETENDING TO BE ABSTRACT" return None # or raise? else: return super(A).__new__(cls, *args, **kwargs) class B(A): fav = 1 class C(A): fav = 2 A(0) # => None A(1) # => <B object> A(2) # => <C object> But that fails if I inherit from django.db.models.Model instead of object: File "/home/martin/beehive/apps/hello_world/models.py", line 50, in <module> A(0) TypeError: unbound method __new__() must be called with A instance as first argument (got ModelBase instance instead) Which is a notably crappy backtrace; I can't step into the frame of my __new__ code in the debugger, either. I have variously tried super(A, cls), Top, super(A, A), and all of the above in combination with passing cls in as the first argument to __new__, all to no avail. Why is this kicking me so hard? Do I have to figure out django's metaclasses to be able to fix this or is there a better way to accomplish my ends?

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  • Stop lazy loading or skip loading a property in NHibernate? Proxy cannot be serialized through WCF

    - by HelloSam
    Consider I have a parent, child relationship class and mapping. I am using NHibernate to read the object from the database, and intended to use WCF to send the object across the wire. Goal For reading the parent object, I want to selectively, at different execution path, decide when I would want to load the child object. Because I don't want to read more than what I needed. Those partially loaded object must be able to sent through WCF. When I mean I don't load it, neither side will access such property. Problem When such partially loaded object is being sent through WCF, as those property is marked as [DataContract], it cannot be serialized as the property is lazy load proxy instead of real known type. What I want to archive, or solution that I can think of lazy=false or lazy=true doesn't work. Former will eagerly fetch all the relationships, latter will create a proxy. But I want nothing instead - a null would be the best. I don't need lazy load. I hope to get a null for those references that I don't want to fetch. A null, but not just a proxy. This will makes WCF happy, and waste less time to have a lazy-load proxy constructed. Like could I have a null proxy factory? -OR- Or making WCF ignoring those property that's a proxy instead of real. I tried the IDataContractSurrogate solution, but only parent is passed to GetObjectToSerialize, I never observe an proxy being passed through GetObjectToSerialize, leaving no chance to un-proxy it. Edit After reading the comments, more surfing on the Internet... It seems to me that DTO would shift major part of the computation to the server side. But for the project I am working on, 50% of time the client is "smarter" than the server and the server is more like a data store with validation and verification. Though I agree the server is not exactly dumb - I have to decide when to fetch the extra references already, and DTO will make this very explicit. Maybe I should just take the pain. I didn't know http://automapper.codeplex.com/ before, this motivates me a little more to take the pain. On the other hand, I found http://trentacular.com/2009/08/how-to-use-nhibernate-lazy-initializing-proxies-with-web-services-or-wcf/, which seems to be working with IDataContractSurrogate.GetObjectToSerialize.

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  • vector iterator not dereferencable at runtime on a vector<vector<vector<A*>*>*>

    - by marouanebj
    Hi, I have this destructor that create error at runtime "vector iterator not dereferencable". The gridMatrix is a std::vector<std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T> * > * > * > * > I added the typename and also the typedef but I still have the error. I will move for this idea of vect of vect* of vect* to use boost::multi_array I think, but still I want to understand were this is wrong. /// @brief destructor ~AtomsGrid(void) { // free all the memory for all the pointers inside gridMatrix (all except the Atom<T>* ) //typedef typename ::value_type value_type; typedef std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*> std_vectorOfAtomsCell; typedef std::vector<std_vectorOfAtomsCell*> std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell; std_vectorOfAtomsCell* vectorOfAtomsCell; std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell* vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell; typename std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell::iterator itSecond; typename std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell::reverse_iterator reverseItSecond; typename std::vector<std_vectorOfVectorOfAtomsCell*>::iterator itFirst; //typename std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>* vectorOfAtomsCell; //typename std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>*>* vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell; //typename std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>*>::iterator itSecond; //typename std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>*>::reverse_iterator reverseItSecond; //typename std::vector<std::vector<std::vector<AtomsCell< Atom<T>* >*>*>*>::iterator itFirst; for (itFirst = gridMatrix.begin(); itFirst != gridMatrix.end(); ++itFirst) { vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell = (*itFirst); while (!vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell->empty()) { reverseItSecond = vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell->rbegin(); itSecond = vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell->rbegin().base(); vectorOfAtomsCell = (*itSecond); // ERROR during run: "vector iterator not dereferencable" // I think the ERROR is because I need some typedef typename or template ???!!! // the error seems here event at itFirst //fr_Myit_Utils::vectorElementDeleter(*vectorOfAtomsCell); //vectorOfVecOfAtomsCell->pop_back(); } } fr_Myit_Utils::vectorElementDeleter(gridMatrix); } If someone want the full code that create the error I'm happy to give it but I do not think we can attach file in the forum. BUT still its is not very big so if you want it I can copy past it here. Thanks

