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  • jqModal and jquery widget long shot

    - by rod
    Hi All, I just started playing around with jquery widgets within my jqmodals in my mvc app. I know this may be a long shot but I'll take it. Initially, I can click the Add link, get the alert ("which is the prize", watching too much tv), next click cancel to close modal and get the desired results. I can, then, click the Edit link and get the same desired results. However, if I click Edit link first then I try to click the Add link, "forget about it" I don't get the alert (which means my widget did not init). But I can still go back and click Edit and get the prize (the alert message). ajax: "/Home/EditPrintAdLine" and ajax: "/Home/AddPrintAdLine" render the same web user control Any ideas? <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Home Page </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2><%= Html.Encode(ViewData["Message"]) %></h2> <p> To learn more about ASP.NET MVC visit <a href="http://asp.net/mvc" title="ASP.NET MVC Website">http://asp.net/mvc</a>. </p> <div id="printAdLineEditDialog" class="jqmWindow"></div> <div id="printAdDialog" class="jqmWindow"></div> <table> <tr><td><a id="printAdLineItem" href="#">Add a Line Item</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a id="editPrintAdLine" href="#">Edit</a></td></tr> </table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.widget("ui.my_widget", { _init: function() { alert("My widget was instantiated"); } }); // Add line $('#printAdLineItem').click(function(e) { $('#printAdDialog').jqmShow(this); e.preventDefault(); }); $('#printAdDialog').jqm({ ajax: "/Home/AddPrintAdLine", onLoad: function(hash) { $('#PrintAdLine_RunDate').my_widget(); } }); // Edit line $('#editPrintAdLine').click(function(e) { $('#printAdLineEditDialog').jqmShow(this); e.preventDefault(); }); $('#printAdLineEditDialog').jqm({ ajax: "/Home/EditPrintAdLine", onLoad: function(hash) { $('#PrintAdLine_RunDate').my_widget(); } }); }); </script> </asp:Content>

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  • Multiplying field value with retreived value jQuery

    - by Efe
    I pull product price from another page. Then I multiply it with quantity entered in the quantity input field. The problem is, if I forget to enter quantity value before I pull product price data or if I change the quantity field later, the final total price is not updated. I hope I clearly explained it. javascript: $('#AddProduct').click(function() { var i = 0; var adding = $(+(i++)+'<div class="row'+(i)+'"><div class="column width50"><input type="text" id="PRODUCTNAME" name="PRODUCTNAME'+(i)+'" value="" class="width98" /><input type="hidden" class="PRODUCTID" name="PRODUCTID" /><input type="hidden" class="UNITPRICE" name="UNITPRICE'+(i)+'" /><small>Search Products</small></div><div class="column width20"><input type="text" class="UNITQUANTITY" name="UNITQUANTITY'+(i)+'" value="" class="width98" /><small>Quantity</small></div><div class="column width30"><span class="prices">Unit Price:<span class="UNITPRICE"></span><br />Total Price:<span class="TOTALPRICE"></span><br /><a href="#" id="RemoveProduct(".row'+(i)+'");">Remove</a></span></div>'); $('#OrderProducts').append(adding); adding.find("#PRODUCTNAME").autocomplete("orders.cs.asp?Process=ListProducts", { selectFirst: false }).result(function(event, data, formatted) { if (data) { adding.find(".UNITPRICE").html(data[1]); adding.find(".PRODUCTID").val(data[2]); adding.find(".TOTALPRICE").html(data[1] * $('.UNITQUANTITY').val()); } }); return false; }); $('#RemoveProduct').click(function() { $().remove(); return false; }); my html: <fieldset> <h2>Order Items</h2> <div id="OrderProducts"> <a href="#" id="AddProduct"><img src="icons/add.png" alt="Add" /></a> </div> </fieldset> edit Now I totaly messed it up. Removing a row is not working anymore as well... Test link: http://refinethetaste.com/html/cp/?Section=orders&Process=AddOrder#

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  • casting, converting, and input from textbox controls

    - by Matt
    Working on some .aspx.cs code and decided I would forget how to turn a textbox value into a useable integer or decimal. Be warned I'm pretty new to .asp. Wish I could say the same for c sharp. So the value going into my textbox (strawberryp_textbox) is "1" which I presume I can access with the .text property. Which I then parse into a int. The Error reads Format Exception was unhandled by user code. My other question is can I do operations on a session variable? protected void submit_order_button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int strawberryp; int strawberrys; decimal money1 = decimal.Parse(moneybox1.Text); decimal money2 = decimal.Parse(moneybox2.Text); decimal money3 = decimal.Parse(moneybox3.Text); decimal money4 = decimal.Parse(moneybox4.Text); decimal money5 = decimal.Parse(moneybox5.Text); strawberryp = int.Parse(strawberryp_Textbox.Text); //THE PROBLEM RIGHT HERE! strawberrys = int.Parse(strawberrys_Textbox.Text); // Needs fixed int strawberryc = int.Parse(strawberryc_Textbox.Text); //fix int berryp = int.Parse(berryp_Textbox.Text); //fix int raspberryp = int.Parse(raspberryp_Textbox.Text); /fix decimal subtotal = (money1 * strawberryp) + (money2 * strawberrys) + (money3 * strawberryc) + (money4 * berryp) + (money5 * raspberryp); //check to see if you can multiply decimal and int to get a deciaml!! Session["passmysubtotal"] = subtotal; //TextBox2.Text; (strawberryp_Textbox.Text);//TextBox4.Text; add_my_order_button.Enabled = true; add_my_order_button.Visible = true; submit_order_button.Enabled = false; submit_order_button.Visible = false; strawberryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; strawberrys_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; strawberryc_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; berryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; raspberryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; Response.Redirect("reciept.aspx"); } Thanks for the help

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  • How to keep multiple connectionString passwords safe, separate, and easy to deploy?

