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  • Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

    - by Alex R
    A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

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  • MVC3 custom validation attribute for an "at least one is required" situation

    - by Pricey
    Hi I have found this answer already: MVC3 Validation - Require One From Group Which is fairly specific to the checking of group names and uses reflection. My example is probably a bit simpler and I was just wondering if there was a simpler way to do it. I have the below: public class TimeInMinutesViewModel { private const short MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER = 60; //public string Label { get; set; } [Range(0,24, ErrorMessage = "Hours should be from 0 to 24")] public short Hours { get; set; } [Range(0,59, ErrorMessage = "Minutes should be from 0 to 59")] public short Minutes { get; set; } /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> public short TimeInMinutes() { // total minutes should not be negative if (Hours <= 0 && Minutes <= 0) { return 0; } // multiplier operater treats the right hand side as an int not a short int // so I am casting the result to a short even though both properties are already short int return (short)((Hours * MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER) + (Minutes * MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER)); } } I want to add a validation attribute either to the Hours & Minutes properties or the class itself.. and the idea is to just make sure at least 1 of these properties (Hours OR minutes) has a value, server and client side validation using a custom validation attribute. Does anyone have an example of this please? Thanks

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  • delegate method throws runtime "unrecognized selector" error when switching back from one UIViewCont

    - by chimgrrl
    Ok, I've spend like half day on this and it's killing me. So I've got 3 view controllers transitioning from one another, something like this: I call the UploadDecisionViewController after destroying the previous View Controller: [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; [self performSelector:@selector(showUDModalView) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; In my showUDModalView method: - (void)showUDModalView { UploadDecisionViewController *udcontroller = [[UploadDecisionViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"UploadDecisionViewController" bundle:nil]; udcontroller.delegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:udcontroller animated:YES]; [udcontroller release]; } The UploadDecisionViewController shows up no problem. The UploadDecisionViewController has a button, which when clicked I want it to transition to the FileUploadViewController. I setup a UploadDecisionDelegate, threw a method in there to handle the button clicking: Inside UploadDecisionDelegate protocol (UploadDecisionViewController.h): @protocol UploadDecisionDelegate //let UOnliveViewController know that a button was selected - (void)UploadDecisionViewController:(UploadDecisionViewController *)controller madeChoice:(NSString *)whichDirection; @end Then inside my IBAction method when the button is clicked, I have this: - (IBAction)decisionSelected:(id)sender { [delegate UploadDecisionViewController:self madeChoice:@"upload"];//crashing at this line } When I run this, at this line above it is throwing a runtime exception: 2010-06-09 12:48:59.561 UOnlive[4735:207] *** -[UIView UploadDecisionViewController:madeChoice:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b65420 2010-06-09 12:48:59.562 UOnlive[4735:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView UploadDecisionViewController:madeChoice:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b65420' 2010-06-09 12:48:59.563 UOnlive[4735:207] Stack: ( 33502299, 2495698185, 33884219, 33453686, 33306306, 20618, 2982917, 3390286, 3399023, 3394235, 3087839, 2996168, 3022945, 40156505, 33287040, 33283144, 40150549, 40150746, 3026863, 11700, 11554 ) Let me throw in the delegate method implemented also: - (void)UploadDecisionViewController:(UploadDecisionViewController *)controller madeChoice:(NSString *)whichDirection { NSLog(@"it got to here 245"); [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; if (yesOrNo) { //open up the FileUploadViewController and proceed to upload [self performSelector:@selector(showFUModalView) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; } } Can someone tell me what the heck is going on? Thanks a bunch for the help...

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  • I just need one dependent module , but don't need its dependencies (Maven)

    - by smallufo
    In my project , there is a spring XML config that utilizes ehcache to cache method returns. xml snippet : http://www.springmodules.org/schema/ehcache http://www.springmodules.org/schema/cache/springmodules-ehcache.xsd <ehcache:config configLocation="classpath:ehcache.xml"/> <ehcache:proxy id="explainRetriever" refId="explainRetrieverImpl"> <ehcache:caching methodName="get*" cacheName="explainCache"/> </ehcache:proxy> but in runtime , server complains it cannot find definitions of http://www.springmodules.org/schema/ehcache , I know I have to add "spring-modules-cache.jar" to WEB-INF/lib directory. But my project is maintained by maven , if I add "spring-modules-cache" to the runtime dependency , it will bring a lot of dependencies to my WAR file , filling my WAR with a lot of unnecessary jars. I just need one declaration in it , not all of its dependencies ... Is there any way to tell maven not to include its dependencies to the project ? Or ... another way , when packaging WAR , just copy another prepared spring-modules-cache.jar to WEB-INF/lib , how to do this ? Thanks !