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  • Use Dojo Drag and Drop together with Dojo Moveable

    - by Select0r
    Hi, I'm using Dojo.dnd to transfer items between to areas. The problem is: the items will snap into place once I drop them, but I'd like to have them stay where I drop them, but only for one area. Here's a little code to explain this better: <div id="dropZone" class="dropZone"> <div id="itemNodes"></div> <div id="targetZone" dojoType="dojo.dnd.Source"></div> </div> "dropZone" is a DIV that contains two dojo.dnd.Source-areas, "itemNodes" (created programmatically) and "targetZone". Items (DIVs with images) should be dragged from a simple list out of "itemNodes" into "targetZone" and stay where they are dropped. As soon as they are dragged out of "targetZone" they should snap back to the list inside "itemNodes". Here's the code I use to create the items: var nodelist = new dojo.dnd.Source("itemNodes"); {Smarty-Loop} nodelist.insertNodes(false, ['<img class="dragItem" src="{$items->info.itemtext}" alt="{$items->info.itemtext}" border="0" />']); {/Smarty-Loop} But this way I just have two lists of items, the items dropped into "targetZone" won't stay where I dropped them. I've tried a loop dojo.query(".dojoDndItem").forEach(function(node) to grab all items and change them to a "moveable"-type: using dojo.dnd.move.constrainedMoveable will change the items so they can always be moved around (even in "itemNodes") using dojo.dnd.move.boxConstrainedMoveable and defining the "box" to the borders of "targetZone" makes it possible to just move the items around inside "targetZone", but as soon as I drop them, I can't grab and move them back out So here's the question: is it possible to create two dnd.Sources where I can move items back and forth and let the items be "moveable" only in one of the sources?Or is there a workaround like making the items moveable and if they're not dropped into "targetZone" they'll be moved back to the list in "itemNodes" automatically? Once the page is submitted, I have to save the position of every item that has been placed into "targetZone". (The next step will be positioning the items inside "targetZone" on page load if the grid has already been filled before, but I'd be happy to just get the thing working in the first place.) Any hint is appreciated. Greetings, Select0r

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  • What might cause this ExecutionEngineException?

    - by Qwertie
    I am trying to use Reflection.Emit to generate a wrapper class in a dynamic assembly. Automatic wrapper generation is part of a new open-source library I'm writing called "GoInterfaces". The wrapper class implements IEnumerable<string> and wraps List<string>. In C# terms, all it does is this: class List1_7931B0B4_79328AA0 : IEnumerable<string> { private readonly List<string> _obj; public List1_7931B0B4_79328AA0(List<string> obj) { this._obj = obj; } IEnumerator IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() { return this._obj.GetEnumerator(); } public sealed IEnumerator<string> GetEnumerator() { return this._obj.GetEnumerator(); } } However, when I try to call the GetEnumerator() method on my wrapper class, I get ExecutionEngineException. So I saved my dynamic assembly to a DLL and used ildasm on it. Is there anything wrong with the following code? .class public auto ansi sealed List`1_7931B0B4_79328AA0 extends [mscorlib]System.Object implements [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1<string>, [Loyc.Runtime]Loyc.Runtime.IGoInterfaceWrapper { .field private initonly class [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.List`1<string> _obj .method public hidebysig virtual final instance class [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator`1<string> GetEnumerator() cil managed { // Code size 12 (0xc) .maxstack 1 IL_0000: ldarg.0 IL_0001: ldfld class [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.List`1<string> List`1_7931B0B4_79328AA0::_obj IL_0006: call instance valuetype [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.List`1/Enumerator<!0> class [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.List`1<string>::GetEnumerator() IL_000b: ret } // end of method List`1_7931B0B4_79328AA0::GetEnumerator .method public hidebysig virtual final instance class [mscorlib]System.Collections.IEnumerator System.Collections.IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() cil managed { .override [mscorlib]System.Collections.IEnumerable::GetEnumerator // Code size 12 (0xc) .maxstack 1 IL_0000: ldarg.0 IL_0001: ldfld class [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.List`1<string> List`1_7931B0B4_79328AA0::_obj IL_0006: call instance valuetype [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.List`1/Enumerator<!0> class [mscorlib]System.Collections.Generic.List`1<string>::GetEnumerator() IL_000b: ret } // end of method List`1_7931B0B4_79328AA0::System.Collections.IEnumerable.GetEnumerator ... I have a test suite that wraps all sorts of different things, including interfaces derived from other interfaces, and multiple interface methods with identical signatures. It's only when I try to wrap IEnumerable<T> that this problem occurs. I'd be happy to send the source code (2 *.cs files, no dependencies) if anyone would like.