    - by Funka
    I know there are plenty of questions here already about this topic (I've read through as many as I could find), but I haven't yet been able to figure out how best to satisfy my particular criteria. Here are the goals: The ASP.NET application will run on a few different web servers, including localhost workstations for development. This means encrypting web.config using a machine key is out. The application will decide which connection string to use based on the server name (using a switch statement). For example, "localhost" and "dev.example.com" will use the DevDatabaseConnectionString, "test.example.com" will use the TestDatabaseConnectionString, and "www.example.com" will use the ProdDatabaseConnectionString, for example. Ideally, the exact same executables and web.config should be able to run on any of these environments, without needing to tailor or configure each environment separately every time that we deploy (something that seems like it would be easy to forget/mess up one day during a deployment, which is why we moved away from having just one connectionstring that has to be changed on each target). Deployment is currently accomplished via FTP. We will not have command-line access to the production web server. This means using aspnet_regiis.exe is out. (I could run on localhost, however, if this would still work.) We would prefer to not have to recompile the application whenever a password changes, so using web.config (or db.config or whatever) seems to make the most sense. A developer should not be able to decrypt the production database password. If a developer checks the source code out onto their localhost laptop (which would determine that it should be using the DevDatabaseConnectionString, remember?) and the laptop gets lost or stolen, it should not be possible to get at the other connection strings. Thus, having a single RSA private key to un-encrypt all three passwords cannot be considered. (Contrary to #3 above, it does seem like we'd need to have three separate key files if we went this route; these could be installed once per machine, and should the wrong key file get deployed to the wrong server, the worst that should happen is that the app can't decrypt anything---and not allow the wrong host to access the wrong database!) I know this is probably a subjective question (asking for a "best" way to do something), but given the criteria I've mentioned, I'm hoping that a single best answer will indeed arise. Thank you!

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 AJAX dilemma: Lose Models concept or create unmanageable JavaScript

    - by Slightly Frustrated
    Hi, Ok, let's assume we are working with ASP.NET MVC 2 (latest and greatest preview) and we want to create AJAX user interface with jQuery. So what are our real options here? Option 1 - Pass Json from the Controller to the view, and then the view submits Json back to the controller. This means (in the order given): User opens some View (let's say - /Invoices/January) which has to visualize a list of data (e.g. <IEnumerable<X.Y.Z.Models.Invoice>>) Controller retrieves the Model from the repository (assuming we are using repository pattern). Controller creates a new instance of a class which we will serialize to Json. The reasaon we do this, is because the model may not be serializable (circular reference ftl) Controller populates the soon-to-be-serialized class with data Controller serializes the class to Json and passes it the view. User does some change and submits the 'form' The View submits back Json to the controller The Controller now must 'manually' validate the input, because the Json passed does not bind to a Model See, if our View is communicating to the controller via Json, we lose the Model validation, which IMHO is incredible disadvantage. In this case, forget about data annotations and stuff. Option 2 - Ok, the alternative of the first approach is to pass the Models to the Views, which is the default behavior in the template when you start a new project. We pass a strong typed model to the view The view renders the appropriate html and javascript, sticking to the model property names. This is important! The user submits the form. If we stick to the model names, when we .serialize() the form and submit it to the controller it will map to a model. There is no Json mapping. The submitted form directly binds to a strongly typed model, hence, we can use the model validation. E.g. we keep the business logic where it should be. Problem with this approach is, if we refactor some of the Models (change property names, types, etc), the javascript we wrote would become invalid. We will have to manually refactor the scripting and hope we don't miss something. There is no way you can test it either. Ok, the question is - how to write an AJAX front end, which keeps the business logic validation in the model (e.g. controller passes and receives a Model type), but in the same time doesn't screw up the javascript and html when we refactor the model?

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  • Constructor versus setter injection