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  • EF4 Code-First CTP5 Many-to-one

    - by Kevin McKelvin
    I've been trying to get EF4 CTP5 to play nice with an existing database, but struggling with some basic mapping issues. I have two model classes so far: public class Job { [Key, Column(Order = 0)] public int JobNumber { get; set; } [Key, Column(Order = 1)] public int VersionNumber { get; set; } public virtual User OwnedBy { get; set; } } and [Table("Usernames")] public class User { [Key] public string Username { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public bool IsAdministrator { get; set; } } And I have my DbContext class exposing those as IDbSet I can query my users, but as soon as I added the OwnedBy field to the Job class I began getting this error in all my tests for the Jobs: Invalid column name 'UserUsername'. I want this to behave like NHibernate's many-to-one, whereas I think EF4 is treating it as a complex type. How should this be done?

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  • Processing more than one button click at Android Widget

    - by dive
    Hi, all. I saw this topic and implement IntentService as describes, but what if I want more that one button? How can I distinguish button from each other? I'm trying to setFlags, but cannot read it at onHandleIntent() method: public static class UpdateService extends IntentService { ... @Override public void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { ComponentName me = new ComponentName(this, ExampleProvider.class); AppWidgetManager manager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(this); manager.updateAppWidget(me, buildUpdate(this)); } private RemoteViews buildUpdate(Context context) { RemoteViews updateViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main_layout); Intent i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_refresh, pi); i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_about, pi); return updateViews; } } At this little piece of code I have two PendingIntent linked with setOnClickPendingIntent, can I distinguish this intent for different actions and processing? Thanks for help

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  • How to extract byte-array from one xml and store it in another in Java

    - by grobartn
    So I am using DocumentBuilderFactory and DocumentBuilder to parse an xml. So it is DOM parser. But what I am trying to do is extract byte-array data (its an image encoded in base64) Store it in one object and later in code write it out to another xml encoded in base64. What is the best way to store this in btw. Store it as string? or as ByteArray? How can I extract byte array data in best way and write it out. I am not experienced with this so wanted to get opinion from the group. UPDATE: I am given XML I do not have control of incoming XML that comes in binary64 encoded < byte-array > ... base64 encoded image ... < /byte-array > Using parser I have I need to store this node and question is should that be byte or string and then writing it out to another node in new xml. again in base64 encoding. thanks

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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • multiple clients - one server connection with sockets tcp/ip c# .net

    - by jagse
    Hello guys, I need to develop a client server system where I can have multiple clients communicating with one server at the same time. I want to communicate xml serialized objects and also need to send and receive other commands to invoke methods. Now, I am just starting with socket programming in C# and .Net and found that the asynchronous I/O is the way to go so that the methods dont block the execution of code. Also there are many examples of how to make a simple client server system. So I have a basic understanding of how that works. Anyway, what still is not clear to me is how I can set up a server which can manage connections to multiple clients? Can I just create a new socket per connection and then store those in some kind of list? Do I need some kind of multiplexing to achieve this? Do I have to listen at multiple ports? What`s the best way here? And the other thing is if I need to develop my own protocol to differentiate between what I am actually sending over the network -- xml serialized object or a command which might be just a string encoded in ascII or something. Or would I develop my own protocol just to send these commands? Any kind of help is apreciated! If someone knows a good book which covers this sort of stuff, let me know. Cheers I forgot to mention that some of my clients which are supposed to communicate with my server will be pda and I therefore use the compact framework... So this might bring in some restrictions...