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  • ZPL II Extended Characters

    - by Mauro
    I'm trying to print extended code page 850 characters using ZPL II to a Zebra S4M. Whenever one of the extended characters I.E. ASCII value 127 is used I get a box of varying shades of grey instead of the actual value. I'm trying to print ± and ° (ALT+0177 and ALT+0176). I suspect its the RawPrinterHelper I am trying to use (as downloaded from MS, and another from CodeProject) however I cant see where the character codes are going wrong. Weirdly, printing direct from Notepad renders the correct characters, which leads me to believe it is a problem with the raw printer helper class. I am not tied to using the Raw Printer Helper class so if there is a better way of doing it, I am more than happy to see them. SAMPLE ZPLII Without escaped chars ^XA ^FO30,200^AD^FH,18,10^FD35 ± 2 ° ^FS ^FS ^XZ With escaped chars (tried both upper and lower case) ^XA ^FO30,200^AD^FH,18,10^FD35 _b0 2 _b1 ^FS ^FS ^XZ Raw Printer Helper [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct DOCINFO { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string printerDocumentName; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string pOutputFile; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string printerDocumentDataType; } public class RawPrinter { [ DllImport("winspool.drv", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, ExactSpelling = false, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern long OpenPrinter(string pPrinterName, ref IntPtr phPrinter, int pDefault); [ DllImport("winspool.drv", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, ExactSpelling = false, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern long StartDocPrinter(IntPtr hPrinter, int Level, ref DOCINFO pDocInfo); [ DllImport("winspool.drv", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, ExactSpelling = true, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern long StartPagePrinter(IntPtr hPrinter); [ DllImport("winspool.drv", CharSet = CharSet.Ansi, ExactSpelling = true, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern long WritePrinter(IntPtr hPrinter, string data, int buf, ref int pcWritten); [ DllImport("winspool.drv", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, ExactSpelling = true, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern long EndPagePrinter(IntPtr hPrinter); [ DllImport("winspool.drv", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, ExactSpelling = true, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern long EndDocPrinter(IntPtr hPrinter); [ DllImport("winspool.drv", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, ExactSpelling = true, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern long ClosePrinter(IntPtr hPrinter); public static void SendToPrinter(string printerJobName, string rawStringToSendToThePrinter, string printerNameAsDescribedByPrintManager) { IntPtr handleForTheOpenPrinter = new IntPtr(); DOCINFO documentInformation = new DOCINFO(); int printerBytesWritten = 0; documentInformation.printerDocumentName = printerJobName; documentInformation.printerDocumentDataType = "RAW"; OpenPrinter(printerNameAsDescribedByPrintManager, ref handleForTheOpenPrinter, 0); StartDocPrinter(handleForTheOpenPrinter, 1, ref documentInformation); StartPagePrinter(handleForTheOpenPrinter); WritePrinter(handleForTheOpenPrinter, rawStringToSendToThePrinter, rawStringToSendToThePrinter.Length, ref printerBytesWritten); EndPagePrinter(handleForTheOpenPrinter); EndDocPrinter(handleForTheOpenPrinter); ClosePrinter(handleForTheOpenPrinter); } }

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  • Fluid CSS: floating column with max-width and overflow