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm currently designing an API where I wish to allow configuration via a variety of methods. One method is via an XML configuration schema and another method is through an API that I wish to play nicely with Spring. My XML schema parsing code was previously hidden and therefore the only concern was for it to work but now I wish to build a public API and I'm quite concerned about best-practice. It seems that many favor javabean type PoJo's with default zero parameter constructors and then setter injection. The problem I am trying to tackle is that some setter methods implementations are dependent on other setter methods being called before them in sequence. I could write anal setters that will tolerate themselves being called in many orders but that will not solve the problem of a user forgetting to set the appropriate setter and therefore the bean being in an incomplete state. The only solution I can think of is to forget about the objects being 'beans' and enforce the required parameters via constructor injection. An example of this is in the default setting of the id of a component based on the id of the parent components. My Interface public interface IMyIdentityInterface { public String getId(); /* A null value should create a unique meaningful default */ public void setId(String id); public IMyIdentityInterface getParent(); public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent); } Base Implementation of interface: public abstract class MyIdentityBaseClass implements IMyIdentityInterface { private String _id; private IMyIdentityInterface _parent; public MyIdentityBaseClass () {} @Override public String getId() { return _id; } /** * If the id is null, then use the id of the parent component * appended with a lower-cased simple name of the current impl * class along with a counter suffix to enforce uniqueness */ @Override public void setId(String id) { if (id == null) { IMyIdentityInterface parent = getParent(); if (parent == null) { // this may be the top level component or it may be that // the user called setId() before setParent(..) } else { _id = Helpers.makeIdFromParent(parent,getClass()); } } else { _id = id; } } @Override public IMyIdentityInterface getParent() { return _parent; } @Override public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent) { _parent = parent; } } Every component in the framework will have a parent except for the top level component. Using the setter type of injection, then the setters will have different behavior based on the order of the calling of the setters. In this case, would you agree, that a constructor taking a reference to the parent is better and dropping the parent setter method from the interface entirely? Is it considered bad practice if I wish to be able to configure these components using an IoC container? Chris

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  • PSU failing or Mainboard failing?

    - by Andrei Rinea
    I am having some troubles lately powering on my desktop workstation. While starting up the PC after being off for hours (usually at least 8 hours) it randomly fails to do so. What happens is that : I press the power button; nothing happens I can hear a moderate buzzing noise at the back of the PC (near the PSU); but I can't say for sure that it's not from the mainboard. If I insist pressing the power button a few times in 1-2 minutes it'll start Another route would be that instead of (3) I will plug off the power cable from the PSU and wait for 30 seconds. Then I will press the power on and keep it for 30-60 seconds (I had some success at notebooks with a similar approach). Then I will plug back the cable in the PSU, press only once the power button and it will start normally. Also while running normally I keep hearing some low buzzing which seems to be fan-RPM-related (i.e. when processing images or doing CPU intensive work). What should I look into? UPDATE It's getting worse. It took more than 10 retries today and almost 20 minutes to start the computer. I tried the paperclip trick and the PSU behaves perfectly. I managed to start the computer like so : I pressed the on-button a few times and then left the PC in a pre-startup state (the fans were working the buzzing noise was strong and I went to eat. I thought I won't lit the house on fire so fast and without smelling. Back, after 10-15 min the computer booted up! Discussed with a fellow at Intel and he told me the capacitors on the mainboard are probably a bit shot. If they are shot, he said, it should start up warm perfectly. So I did restart it, warm, a few times (5 sec cooldown and then 40 sec cooldown and it started up perfectly). I can either replace the capacitors on the mainboard (doesn't sound worth it or replace the mainboard (this one sucks too :)) ) FINAL INFO : It was the PSU after all. Although it was powering the IDEs and SATAs the Mainboard power module was failing. I bought another mainboard just to find out that this wasn't the cause. Now I'll have to return it somehow. The spare PSU is now in the computer and doing well.. Although larger (500W), it's like a plane taking off.. I need a better one.

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  • Send Mail through Jsp page.

    - by sourabhtaletiya
    hi friends ,i have tried alot to send mail via jsp page but i am not succeded. A error is coming javax.servlet.ServletException: 530 5.7.0 Must issue a STARTTLS command first. x1sm5029316wbx.19 <html> <head> <title>JSP JavaMail Example </title> </head> <body> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.mail.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.mail.internet.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.activation.*" %> <% java.security.Security.addProvider(new com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.Provider()); Properties props = System.getProperties(); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.required","true"); String host = "smtp.gmail.com"; String to = request.getParameter("to"); String from = request.getParameter("from"); String subject = request.getParameter("subject"); String messageText = request.getParameter("body"); boolean sessionDebug = false; props.put("mail.smtp.host", "smtp.gmail.com"); props.put("mail.transport.protocol", "smtp"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "25"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.debug", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port","25"); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); Session mailSession = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); mailSession.setDebug(sessionDebug); Message msg = new MimeMessage(mailSession); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); msg.setFrom(new InternetAddress(from)); InternetAddress[] address = {new InternetAddress(to)}; msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, address); msg.setSubject(subject); msg.setSentDate(new Date()); msg.setText(messageText); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); Transport tr = mailSession.getTransport("smtp"); tr.connect(host, "sourabh.web7", "june251989"); msg.saveChanges(); // don't forget this props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); tr.sendMessage(msg, msg.getAllRecipients()); tr.close(); // Transport.send(msg); /* out.println("Mail was sent to " + to); out.println(" from " + from); out.println(" using host " + host + ".");*/ %> </table> </body> </html>

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  • mac + parallels and https site test = router restarts