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  • Fatal error with Custom Magento Module on one server but not the other

    - by Jack
    Hi, I am creating my own custom module in Magento and during testing on a Litespeed server (PHP v5.2.14) I am getting a Fatal Error: Call to a member function batch() on a non-object in ../../../BatchController.php on line 25 that was not appearing during testing on another linux server and a wamp server (PHP v5.2.11). This one has stumped me. I am guessing it has something to do with the server configuration rather than the code itself. But i am just guessing. I was hoping someone here could tell me. The only real major difference I could see, aside from the php versions and environment, is that the server that the error is on is using the Suhosin Patch. But would that be something that could cause this? The line in question is Mage::getModel('mymodule/mymodel')->batch(); which is enclosed in an IF statement. batch() is a public function located in my model file. If you need more code let me know. Thanks!

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  • What design pattern to use for one big method calling many private methods

    - by Jeune
    I have a class that has a big method that calls on a lot of private methods. I think I want to extract those private methods into their own classes for one because they contain business logic and I think they should be public so they can be unit tested. Here's a sample of the code: public void handleRow(Object arg0) { if (continueRunning){ hashData=(HashMap<String, Object>)arg0; Long stdReportId = null; Date effDate=null; if (stdReportIds!=null){ stdReportId = stdReportIds[index]; } if (effDates!=null){ effDate = effDates[index]; } initAndPutPriceBrackets(hashData, stdReportId, effDate); putBrand(hashData,stdReportId,formHandlerFor==0?true:useLiveForFirst); putMultiLangDescriptions(hashData,stdReportId); index++; if (stdReportIds!=null && stdReportIds[0].equals(stdReportIds[1])){ continueRunning=false; } if (formHandlerFor==REPORTS){ putBeginDate(hashData,effDate,custId); } //handle logic that is related to pricemaps. lstOfData.add(hashData); } } What design pattern should I apply to this problem?

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  • Magento - use an alternate "price.phtml" (in addition to the existing one)

    - by sdek
    I am looking for a way to have an alternate template/catalog/product/price.phml used in one specific location, and to continue using the existing price.phtml file in all other locations. To explain further, I need to display the regular price, and then another special price right below it - but only on the product page (for the main product being displayed). This special price is not a price that can be calculated by the catalog price rules, so I wrote my own module to do the calculation. So, everywhere that I am displaying prices I want to display with the regular ol' template/catalog/product/price.phtml file... but for the product page (the main product - not the related, upsells, etc) I want to use my own custom template/catalog/product/price-custom.phtml template file. Can anybody help? Normally I just look in the layout xml files (for example catalog.xml) to find these types of things, but price.phtml is kinda special - it isn't that simple. And for the life of me I can't figure out if there is an easy way to swap it out conditionally on the page being viewed. I am aware that I can just update price.phtml to always print out this extra price, and then use css to hide the price everywhere, but I would rather not do that if possible. (Also you may want to know that I only have simple products.)

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  • Combining two .png images into one image using .NET

    - by Omega
    I have two (actually many) .png images in my application. Both have transparent areas here and there. I want, in my application, to take both images, combine them, and display the result in a picture box. Later I want to save the result through a button. So far I managed to find the two images and combine them, but it seems the transparency thing won't work. I mean, if you put one image over another, only the top image is visible as the result because, apparently, the image's background is a plain white box. Which is not. Here is a bit of my code: Dim Result As New Bitmap(96, 128) Dim g As Graphics = Graphics.FromImage(Result) Dim Name As String For Each Name In BasesCheckList.CheckedItems Dim Layer As New Bitmap(resourcesPath & "Bases\" & Name) For x = 0 To Layer.Width - 1 For y = 0 To Layer.Height - 1 Result.SetPixel(x, y, Layer.GetPixel(x, y)) Next Next Layer = Nothing Next resourcesPath is the path to my resources folder. Bases is a folder in it. And Name is the image's name. Thank you.

