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• There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/...

  - by virsum

  I have two WCF services hosted in a single Windows Service on a Windows Server 2003 machine. If the Windows service needs to access either of the WCF services (like when a timed event occurs), it uses one of the five named pipe endpoints exposed (different service contracts). The service also exposes HTTP MetadataExchange endpoints for each of the two services, and net.tcp endpoints for consumers external to the server. Usually things work great, but every once in a while I get an error message that looks something like this: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing that could accept the message. This is often caused by an incorrect address or SOAP action. See InnerException, if present, for more details. --- System.IO.PipeException: The pipe endpoint 'net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing' could not be found on your local machine. --- End of inner exception stack trace --- Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.PipeConnectionInitiator.GetPipeName(Uri uri) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.NamedPipeConnectionPoolRegistry.NamedPipeConnectionPool.GetPoolKey(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ConnectionPoolHelper.EstablishConnection(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientFramingDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOpenOnce.System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.ICallOnce.Call(ServiceChannel channel, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOnceManager.CallOnce(TimeSpan timeout, CallOnceManager cascade) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EnsureOpened(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) It doesn't happen reliably, which is maddening because I can't repeat it when I want to. In my windows service I also have some timed events and some file listeners, but these are fairly infrequent events. Does anyone have any ideas why I might be encountering an issue? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Using jQuery tools from within GWT -- is there a way to allow exchanges?

  - by culov

  I have a GWT web-app with a nearly full page Google map window. Inside the the map, I have infowindows which include links. What I want to do is use jquery tools overlays (http://flowplayer.org/tools/overlay/apple.html) to open the overlay and display it on top of the map once the link inside the info window is clicked. Now, the link source is generated dynamically, and it is hosted on a different server, so i have to open it in an iframe and set the source of the iframe before it opens. this seems simple enough since i only have 1 iframe on the page: function changeSource(url){ $("#menuIFrame").attr("src",url); } To call this before opening the overlay (which is done on mouse release), i create the following element in the google maps infowindow via GWT: <a href="http://whatever.com/menu/" onClick="changeSource('http://whatever.com/menu/');" rel=#menu"> View menu </a> Jquery tools works by opening whatever div has the id assigned to the value of 'rel', but because i have my javascript/jquery on my LandingPage.html in GWT, there appears to be some sort of disconnect between the two because the changeSource function is never called AND the overlay is never added to the window. Here's my app: http://truxmapper.appspot.com/ As you can see, the other overlays will work fine, but once you click an infowindow and try to view the menu, it will simply use the href to open the url in that window. Does anyone know of a solution that will allow me to accomplish my goal? Thanks!

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• Hudson Maven build fails using workspace POM, works when pointing to development copy

  - by Deejay

  I'm developing a series of web applications using Eclipse IDE, Maven, SVN, and Hudson for CI. When I specify the "Root POM" option in my Hudson job to be the copy of pom.xml in its workspace directory, the build fails citing compilation failure due to missing classpath entries. [ERROR] BUILD FAILURE [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Compilation failure C:\Users\djones\.hudson\jobs\Store\workspace\trunk\src\main\java\com\app\store\model\User.java:[24,42] package org.hibernate.validator.constraints does not exist C:\Users\djones\.hudson\jobs\Store\workspace\trunk\src\main\java\com\app\store\dao\UserGroupHibernateSupportDao.java:[8,20] package org.hibernate does not exist C:\Users\djones\.hudson\jobs\Store\workspace\trunk\src\main\java\com\app\store\dao\UserGroupHibernateSupportDao.java:[10,49] package org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support does not exist When I specify the "Root POM" to be the copy of pom.xml in my Eclipse workspace, it builds just fine. It builds fine from Eclipse too. I want to move Hudson over to a separate machine so several developers can use it, so I can't very well point to my own development workspace to give it a POM. If I try putting an SVN URL in the "root pom.xml" option, it says file not found. What should I be entering here for a project worked on by several developers, and hosted in an SVN repository?

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• ASP.NET inline code in a server control

  - by John

  Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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• FogBugz On Demand + online source control at low/no cost?

  - by quux

  I have a project in the free hosted FogBugz On Demand (FOD) product right now. This is great for feature/issue tracking. But I've been working from a codebase that is solely on my development machine. I'd like to collaborate with another guy who is thousands of miles from me. So we need a source control solution (SCM)! I use Visual Studio (2005, but can upgrade to later versions as needed). I am aware that FogBugz can integrate with a number of source control systems. So now the question is: which online SCM products can integrate well with FOD and VS? And which ones do so well at low or no cost, for a small code repository. And where might I find a proven recipe for putting this together. I'm open to other solutions which provide the same functionality. Please don't suggest Trac - I regard it highly, but I want the features of FOB (especially the evidence based scheduling) in my issue tracking solution. So really, I need to combine FOB + VS + some online SCM product into a low or no cost solution for two coders to collaborate on.