    - by Erik
    Ok I have an interesting & very frustrating problem happening. I'm going to explain it the best I can. I work as a graphic designer & web designer on a mac and have a Comcast internet connection that comes through a Comcast branded router (SMC8014) which then ties into an Airport Extreme Base Station which runs my office network. I run OS 10.5.7 and also run Parallels 4.0.3 (running Windows XP) for testing websites in Internet Explorer and so on. Ok, so that the basic background. Here's my issue. I've been collaborating an ecommerce website with another designer/developer and when testing the site on the PC side we have started to run into some sort of network problem. The site is https if that matters at all I suspect it may. Basically when I run parallels for testing I am constantly having to restart the router in order to connect to the test site (it's hosted). Funny thing is I can access the rest of the internet fine, just not this site I'm working on until I restart the router (It's sorta like the site is timing out). This never happens when just running the Mac side of things. It only becomes an issue when Parallels is open and I am doing page refreshes while making css or HTML edits via something like Coda or CSS edit (connected to the hosting server via ftp). The real problem is that once the problem starts I only get about 2 or 3 page loads before I have to restart the router again. It's absolutely crippling. I cannot get any work done when I have to restart the router every couple of minutes. So, if you think this problem is isolated to me, the answer is no. The designer/developer I'm collaborating with has an office a couple miles away and experiences very similar problems under slightly different setup. He also has Comcast as his internet provider and connects his router to an Airport and primarily works on a mac. The main difference is that rather than using a visualizer like parallels to test the website on the PC he uses a real live PC that is on his network. Once he fire up the PC to do testing he runs into the same issue described above. After a couple of page refreshes in Internet Explorer or other browser on the PC the site becomes unresponsive and the router has to get restarted. Any thoughts on what is going on here would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • Preventing 'Reply-All' to Exchange Distribution Groups

    - by Larold
    This is another question in a short series regarding a challenging Exchange project my co-workers have been asked to implement. (I'm helping even though I'm primarily a Unix guy because I volunteered to learn powershell and implement as much of the project in code as I could.) Background: We have been asked to create many distribution groups, say about 500+. These groups will contain two types of members. (Apologies if I get these terms wrong.) One type will be internal AD users, and the other type will be external users that I create Mail Contact entries for. We have been asked to make it so that a "Reply All" is not possible to any messages sent to these groups. I don't believe that is 100% possible to enforce for the following reasons. My question is - is my following reasoning sound? If not, please feel free to educate me on if / how things can properly be implemeneted. Thanks! My reasoning on why it's impossible to prevent 100% of potential reply-all actions: An interal AD user could put the DL in their To: field. They then click the '+' to expand the group. The group contains two external mail contacts. The message is sent to everyone, including those external contacts. External user #1 decides to reply-all, and his mail goes to, at least, external user #2, which wouldn't even involve our Exchange mail relays. An internal AD user could place the DL in their Outlook To: field, then click the '+' button to expand the DL. They then fire off an email to everyone that was in the group. (But the individual addresses are listed in the 'To:' field.) Because we now have a message sent to multiple recipients in the To: field, the addresses have been "exposed", and anyone is free to reply-all, and the messages just get sent to everyone in the To: field. Even if we try to set a Reply-To: field for all of these DLs, external mail clients are not obligated to abide by it, or force users to abide by it. Are my two points above valid? (I admit, they are somewhat similar.) Am I correct to tell our leadership "It is not possible to prevent 100% of the cases where someone will want to Reply-All to these groups UNLESS we train the users sending emails to these groups that the Bcc: field is to be used at all times." I am dying for any insight or parts of the equation I'm not seeing clearly. Thank you!!!

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  • user defined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programmers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D EDIT : more info : typedef ParticleId unsigned int; Particle has no user defined copyctor, but has a member of type : Particle { .... Resource<Texture> tex_res; ... } Resource is a smart-pointer class, and has all ctor's defined (also asignment operator) and it seems that Resource is copied bitwise. EDIT : henrik solved it... data(data) is stupid of course ! it should of course be rhs.data !!! sorry for huge amount of code, with a very little bug in it !!! (Guess you shouldn't code at 1 in the morning :D )

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  • Ajax problem after deleting a div, then creating a new one

    - by Matt Nathanson
    I'm building a custom CMS where you can add and delete clients using ajax and jquery 1.4.2. My problem lies after I delete a div. The ajax is used to complete this and refresh automatically.. But when I go to create a new div (without a hard refresh) it puts it back in the slot of the div I just deleted. How can I get this to completely forget about the div i just deleted and place the new div in the next database table? link for reference: http://staging.sneakattackmedia.com/cms/ //Add New client // function AddNewClient() { dataToLoad = 'addClient=yes'; $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '/clients/controller.php', datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, target: ('#clientssidebar'), async: false, success: function(html){ $(this).click(function() {reInitialize()}); //$('#clientssidebar').html(html); $('div#' + clientID).slideDown(800); $(this).click(function() { ExpandSidebar()});}, error: function() { alert('An error occured! 222');} });}; //Delete Client // function DeleteClient(){ var yes = confirm("Whoa there chief! Do you really want to DELETE this client?"); if (yes == 1) { dataToLoad = 'clientID=' + clientID + '&deleteClient=yes', $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '/clients/controller.php', datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, success: function(html) { alert('Client' + clientID + ' should have been deleted from the database.'); $(this).click(function() {reInitialize()}); $('div#' +clientID).slideUp(800); }, error: function() { alert('error'); }});};}; //Re Initialize // function reInitialize() { $('#addnew').click(function() {AddNewClient()}); $('.deletebutton').click(function() {clientID = $(this).parent().attr('id'); DeleteClient()}) $('.clientblock').click(function() {clientID = $(this).attr('id'); ExpandSidebar()});}; //Document Ready // $(document).ready(function(){ if ($('isCMS')){ editCMS = 1; $('.deletebutton').click(function() {clientID = $(this).parent().attr('id'); DeleteClient()}); $('#addnew').click(function() {AddNewClient()}); $('.clientblock').click(function() {clientID = $(this).attr('id'); ExpandSidebar()}); $('.clientblock').click(function() {if (clickClient ==true) { $(this).css('background-image', 'url(/images/highlightclient.png)'); $(this).css('margin-left' , '30px'); }; $(this).click(function(){ $(this).css('background-image', ''); }); $('.uploadbutton').click(function(){UploadThings()}); }); } else ($('#clientscontainer')) { $('#editbutton').css('display', 'none'); }; }); Please help!!!