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  • Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

    - by Tyler McHenry
    I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

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  • Displaying images in one line inside a shorter div

    - by nemiss
    How can I set all images in one line and display only the first 200px of them inside the div? Without breaking the layout, or moving images to a next line. online demo <div id="thumbsContainer"> <ul> <li><img src="http://img214.imageshack.us/img214/6030/small3.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li><img src="http://img263.imageshack.us/img263/5600/small1ga.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li><img src="http://img638.imageshack.us/img638/3521/small4j.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li><img src="http://img682.imageshack.us/img682/507/small5.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li><img src=" http://img96.imageshack.us/img96/6118/small2o.jpg" alt="" /></li> </ul> </div> #thumbsContainer { width:200px; overflow:hidden; } ul { list-style:none; } li { float:left; }

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  • How to Map Two Tables To One Class in Fluent NHibernate

    - by Richard Nagle
    I am having a problem with fluent nhiberbate mapping two tables to one class. I have the following database schema: TABLE dbo.LocationName ( LocationId INT PRIMARY KEY, LanguageId INT PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(200) ) TABLE dbo.Language ( LanguageId INT PRIMARY KEY, Locale CHAR(5) ) And want to build the following class definition: public class LocationName { public virtual int LocationId { get; private set; } public virtual int LanguageId { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Locale { get; set; } } Here is my mapping class: public LocalisedNameMap() { WithTable("LocationName"); UseCompositeId() .WithKeyProperty(x => x.LanguageId) .WithKeyProperty(x => x.LocationId); Map(x => x.Name); WithTable("Language", lang => { lang.WithKeyColumn("LanguageId"); lang.Map(x => x.Locale); }); } The problem is with the mapping of the Locale field being from another table, and in particular that the keys between those tables don't match. Whenever I run the application with this mapping I get the following error on startup: Foreign key (FK7FC009CCEEA10EEE:Language [LanguageId])) must have same number of columns as the referenced primary key (LocationName [LanguageId, LocationId]) How do I tell nHibernate to map from LocationName to Language using only the LanguageId field?

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  • PHP output results on to one page

    - by linda
    i have a system where a user searches for a film and reviews appear on a page with a button next to each review. The button can be selected to look at the individual review but i basically want a button that when selected it will look at all reviews on one page, the code i am using for the individual review is this <?php ini_set ('display_errors', 1); error_reporting (E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE); $searchfilm=$_POST['searchfilm']; //Connect to database //Filter search $searchfilm = strtoupper($searchfilm); $searchfilm = strip_tags($searchfilm); $searchfilm = trim ($searchfilm); $query = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query("SELECT filmreview FROM review WHERE id = '$id'")); $data = mysql_query("SELECT film.filmname, review.filmreview, review.reviewtitle, review.id FROM film, review WHERE film.filmid = review.filmid AND filmname = '$searchfilm'"); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($data)) { // echo $row['filmname']; // echo "<b>Film Name:</b> " .$searchfilm; echo "<table border=\"2\" align=\"left\">"; echo "<tr><td>"; echo "<b>Review Title:</b> " .$row['reviewtitle']; echo "<tr><td>"; echo $row['filmreview']; echo "<p>"; echo "<form method='post' action='analyse1.php'>"; echo "<input type='hidden' name='reviewid' value='".$row['id']."'>"; echo "<input type='submit' name='submit' value='Analyse'>"; echo "</form>"; echo "</table>"; } ?>

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  • Problem: Movie Clip contains just one frame

    - by Doug
    I'm a newbie at Flash, so started playing with a pretty standard code sample: one layer contains a movie clip with a flying rectangle, another layer has a button to control it. All script code is in Main.as file. The rectangle was named square1 through the Property window. Here is the problem: the constructor for Main has a line: square1.stop(); to prevent clip from playing, but it doesn't help - it plays. I know the constructor fires, because it has trace("stuff") in it. The code does check that the stage has been created. What strange is that square1.currentFrame always returns 1, and square1.totalFrames returns 1 as well. The layer has 24 frames on the timeline. I tried a tween with just 2 keyframes, then converted whole tween into frames - same result. I mean, the thing is flying before my eyes, how can it be 1 frame??? I even added a listener: square1.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, onFrameChange); The event fires all the time, i.e. the frames change, but currentFrame is still 1. Also, tried to name individual frames and use square1.gotoAndStop("begin") and stuff like that. Nothing helps. I am really stuck with this stupid problem.