    - by Ates Goral
    I'm using a fluid layout in the new theme that I'm working on for my blog. I often blog about code and include <pre> blocks within the posts. The float: left column for the content area has a max-width so that the column stops at a certain maximum width and can also be shrunk: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | +----------+ +------+ max shrunk What I want is for the <pre> elements to be wider than the text column so that I can fit 80-character-wrapped code without horizontal scroll bars. But I want the <pre> elements to overflow from the content area, without affecting its fluidity: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | | | | | +----------+--+ +------+------+ | code | | code | +----------+--+ +------+------+ | | | | +----------+ +------+ max shrunk But, max-width stops being fluid once I insert the overhanging <pre> in there: the width of the column remains at the specified max-width even when I shrink the browser beyond that width. I've reproduced the issue with this bare-minimum scenario: <div style="float: left; max-width: 460px; border: 1px solid red"> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit</p> <pre style="max-width: 700px; border: 1px solid blue"> function foo() { // Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit } </pre> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit</p> </div> I noticed that doing either of the following brings back the fluidity: Remove the <pre> (doh...) Remove the float: left The workaround I'm currently using is to insert the <pre> elements into "breaks" in the post column, so that the widths of the post segments and the <pre> segments are managed mutually exclusively: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | +----------+ +------+ +-------------+ +-------------+ | code | | code | +-------------+ +-------------+ +----------+ +------+ +----------+ +------+ max shrunk But this forces me to insert additional closing and opening <div> elements into the post markup which I'd rather keep semantically pristine. Admittedly, I don't have a full grasp of how the box model works with floats with overflowing content, so I don't understand why the combination of float: left on the container and the <pre> inside it cripple the max-width of the container. I'm observing the same problem on Firefox/Chrome/Safari/Opera. IE6 (the crazy one) seems happy all the time. This also doesn't seem dependent on quirks/standards mode. Update I've done further testing to observe that max-width seems to get ignored when the element has a float: left. I glanced at the W3C box model chapter but couldn't immediately see an explicit mention of this behaviour. Any pointers?

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  • Using GraphicsServices.h/GSEvent as well as compiling CLI iPhone tools with XCode

    - by Peter Hajas
    I sent this to KennyTM (has all the private framework headers on GitHub) but I figured I'd ask here too just in case someone has some good ideas or any way to help me out. I'm trying to write a command line utility that sends GSEvents to operate the keyboard, touch/drag elements onscreen, and operate hardware buttons (volume, home, sleep, etc.) I grabbed the MouseSupport code and tried to look through it, but I couldn't find the easiest way to send GSEvents. I'm hoping someone here can help me. First, what's the simplest way to declare a GSEvent and send it? I looked at the iPhone development wiki, but the documentation was very vague. I understand that there's a purple event port (?) that I have to send these events to, but I don't understand how to do that. Could someone offer examples for, say, touching at a coordinate, typing a certain key, or pressing a hardware button? Also, do I have to write or do anything special if I want this utility to operate all applications as well as Springboard? I don't know if this is a special case because I want it at the OS level. Ideally, I would SSH into the phone, start the program, and it would send GSEvents that would be handled by whatever application was open. As far as compiling this code, is there any way to do so under XCode? I don't know what sort of project template I should use (if any) and this is throwing me off. I don't need "build and go" support, I'm more than happy to scp the program over to the phone. I understand that compiling the code is also feasible on the phone. I have all of the headers from the SDK on my phone along with iphone-gcc, but when compiling some test programs I still get errors about not finding mach headers and CoreFoundation. Is there an easier way to do this? Lastly, are there other guides or pieces of literature that anyone can point me towards for learning more about this? I'm excited to get into open iPhone development (I have experience with the official SDK, but I want to go deeper). Thanks for any and all help people can offer!