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  • iphone problem receiving UDP packets

    - by SooDesuNe
    I'm using sendto() and recvfrom() to send some simple packets via UDP over WiFI. I've tried using two phones, and a simulator, the results I'm getting are: Packets sent from phones - recieved by simulator Packets sent from simulator - simulator recvfrom remains blocking. Packets sent from phones - other phone recvfrom remains blocking. I'm not sure how to start debugging this one, since the simulator/mac is able to receive the the packets, but the phones don't appear to be getting the message. A slight aside, do I need to keep my packets below the MTU for my network? Or is fragmentation handled by the OS or some other lower level software? UPDATE: I forgot to include the packet size and structure. I'm transmitting: typedef struct PacketForTransmission { int32_t packetTypeIdentifier; char data[64]; // size to fit my biggest struct } PacketForTransmission; of which the char data[64] is: typedef struct PacketHeader{ uint32_t identifier; uint32_t datatype; } PacketHeader; typedef struct BasePacket{ PacketHeader header; int32_t cardValue; char sendingDeviceID[41]; //dont forget to save room for the NULL terminator! } BasePacket; typedef struct PositionPacket{ BasePacket basePacket; int32_t x; int32_t y; } PositionPacket; sending packet is like: PositionPacket packet; bzero(&packet, sizeof(packet)); //fill packet with it's associated data PacketForTransmission transmissionPacket; transmissionPacket.packetTypeIdentifier = kPositionPacketType; memcpy(&transmissionPacket.data, (void*)&packet, sizeof(packet)); //put the PositionPacket into data[64] size_t sendResult = sendto(_socket, &transmissionPacket, sizeof(transmissionPacket), 0, [address bytes], [address length]); NSLog(@"packet sent of size: %i", sendResult); and recieving packets is like: while(1){ char dataBuffer[8192]; struct sockaddr addr; socklen_t socklen = sizeof(addr); ssize_t len = recvfrom(_socket, dataBuffer, sizeof(dataBuffer), 0, &addr, &socklen); //continues blocking here NSLog(@"packet recieved of length: %i", len); //do some more stuff }

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  • File copying software to do this kind of work... in Windows 7 32 bit

    - by Senthil
    I need a software (Windows 7 32bit) to help me in this process: I have my documents, music, video clips, movies, pictures in my hard disk. These will not be scattered around the system. But will be inside C:\Senthil\ At the end of every week, I want to plug in an external hard disk and run a software that should make sure whatever is inside C:\Senthil\ is also present in the external disk. Files deleted from C:\Senthil\ should be deleted there, and new files should be copied etc... at the end of the process, every bit inside the source folder in my internal disk should be inside my external disk. A couple of important requirements and points: I do NOT need multiple versions or historic versions. I don't need the previous versions of my files. I only want the latest copy to be present in my "backup". Incremental backup makes sense. If files were not touched since the last backup, it need not copy. The size of my folder will run into GBs and in a year or two will go into TBs. But I will make sure the size of the external HDD is equal to or bigger than my source folder. I do not want it to run automatically because when I accidentally delete a file in my source, it will delete the one in the backup (I know this is why we have versioning facilities). I just want to be able to run it manually so that I am in control of when the backup is made and what is backed up and I should be able to pick something from the backup and restore it to the source folder in the above situation. Is there any software that will let me do exactly this? I don't want any other "smart" facility of the software to interfere with this process. I know what I want and the software can keep its smartness to itself :D The main reason I am asking this question is, I am a software developer and I can write this software myself. But I am a little constrained by time at the moment and I want to know if there is an existing program that can do this. Kindly don't worry about earthquakes or fire or snowstorms and bring up the "in case of a natural disaster your backup will also be in the damage zone and will be lost" argument because: I will have bigger things to worry about than my holiday memories. I don't think I will digitally store any life-ruining documents. This backup is only to avoid the inconvenience of obtaining a new copy of stuff that I have. Not to protect them against the end of the world. I am more worried about power surges in my area frying my system, hard disk failure, children who merrily hit Delete or teens who hit Shift + Delete or myself getting a little careless at times! In short: Is there a file/folder syncing software that listens to what I say and doesn't try to act smart? Please forgive me if I sound arrogant :)

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  • how to get $form_state outside of FAPI's functions?