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  • How to invoke make install for one subdirectory of Qt project

    - by chalup
    I'm working on custom library and I wish users could just use it by adding: CONFIG += mylib to their pro files. This can be done by installing mylib.prf file to %QTDIR%/mkspec/features. I've checked out in Qt Mobility project how to create and install such file, but there is one thing I'd like to do differently. If I correctly understood the pro/pri files of Qt Mobility, inside the example projects they don't really use CONFIG += mobility, instead they add QtMobility sources to include path and share the *.obj directory with main library project. For my library I'd like to have examples that are as independent projects as possible, i.e. projects that can be compiled from anywhere once MyLib is compiled and installed. I have following directory structure: mylib | |- examples |- src |- tests \- mylib.pro It seems that the easiest way to achieve what I described above is creating mylib.pro like this: TEMPLATE = subdirs SUBDIRS += src SUBDIRS += examples tests:SUBDIRS += tests And somehow enforce invoking "cd src && make install" after building src. What is the best way to do this? Of course any other suggestions for automatic library deployment before examples compilation are welcome.

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  • Sending one record from cursor to another function Postgres

    - by PylonsN00b
    FYI: I am completely new to using cursors... So I have one function that is a cursor: CREATE FUNCTION get_all_product_promos(refcursor, cursor_object_id integer) RETURNS refcursor AS ' BEGIN OPEN $1 FOR SELECT * FROM promos prom1 JOIN promo_objects ON (prom1.promo_id = promo_objects.promotion_id) WHERE prom1.active = true AND now() BETWEEN prom1.start_date AND prom1.end_date AND promo_objects.object_id = cursor_object_id UNION SELECT prom2.promo_id FROM promos prom2 JOIN promo_buy_objects ON (prom2.promo_id = promo_buy_objects.promo_id) LEFT JOIN promo_get_objects ON prom2.promo_id = promo_get_objects.promo_id WHERE (prom2.buy_quantity IS NOT NULL OR prom2.buy_quantity > 0) AND prom2.active = true AND now() BETWEEN prom2.start_date AND prom2.end_date AND promo_buy_objects.object_id = cursor_object_id; RETURN $1; END; ' LANGUAGE plpgsql; SO then in another function I call it and need to process it: ... --Get the promotions from the cursor SELECT get_all_product_promos('promo_cursor', this_object_id) updated := FALSE; IF FOUND THEN --Then loop through your results LOOP FETCH promo_cursor into this_promotion --Preform comparison logic -this is necessary as this logic is used in other contexts from other functions SELECT * INTO best_promo_results FROM get_best_product_promos(this_promotion, this_object_id, get_free_promotion, get_free_promotion_value, current_promotion_value, current_promotion); ... SO the idea here is to select from the cursor, loop using fetch (next is assumed correct?) and put the record fetched into this_promotion. Then send the record in this_promotion to another function. I can't figure out what to declare the type of this_promotion in get_best_product_promos. Here is what I have: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_best_product_promos(this_promotion record, this_object_id integer, get_free_promotion integer, get_free_promotion_value numeric(10,2), current_promotion_value numeric(10,2), current_promotion integer) RETURNS... It tells me: ERROR: plpgsql functions cannot take type record OK first I tried: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_best_product_promos(this_promotion get_all_product_promos, this_object_id integer, get_free_promotion integer, get_free_promotion_value numeric(10,2), current_promotion_value numeric(10,2), current_promotion integer) RETURNS... Because I saw some syntax in the Postgres docs showed a function being created w/ a input parameter that had a type 'tablename' this works, but it has to be a tablename not a function :( I know I am so close, I was told to use cursors to pass records around. So I studied up. Please help.

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  • MySQL move data from one table to another, matching ID's

    - by Reveller
    I have (a.o.) two MySQL tables with (a.o.) the following columns: tweets: ------------------------------------- id text from_user_id from_user ------------------------------------- 1 Cool tweet! 13295354 tradeny 2 Tweeeeeeeet 43232544 bolleke 3 Yet another 13295354 tradeny 4 Something.. 53546443 janusz4 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 2 bolleke 432 3 janusz4 5354 I now want to normalize the tweets table, replacing tweets.from_user with an integer that matches users.id. Secondly, I want to fill in the corresponding users.from_user_id, Finally, I want to delete tweets.from_user_id so that the end result would look like: tweets: ------------------------ id text from_user ------------------------ 1 Cool tweet! 1 2 Tweeeeeeeet 2 3 Yet another 1 4 Something.. 3 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 13295354 2 bolleke 432 43232544 3 janusz4 5354 53546443 My question is whether one could help me form the proper queries for this. I have only come so far: UPDATE tweets SET from_user = (SELECT id FROM users WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... UPDATE users SET from_user_id = (SELECT from_user_id FROM tweets WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... ALTER TABLE tweets DROP from_user_id Any help would be greatly appreciated :-)