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• Special technology needed for browser based chat?

  - by orokusaki

  On this post, I read about the usage of XMPP. Is this sort of thing necessary, and more importantly, my main question expanded: Can a chat server and client be built efficiently using only standard HTTP and browser technologies (such as PHP and JS, or RoR and JS, etc)? Or, is it best to stick with old protocols like XMPP find a way to integrate them with my application? I looked into CampFire via LiveHTTPHeaders and Firebug for about 5 minutes, and it appears to use Ajax to send a request which is never answered until another chat happens. Is this just CampFire opening a new thread on the server to listen for an update and then returning a response to the request when the thread hears an update? I noticed that they're requesting on a specific port (8043 if memory serves me) which makes me think that they're doing something more complex than just what I mentioned. Also, the URL requested started with /tcp/ which I found interesting. Note: I don't expect to ever have more than 150 users live-chatting in all the rooms combined at the same time. I understand that if I was building a hosted pay for chat service like CampFire with thousands of concurrent users, it would behoove me to invest time in researching special technologies vs trying to reinvent the wheel in a simple way in my app. Also, if you're going to do it with server polling, how often would you personally poll to maximize response without slamming the server?

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• Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

  - by marcusstarnes

  I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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• Windsor IHandlerSelector in RIA Services Visual Studio 2010 Beta2

  - by Savvas Sopiadis

  Hi everybody! I want to implement multi tenancy using Windsor and i don't know how to handle this situation: i succesfully used this technique in plain ASP.NET MVC projects and thought incorporating in a RIA Services project would be similar. So i used IHandlerSelector, registered some components and wrote an ASP.NET MVC view to verify it works in a plain ASP.NET MVC environment. And it did! Next step was to create a DomainService which got an IRepository injected in the constructor. This service is hosted in the ASP.NET MVC application. And it actually ... works:i can get data out of it to a Silverlight application. Sample snippet: public OrganizationDomainService(IRepository<Culture> cultureRepository) { this.cultureRepository = cultureRepository; } Last step is to see if it works multi-tenant-like: it does not! The weird thing is this: using some line of code and writing debug messages in a log file i verified that the correct handler is selected! BUT this handler seems not to be injected in the DomainService. I ALWAYS get the first handler (that's the logic in my SelectHandler) Can anybody verify this behavior? Is injection not working in RIA Services? Or am i missing something basic?? Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Beta2 Thanks in advance

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• Deep Zoom in Ajax - Possible? Any examples out there?

  - by Phil

  I have an idea to implement a deep zoom type interface hosted in a browser for sports training data (speed, distance, heart rate etc.) However, rather than images I actually want to zoom into a hierarchy of information. For example, the initial display would contain a grid of years - hover over 2008, for example, and spin the mouse wheel (or click) will zoom into that year but during the zoom I want 2008 to fade out and be replaced with a calendar of months. Again zoom into a month and the months are replaced with the months calendar, zoom into a day and you finally see a chart with the training data plotted on it. All the time only dates with actual data would be highlighted in some fashion. My question is whether this would even be possible and whether anyone has seen examples of this already. I'm imagining that most of the time the next level of information could be cached in the browser (in fact, because this is calendar-based, I can calculate most of that and cache the dates to be highlighted.) I could also zoom into an empty chart whilst an Ajax thread is fetching the data to display. I've never tried anything like this before and I'm especially interested in whether DHTML would be capable of this sort of zoom (I suspect not and I would have to resort to Silverlight) and whether the Ajax execution would be uninterrupted whilst the browser rendering thread is kept busy zooming.

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• Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

  - by sevennineteen

  I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

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• How to rdc to a particular machine that is member of a TS Farm?

  - by Amit Arora

  I created a Terminal Services farm comprising of 3 TS hosts (say, TS1, TS2 and TS3) running Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise, a TS Connection broker and a TS Gateway for the purpose of hosting a windows application as a TS RemoteApp. The setup works just fine. Now, I want to do some further configuration changes on a particular TS host, say TS2 and not on any other TS host. I try to rdc to TS2 but I find myself getting connected to a randomly chosen TS host (sometimes TS1, sometimes TS2, and at other times, TS3). I think rdc connection is also going via the Connection Broker that is forwarding me to a TS host it decides is best. Is there a way I can deterministically connect to a particular TS host using rdc? I don't have option to login locally on a TS host as the entire setup is hosted in a remote data center. I think this is a very common scenario and must have a straight forward solution. It could be as easy as doing rdc to Connection Broker server and disabling it for a while, but I don't know how to do that too. Any help will be highly appreciated.