    - by logii
    I'm writing a custom module and I'd like to use $form_state of the current form in another non-form api function - custom_facet_view_build(). any help is appreciated :) <?php /** * Implementation of hook_perm(). */ function custom_facet_perm() { return array( 'access foo content', 'access baz content', ); } /** * Implementation of hook_menu(). */ function custom_facet_menu() { $items['faceted-search'] = array( 'title' => 'Faceted Search', 'page callback' => 'drupal_get_form', 'access arguments' => array(), ); $items['facet-search-test'] = array( 'page callback' => 'drupal_get_form', 'page arguments' => array('custom_facet_form'), 'access callback' => TRUE, 'type' => MENU_CALLBACK, ); return $items; } /** * Form definition; ahah_helper_demo form. */ function custom_facet_form($form_state) { $form = array(); ahah_helper_register($form, $form_state); if (isset($form_state['storage']['categories'])) { $categories_default_value = $form_state['storage']['categories']["#value"]; } $form['facet_search_form'] = array( '#type' => 'fieldset', '#title' => t('Faceted Search'), '#prefix' => '<div id="billing-info-wrapper">', // This is our wrapper div. '#suffix' => '</div>', '#tree' => TRUE, // Don't forget to set #tree! ); $form['facet_search_form']['categories'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#title' => t('Category'), '#options' => _custom_facet_taxonomy_query(1), '#multiple' => TRUE, '#default_value' => $categories_default_value, ); $form['save'] = array( '#type' => 'submit', '#value' => t('Save'), ); return $form; } /** * Validate callback for the form. */ function custom_facet_form_validate($form, &$form_state) { } /** * Submit callback for the form. */ function custom_facet_form_submit($form, &$form_state) { drupal_set_message('nothing done'); $form_state['storage']['categories'] = $form['facet_search_form']['categories']; // dpm($form_state); // There's a value returned in form_state['storage] within this function } /** * Implementation of hook_views_api(). */ function custom_facet_views_api() { return array( 'api' => 2, ); } function custom_facet_view_build(&$view) { dpm($form_state); // form_state['storage] remains NULL even though there's a value on previous submission }

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  • When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

    - by Steven Lu
    I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

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  • Installing and configuring Zend Framework 2 server-wide [Ubuntu] and test driving ZendSkeletonApplication

    - by kinologik
    I'm trying to have ZF2 installed for all my subdomains at once (Ubuntu 12.04). ZF2 just launched its first stable version, so I wanted to install it on my development server and finally get my hands dirty with it. I downloaded ZF2 and unzipped the files in /var/ZF2/ (which now contains Zend/[all components]). I then edited /etc/php5/apache2/php.ini and added the path to the ZF2 files: include_path = ".:/var/ZF2" I then downloaded the ZendSkeletonApplication and unzipped it in /var/www/skeleton. I know it is suggested to composer.phar to install ZF2 application, but: I don't want to make a local installation of ZF2... I want to make a server-wide installation be able to use my Zend components on all my domains/subdomains on my development server. Before using any automatic installation process, I'd really like to understand that process by doing it manually at first. Obviously, something goes wrong when I fire ZendSkeletonApplication, and I get the following when hit the following URL: http://www.myDevServer.com/skeleton/public/ Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'RuntimeException' with message 'Unable to load ZF2. Run `php composer.phar install` or define a ZF2_PATH environment variable.' in /var/www/skeleton/init_autoloader.php:48 Stack trace: #0 /var/www/skeleton/public/index.php(9): include() #1 {main} thrown in /var/www/skeleton/init_autoloader.php on line 48 I have skimmed through the docs, tutorials and the like, but there are no straight forward answer to this kind of configuration. In the official doc, in the (very short) installation chapter, I see a reference to adding an include path in PHP. But no example... http://zf2.readthedocs.org/en/latest/ref/installation.html Once you have a copy of Zend Framework available, your application needs to be able to access the framework classes found in the library folder. Though there are several ways to achieve this, your PHP include_path needs to contain the path to Zend Framework’s library. But then, when I get to the "Getting Started" chapter, it's all composer.phar and nothing else... http://zf2.readthedocs.org/en/latest/user-guide/skeleton-application.html I'm no sysAdmin, just a Zend enthusiast. I'm pretty sure this PEBKAC problem might be obvious for those who already got in ZF2 previous betas. Thanks for helping my out. EDIT: Problem was resolved, thanks to Daniel M. Just setting up ZF2_PATH in httpd.conf was all that was needed. SetEnv ZF2_PATH /var/ZF2 I also removed the include_path reference in php.ini and everything works just fine. So I have no idea why Zend suggested to include it there in their official docs.

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  • MySQL forgot about automatically creating an index for a foreign key?