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  • Mapping one column in a table to multiple tables

    - by user1721814
    I am working on a new product development creating a WMS system. I have done it in past using ASP, VB, and other techniques where we did not hard code the mapping. But now i am working on it using MVC and entity frame work and i am stumped. How can i map one column in transaction table to a column in multiple tables. I have transaction table trans Transid orderref TType productid qty ....(More Columns) now the orderref will hold either Receiptkey, orderkey , movementkey, adjustmentkey and the TType column will tell me which type of transaction i am dealing with and based on that i would know which table to link further. Now how can i achieve this in Entity Frame work. This is the most important step. I have done this many times in my other languages but now using EF i am stuck. Please help. I have checked a lot online but i have not found it. I am new to MVC and entity frame work architecture. Any guidance would be highly appreciated. Ranjit

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  • Multiple generic types in one container

    - by Lirik
    I was looking at the answer of this question regarding multiple generic types in one container and I can't really get it to work: the properties of the Metadata class are not visible, since the abstract class doesn't have them. Here is a slightly modified version of the code in the original question: public abstract class Metadata { } public class Metadata<T> : Metadata { // ... some other meta data public T Function{ get; set; } } List<Metadata> metadataObjects; metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<int,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,int>>()); foreach( Metadata md in metadataObjects) { var tmp = md.Function; // <-- Error: does not contain a definition for Function } The exact error is: error CS1061: 'Metadata' does not contain a definition for 'Function' and no extension method 'Function' accepting a first argument of type 'Metadata' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I believe it's because the abstract class does not define the property Function, thus the whole effort is completely useless. Is there a way that we can get the properties?

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  • CGridView Filter doesn't work when you add more than one button to the CButtonColumn

    - by era
    I have a CGridView as follows, <?php $this->widget('zii.widgets.grid.CGridView', array( 'id'=>'order-grid', 'dataProvider'=>$model->search(), 'filter'=>$model, 'columns'=>array( 'order_id', //'ordered_datetime', 'customer_id', 'status', //'delivery_address', array( 'class'=>'CButtonColumn', 'template' => '{view} {rollback} {receive}{pack} {dispatch}{delivered}', 'htmlOptions'=>array('width'=>'250px'), 'buttons'=>array( 'receive'=>array( 'id'=>'receive', 'name'=>'receive', 'url'=>'$this->grid->controller->createUrl("/shop/order/admin&received=true", array("id"=>$data->order_id,"asDialog"=>1,"gridId"=>$this->grid->id))', 'type'=>'submit', 'imageUrl'=>'/mdg/images/Receive1.png', 'visible'=>'($data->status=="pending")?true:false;' ), 'rollback'=>array( 'id'=>'rollback', 'name'=>'rollback', 'url'=>'$this->grid->controller->createUrl("/shop/order/admin&rollback=true", array("id"=>$data->order_id,"asDialog"=>1,"gridId"=>$this->grid->id))', 'imageUrl'=>'/mdg/images/rollback.jpg', 'visible'=>'($data->status=="pending")?false:true;' ), ), ), ), )); ? And When I add one more button to the buttons array, the filter doesnt work. Any Idea why that is? It's Great if anyone can help.. Thanks!

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  • loading files through one file to hide locations

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hello all. Im currently doing a project in which my client does not want to location ( ie folder names and locations ) to be displayed. so I have done something like this: <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0001&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0002&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="./?0000=js&0001=0000&0002=script" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> <div id="left_header"> <img src="./?0000=jpg&0001=0001&0002=pic" width="277" height="167" alt="" /> </div> <div id="right_header"> <div id="top-banner"></div> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="#" title="#" id="nav-home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#" title="#">Signup</a></li> all works but my question being is or will this cause any complications i.e. speed of the site as all requests are being made to one single file and then loading in the appropriate data. Regards, Phil

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