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  • Not your usual "The multi-part identifier could not be bound" error

    - by Eugene Niemand
    I have the following query, now the strange thing is if I run this query on my development and pre-prod server it runs fine. If I run it on production it fails. I have figured out that if I run just the Select statement its happy but as soon as I try insert into the table variable it complains. DECLARE @RESULTS TABLE ( [Parent] VARCHAR(255) ,[client] VARCHAR(255) ,[ComponentName] VARCHAR(255) ,[DealName] VARCHAR(255) ,[Purchase Date] DATETIME ,[Start Date] DATETIME ,[End Date] DATETIME ,[Value] INT ,[Currency] VARCHAR(255) ,[Brand] VARCHAR(255) ,[Business Unit] VARCHAR(255) ,[Region] VARCHAR(255) ,[DealID] INT ) INSERT INTO @RESULTS SELECT DISTINCT ClientName 'Parent' ,F.ClientID 'client' ,ComponentName ,A.DealName ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(PurchaseDate , '1900-01-01')) 'Purchase Date' ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(StartDate , '1900-01-01')) 'Start Date' ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(EndDate , '1900-01-01')) 'End Date' ,DealValue 'Value' ,D.Currency 'Currency' ,ShortBrand 'Brand' ,G.BU 'Business Unit' ,C.DMRegion 'Region' ,DealID FROM LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deals A INNER JOIN dbo_DM_Brand B ON A.BrandID = B.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_DM_Region C ON A.Region = C.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Currency D ON A.Currency = D.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Clients E ON A.DealID = E.Deal_ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Clients F ON E.Client_ID = F.ClientID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_DM_BU G ON G.ID = A.BU INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components H ON A.DealID = H.Deal_ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Components I ON I.ComponentID = H.Component_ID WHERE EndDate != '1899-12-30T00:00:00.000' AND StartDate < EndDate AND B.ID IN ( 1 , 2 , 5 , 6 , 7 , 8 , 10 , 12 ) AND C.SalesRegionID IN ( 1 , 3 , 4 , 11 , 16 ) AND A.BU IN ( 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 8 , 9 , 11 , 12 , 15 , 16 , 19 , 20 , 22 , 23 , 24 , 26 , 28 , 30 ) AND ClientID = 16128 SELECT ... FROM @Results I get the following error Msg 8180, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Statement(s) could not be prepared. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 The multi-part identifier "Tbl1021.ComponentName" could not be bound. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 The multi-part identifier "Tbl1011.Currency" could not be bound. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2454'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2461'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2491'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2490'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2482'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2478'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2477'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2475'. EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT through a process of elimination I have found that following and wondered if anyone can shed some light on this. If I remove only the DISTINCT the query runs fine, add the DISTINCT and I get strange errors. Also I have found that if I comment the following lines then the query runs with the DISTINCT what is strange is that none of the columns in the table LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components is referenced so I don't see how the distinct will affect that. INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components H ON A.DealID = H.Deal_ID

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  • Form submit to target iframe only works once

    - by Pointy
    I'm having a really irritating problem doing something that I'm sure I've done before. The setup is this: There's a form which is submitted via a "click" handler on a button, though the submit is ultimately a simple call to the form's native submit() function. The form's target is an iframe, which is initially filled with an empty page (that is, its source object is an URL for an empty page). That is, the "target" attribute of the form is the same identifier (and yes, it's a valid identifier) as the "name" and "id" attributes of the iframe (and yes, it's unique) Now the goal of this setup is as follows: the form contains file upload fields. Should something be wrong with one of the files uploaded, the server will report back an error. If the error response (that is, the html page with a new copy of the form, along with appropriate error messages) were to be allowed to reload the original window, then the file input fields would be cleared. That's not good. Thus the form submits to the iframe, so that the response from the server can be a small page that knows it's in that hidden iframe, and knows to move the error messages up to the form. One more thing: the form itself is also in an iframe, as part of a popup modal dialog (like a jQuery UI dialog, only slightly different; same idea though). The setup works fine - on the first submit. In other words, if I supply nice happy files to upload, the server ships back the successful response, and the dialog is closed correctly. If I send a bogus file, the server responds with an error page that correctly copies its stuff up to the form page. On the second submit, however (like, if I fix the bogus file input field), the browser insists on sending the server response to a new browser tab. As far as I can tell, the form's "target" remains correct, the iframe "name" and "id" attributes aren't changed, and I even make sure to update the hidden iframe "window.name" and "window.id" values. None of that is helping; I always get a new browser tab. I'm trying to set up a slightly simpler test case to see if I can rule out some of my framework code (the stuff that does the submit), though via a few console.log() calls I think that stuff is OK; it's certainly OK on all the other dialogs etc. in the site. When/if I create a simpler version I'll post it. In the meantime, if any of you insanely smart people recognize this situation and know of a trick to make it work, I'd be really thankful. I see the same behavior in both Firefox (3.6) and Chrome, so it's got to be my problem and not a browser quirk (well, at least that's what I think to be true).