    - by bobo
    After running the following SQL statements, you will see that, MySQL has automatically created the non-unique index question_tag_tag_id_tag_id on the tag_id column for me after the first ALTER TABLE statement has run. But after the second ALTER TABLE statement has run, I think MySQL should also automatically create another non-unique index question_tag_question_id_question_id on the question_id column for me. But as you can see from the SHOW INDEXES statement output, it's not there. Why does MySQL forget about the second ALTER TABLE statement? By the way, since I have already created a unique index question_id_tag_id_idx used by both question_id and tag_id columns. Is creating a separate index for each of them redundant? mysql> DROP DATABASE mydatabase; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) mysql> CREATE DATABASE mydatabase; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) mysql> USE mydatabase; Database changed mysql> CREATE TABLE question (id BIGINT AUTO_INCREMENT, html TEXT, PRIMARY KEY(id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.05 sec) mysql> CREATE TABLE tag (id BIGINT AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(10) NOT NULL, UNIQUE INDEX name_idx (name), PRIMARY KEY(id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.05 sec) mysql> CREATE TABLE question_tag (question_id BIGINT, tag_id BIGINT, UNIQUE INDEX question_id_tag_id_idx (question_id, tag_id), PRIMARY KEY(question_id, tag_id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> ALTER TABLE question_tag ADD CONSTRAINT question_tag_tag_id_tag_id FOREIGN KEY (tag_id) REFERENCES tag(id); Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.10 sec) Records: 0 Duplicates: 0 Warnings: 0 mysql> ALTER TABLE question_tag ADD CONSTRAINT question_tag_question_id_question_id FOREIGN KEY (question_id) REFERENCES question(id); Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.13 sec) Records: 0 Duplicates: 0 Warnings: 0 mysql> SHOW INDEXES FROM question_tag; +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ | Table | Non_unique | Key_name | Seq_in_index | Column_name | Collation | Cardinality | Sub_part | Packed | Null | Index_type | Comment | +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ | question_tag | 0 | PRIMARY | 1 | question_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | PRIMARY | 2 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | question_id_tag_id_idx | 1 | question_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | question_id_tag_id_idx | 2 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 1 | question_tag_tag_id_tag_id | 1 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) mysql>

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  • Why do sockets not die when server dies? Why does a socket die when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • XML serialization options in .NET

    - by Borek
    I'm building a service that returns an XML (no SOAP, no ATOM, just plain old XML). Say that I have my domain objects already filled with data and just need to transform them to the XML format. What options do I have on .NET? Requirements: The transformation is not 1:1. Say that I have an Address property of type Address with nested properties like Line1, City, Postcode etc. This may need to result in an XML like <xaddr city="...">Line1, Postcode</xaddr>, i.e. quite different. Some XML elements/attributes are conditional, for example, if a Customer is under 18, the XML needs to contain some additional information. I only need to serialize the objects to XML, the other direction (XML to objects) is not important Some technologies, i.e. Data Contracts use .NET attributes. Other means of configuration (external XML config, buddy classes etc.) would be a plus. Here are the options as I see them as the moment. Corrections / additions will be very welcome. String concatenation - forget it, it was a joke :) Linq 2 XML - complete control but quite a lot of hand written code, would need good suite of unit tests View engines in ASP.NET MVC (or even Web Forms theoretically), the logic being in controllers. It's a question how to structure it, I can have simple rules engine in my controller(s) and one view template per each possible output, or have the decision logic directly in the template. Both have upsides and downsides. XML Serialization - I'm not sure about the flexibility here Data Contracts from WCF - not sure about the flexibility either, plus would they work in a simple ASP.NET MVC app (non-WCF service)? Are they a super-set of the standard XML serialization now? If it exists, some XML-to-object mapper. The more I think about it the more I think I'm looking for something like this but I couldn't find anything appropriate. Any comments / other options?

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  • Why sockets does not die when server dies? Why socket dies when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • HttpWebRequest possibly slowing website

    - by Steven Smith
    Using Visual studio 2012, C#.net 4.5 , SQL Server 2008, Feefo, Nopcommerce Hey guys I have Recently implemented a new review service into a current site we have. When the change went live the first day all worked fine. Since then though the sending of sales to Feefo hasnt been working, There are no logs either of anything going wrong. In the OrderProcessingService.cs in Nop Commerce's Service, i call a HttpWebrequest when an order has been confirmed as completed. Here is the code. var email = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.Email.ToString()); var name = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.GetFullName().ToString()); var description = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription != null ? productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription.ToString() : "product"); var orderRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Id.ToString()); var productLink = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(string.Format("myurl/p/{0}/{1}", productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId, productVariant.ProductVariant.Name.Replace(" ", "-"))); string itemRef = ""; try { itemRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId.ToString()); } catch { itemRef = "0"; } var url = string.Format("feefo Url", login, password,email,name,description,orderRef,productLink,itemRef); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.KeepAlive = false; request.Timeout = 5000; request.Proxy = null; using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { if (response.StatusDescription == "OK") { var stream = response.GetResponseStream(); if(stream != null) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { var content = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } } } So as you can see its a simple webrequest that is processed on an order, and all product variants are sent to feefo. Now: this hasnt been happening all week since the 15th (day of the implementation) the site has been grinding to a halt recently. The stream and reader in the the var content is there for debugging. Im wondering does the code redflag anything to you that could relate to the process of website? Also note i have run some SQL statements to see if there is any deadlocks or large escalations, so far seems fine, Logs have also been fine just the usual logging of Bots. Any help would be much appreciated! EDIT: also note that this code is in a method that is called and wrapped in A try catch UPDATE: well forget about the "not sending", thats because i was just told my code was rolled back last week

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  • What alternatives do I have for source control and does GIT does that?

    - by RubberDuck
    I work as a freelancer programmer for some clients and also create apps for myself. When I work for myself, obviously I work alone. I generally don't work in a linear way. My big problems today are: I have a lot of apps that use the same classes I have developed; In the past, I put all these common classes on a directory outside all projects and included them on my apps using absolute paths, but this method sucks because by accident (if you forget) you may change a path or the disk and all projects are broken. Then I decided to copy those classes to my projects every time. Because the majority of these classes do not change frequently, I am relatively ok, but when they change, I am in hell; When I change one of these classes I have to propagate the changes to all other apps using copies of them. I have also tried to create frameworks but thanks to Apple, I cannot create frameworks for iOS and have to create libraries and bundles and create a nightmare of paths from one to the other and to the project to make that sh!t works. So, I am done with frameworks/libraries on Xcode until Xcode is a decent IDE. So, I see I need something better to manage my source code. What I need is this (I never used GIT on Xcode. I have read Apple docs but I still have these points): does git locally on Xcode allows me to deal with assets or just code? Can I have the equivalent of a "framework" (code + assets) managed by git locally? Can an entire xcodeproj be managed as a unity? I mean, Suppose I have a xcodeproj created and want GIT to manage it. How do I enable git on a project that was created without it and start designating files for management. (I have enabled git on Xcode's preferences, but all source control menu is grayed out). Is git the best option? Do I have another? Remember that my main condition is that the files should stay on the local computer. Please save me (I am a bit dramatic today). Thanks.

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  • When mocking a class with Moq, how can I CallBase for just specific methods?

    - by Daryn
    I really appreciate Moq's Loose mocking behaviour that returns default values when no expectations are set. It's convenient and saves me code, and it also acts as a safety measure: dependencies won't get unintentionally called during the unit test (as long as they are virtual). However, I'm confused about how to keep these benefits when the method under test happens to be virtual. In this case I do want to call the real code for that one method, while still having the rest of the class loosely mocked. All I have found in my searching is that I could set mock.CallBase = true to ensure that the method gets called. However, that affects the whole class. I don't want to do that because it puts me in a dilemma about all the other properties and methods in the class that hide call dependencies: if CallBase is true then I have to either Setup stubs for all of the properties and methods that hide dependencies -- Even though my test doesn't think it needs to care about those dependencies, or Hope that I don't forget to Setup any stubs (and that no new dependencies get added to the code in the future) -- Risk unit tests hitting a real dependency. Q: With Moq, is there any way to test a virtual method, when I mocked the class to stub just a few dependencies? I.e. Without resorting to CallBase=true and having to stub all of the dependencies? Example code to illustrate (uses MSTest, InternalsVisibleTo DynamicProxyGenAssembly2) In the following example, TestNonVirtualMethod passes, but TestVirtualMethod fails - returns null. public class Foo { public string NonVirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA(); } public virtual string VirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA();} internal virtual string GetDependencyA() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency A !"; } // [... Possibly many other dependencies ...] internal virtual string GetDependencyN() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency N !"; } } [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [TestMethod] public void TestNonVirtualMethod() { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); string result = mockFoo.Object.NonVirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } [TestMethod] public void TestVirtualMethod() // Fails { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); // (I don't want to setup GetDependencyB ... GetDependencyN here) string result = mockFoo.Object.VirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } string expectedResultString = "Hit mock dependency A - OK"; }

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  • Force deletion of slot in boost::signals2

    - by villintehaspam
    Hi! I have found that boost::signals2 uses sort of a lazy deletion of connected slots, which makes it difficult to use connections as something that manages lifetimes of objects. I am looking for a way to force slots to be deleted directly when disconnected. Any ideas on how to work around the problem by designing my code differently are also appreciated! This is my scenario: I have a Command class responsible for doing something that takes time asynchronously, looking something like this (simplified): class ActualWorker { public: boost::signals2<void ()> OnWorkComplete; }; class Command : boost::enable_shared_from_this<Command> { public: ... void Execute() { m_WorkerConnection = m_MyWorker.OnWorkDone.connect(boost::bind(&Command::Handle_OnWorkComplete, shared_from_this()); // launch asynchronous work here and return } boost::signals2<void ()> OnComplete; private: void Handle_OnWorkComplete() { // get a shared_ptr to ourselves to make sure that we live through // this function but don't keep ourselves alive if an exception occurs. shared_ptr<Command> me = shared_from_this(); // Disconnect from the signal, ideally deleting the slot object m_WorkerConnection.disconnect(); OnComplete(); // the shared_ptr now goes out of scope, ideally deleting this } ActualWorker m_MyWorker; boost::signals2::connection m_WorkerConnection; }; The class is invoked about like this: ... boost::shared_ptr<Command> cmd(new Command); cmd->OnComplete.connect( foo ); cmd->Execute(); // now go do something else, forget all about the cmd variable etcetera. the Command class keeps itself alive by getting a shared_ptr to itself which is bound to the ActualWorker signal using boost::bind. When the worker completes, the handler in Command is invoked. Now, since I would like the Command object to be destroyed, I disconnect from the signal as can be seen in the code above. The problem is that the actual slot object is not deleted when disconnected, it is only marked as invalid and then deleted at a later time. This in turn appears to depend on the signal to fire again, which it doesn't do in my case, leading to the slot never expiring. The boost::bind object thus never goes out of scope, holding a shared_ptr to my object that will never get deleted. I can work around this by binding using the this pointer instead of a shared_ptr and then keeping my object alive using a member shared_ptr which I then release in the handler function, but it kind of makes the design feel a bit overcomplicated. Is there a way to force signals2 to delete the slot when disconnecting? Or is there something else I could do to simplify the design? Any comments are appreciated!

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