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  • Including configuration files while compiling a Flex application with MXMLC

    - by Daniel
    Hello there, I'm using: - Flex SDK 3.5.0 - Parsley 2.2.2. - Flash Builder 4 Down in my src folder (which is configured as part of the source path in the Flash Builder), I have a logging.xml which I configure via Parsley: FlexLoggingXmlSupport.initialize(); XmlContextBuilder.build("com/company/product/util/log/logging.xml"); When I run my application through Flash Builder, the XmlContentBuilder seems to locate the logging.xml (the implementation is a regular URLLoader one). When I compile my application using MXMLC (whether in Ant or command-line), and then run the swf, I get the following error: Cause(0): Error loading com/company/product/util/log/logging.xml: Error in URLLoader - cause: Error #2032: Stream Error. URL: file:///C|/workspace/folder01/product/target/com/company/product/util/log/logging.xml - cause: Error #2032: Stream Error. URL: file:///C|/workspace/folder01/product/target/com/company/product/util/log/logging.xml Here is the MXMLC tag in Ant: <mxmlc file="${product.src.dir}/com/company/product/view/Main.mxml" output="${product.target.dir}/${product.release.filename}" keep-generated-actionscript="false"> <load-config filename="${FLEX_HOME}/frameworks/flex-config.xml" /> <!-- source paths --> <source-path path-element="${FLEX_HOME}/frameworks" /> <compiler.source-path path-element="${product.src.dir}" /> <compiler.source-path path-element="${product.locale.dir}/{locale}" /> <compiler.library-path dir="${product.basedir}" append="true"> <include name="libs" /> </compiler.library-path> <warnings>false</warnings> <debug>false</debug> </mxmlc> And here is the command line: \mxmlc.exe -output "C:\temp\Rap.swf" -load-config "C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Flash Builder 4 Plug-in\sdks\3.5.0\frameworks\flex-config.xml" -source-path "C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Flash Builder 4 Plug-in\sdks\3.5.0\frameworks" C:\workspace\folder01\product\src C:\workspace\folder01\product\locale\en_US -library-path+=C:\workspace\folder01\product\libs -file-specs C:\workspace\folder01\product\src\com\company\product\view\main.mxml Now perhaps I don't get this correctly, but as far as I understand the SWF should be compiled with all of the resources in the paths I give MXMLC as source-paths. For some reason it seems that the XML file is not compiled into the SWF, hence the relative path of the XmlContentBuilder isn't located successfully. I could not find any argument to provide the MXMLC with that might solve this. I tried using the -dump-config option with the Flash Builder's compiler, then giving that configuration to MXMLC, but it didn't work either. I tried providing the XmlContentBuilder with an absolute path. That worked fine when I compiled with MXMLC via Ant, but still didn't work when I used MXMLC in the command-line... I'd be happy to be enlightened here, regarding all subjects - using MXMLC, accessing resources with relative paths, configuring logging in Parsley, etc. Many thanks in advance, Daniel

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  • Server side Xforms form validation and integration into ASP.NET

    - by Nigel
    I have recently been investigating methods of creating web-based forms for an ASP.NET web application that can be edited and managed at runtime. For example an administrator might wish to add a new validation rule or a new set of fields. The holy grail would provide a means of specifying a form along with (potentially very complex) arbitrary validation rules, and allocation of data sources for each field. The specification would then be used to update the deployed form in the web application which would then validate submissions both on the client side and on the server side. My investigations led me to Xforms and a number of technologies that support it. One solution appears to be IBM Lotus Forms, but this requires a very large investment in terms of infrastructure, which makes it infeasible, although the forms designer may be useful as a stand-alone tool for creating the forms. I have also discounted browser plug-ins as the form must be publicly visible and cross-browser compliant. I have noticed that there are numerous javascript libraries that provide client side implementations given an Xforms schema. These would provide a partial solution but server side validation is still a requirement. Another option seems to involve the use of server side solutions such as the Java application Orbeon. Orbeon provides a tool for specifying the forms (although not as rich as Lotus Forms Designer), but the most interesting point is that it can translate an XForms schema into an XHTML form complete with validation. The fact that it is written in Java is not a big problem if it is possible to integrate with the existing ASP.NET application. So my question is whether anyone has done this before. It sounds like a problem that should have been solved but is inherently very complex. It seems possible to use an off-the-shelf tool to design the form and export it to an Xforms schema and xhtml form, and it seems possible to take that xforms schema and form and publish it using a client side library. What seems to be difficult is providing a means of validating the form submission on the server side and integrating the process nicely with .NET (although it seems the .NET community doesn't involve themselves with XForms; please correct me if I'm wrong on this count). I would be more than happy if a product provided something simple like a web service that could validate a submission against a schema. Maybe Orbeon does this but I'd be grateful if somebody in the know could point me in the right direction before I research it further. Many thanks.

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  • How to arrange models, views, controllers in a Kohana 3 project

    - by Pekka
    I'm looking at how to set up a mid-sized web application with Kohana 3. I have implemented MVC patterns in the past but never worked against a "formalized" MVC framework so I'm still getting my head around the terminology - toying around with basic examples, building views and templates, and so on. I'm progressing fairly well but I want to set up a real-world web project (one of my own that I've been planning for quite some time now) as a learning object. I learn best by example, but example-based documentation is a bit sparse for Kohana 3 right now - they say so themselves on the site. While I'm not worried about getting into the framework soon enough, I'm a bit concerned about arranging a healthily structured code base from the start - i.e. how to split up controllers, how to name them, and how to separate the functionality into the appropriate models. My application could, in its core, be described as a business directory with a main businesses table. Businesses can be listed by category and by street name. Each business has a detail page. Business owners can log in and edit their business's entry. Businesses can post offers into an offers table. I know this is not very detailed, but I don't want to cram too much information into this question. I'll be more than happy to go into more detail if needed. Supposing I have all the basic functionality worked out and in place already - list all businesses, edit business, list businesses by street name, create offer logged in as business, and so on, and I'm just looking for how to fit the functionality into a MVC pattern and into a Kohana application structure that can be easily extended: Do you know real-life, publicly accessible examples of "database-heavy" applications like directories, online communities... with a log-in area built on Kohana 3 where I could take a peek how they do it? Are there conventions or best practices on how to structure an extendable login area for end users in a Kohana project that is not only able to handle a business directory page, but further products on separate pages as well? Do you know application structuring HOWTOs or best practices for Kohana 3 not mentioned in the user guide and the inofficial Wiki? Have you built something similar and could give me some recommendations?

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  • How to run a powershell script within a DOS batch file

    - by Don Vince
    How do I have a powershell script embedded within the same file as a DOS batch script? I know this kind of thing is possible in other scenarios: Embedding SQL in a DOS batch script using sqlcmd and a clever arrangements of goto's and comments at the beginning of the file In a *nix environment having a the name of the program you wish to run the script with on the first line of the script commented out e.g. #!/usr/local/bin/python There may not be a way to do this - in which case I will have to call the separate powershell script from the launching DOS script. One possible solution I've considered is to echo out the powershell script, and then run it. A good reason to not do this is that part of the reason to attempt this is to be using the advantages of the powershell environment without the pain of, for example, DOS escape characters I have some unusual constraints and would like to find an elegant solution. I suspect this question may be baiting responses of the variety: "why don't you try and solve this different problem instead." Suffice to say these are my constraints, sorry about that. Any ideas? Is there a suitable combination of clever comments and escape characters that will enable me to achieve this? Some thoughts on how to achieve this: A carat ^ at the end of a line in DOS is a continuation - like an underscore in VB An ampersand & in DOS typically is used to separate commands echo Hello & echo World results in 2 echos on separate lines %0 will give you the script that's currently running So something like this (if I could make it work) would be good: # & call powershell -psconsolefile %0 # & goto :EOF /* From here on in we're running nice juicy powershell code */ Write-Output "Hello World" Except... It doesn't work... because the extension of the file isn't as per powershell's liking: Windows PowerShell console file "insideout.bat" extension is not psc1. Windows PowerShell console file extension must be psc1. DOS isn't really altogether happy with the situation either - although it does stumble on '#' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file.

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