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• Creating PowerShell Automatic Variables from C#

  - by Uros Calakovic

  I trying to make automatic variables available to Excel VBA (like ActiveSheet or ActiveCell) also available to PowerShell as 'automatic variables'. PowerShell engine is hosted in an Excel VSTO add-in and Excel.Application is available to it as Globals.ThisAddin.Application. I found this thread here on StackOverflow and started created PSVariable derived classes like: public class ActiveCell : PSVariable { public ActiveCell(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; } } } public class ActiveSheet : PSVariable { public ActiveSheet(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveSheet; } } } and adding their instances to the current POwerShell session: runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveCell("ActiveCell")); runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveSheet("ActiveSheet")); This works and I am able to use those variables from PowerShell as $ActiveCell and $ActiveSheet (their value change as Excel active sheet or cell change). Then I read PSVariable documentation here and saw this: "There is no established scenario for deriving from this class. To programmatically create a shell variable, create an instance of this class and set it by using the PSVariableIntrinsics class." As I was deriving from PSVariable, I tried to use what was suggested: PSVariable activeCell = new PSVariable("ActiveCell"); activeCell.Value = Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(activeCell); Using this, $ActiveCell appears in my PowerShell session, but its value doesn't change as I change the active cell in Excel. Is the above comment from PSVariable documentation something I should worry about, or I can continue creating PSVariable derived classes? Is there another way of making Excel globals available to PowerShell?

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• jQuery AJAX with two domains

  - by Andrew Burns

  OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

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• Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

  - by MatsL

  I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

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• Identify server that made call to web service

  - by sleepybobos

  I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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• mod_rewrite if file exists

  - by Mathieu Parent

  Hi everyone, I already have two rewrite rules that work correctly for now but some more code has to be added to work perfectly. I have a website hosted at mydomain.com and all subdom.mydomain.com are rewrited to mydomain.com/subs/subdom . My CMS has to handle the request if the file being reached does not exist, the rewrite is done like so: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/index.php?page=$1 [L] My CMS handles the next part of the parsing as usual. The problem is if a file really exists, I need to link to it without passing through my CMS, I managed to do it like this: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/$1 [L] So far it seems to work like a charm. Now I am being picky and I need to have default files that are stored in subs/default/. If the file exists in the subdomain folder, we should grab this one but if not, we need to get the file from the default subdomain. And if the file does not exist anywhere, we should be using the 404 page from the current subdomain unless there is none. I hope it describes well enough. Thank you for your time!

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• Exporting database from external server (without SSH access)

  - by Derek Carlisle

  Our current website is hosted by the design agency who originally built the website, however we are bringing the development of the website in house therefore need to export the database from their server and import it to ours. We have FTP and phpMyAdmin access but don't have SSH access to the server. I was hoping to run a PHP script that would mysql dump the database, compress it and then copy it across to our server using scp: $backupFile = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'].'/backup' . date("Y-m-d-H-i-s") . '.gz'; system("mysqldump -h DB_HOST -u DB_USER -pDB_PASS DB_NAME | gzip > $backupFile"); exec("sshpass -p PASSWORD scp -r -P PORT_NUMBER $backupFile [email protected]:/path/to/directory/"); I have ran this locally from the command line and it worked fine, although I had to install sshpass (the hosting server might not have this installed). Also, I was hoping to run it from the browser as I don't have command line access on the hosting server, however it didn't work, no errors produced though. Can you anyone recommend how I can export from the server that I don't have SSH access to and import to my server? Thanks

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• XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

  - by maharaj

  Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

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• changing WCF endpoint does not persist data.

  - by Vinay Pandey

  Hi All, I have an application that has reference of a WCF service on machine A, now on certain situation I want tu use similar service hosted on machine B. When I changed the endpoint using following:- EndpointAddress endpoint = new EndpointAddress(new Uri(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceURLForMachineB"])); BasicHttpBinding binding = new BasicHttpBinding(); binding.SendTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.OpenTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.CloseTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(10); binding.AllowCookies = false; binding.BypassProxyOnLocal = false; binding.HostNameComparisonMode = HostNameComparisonMode.StrongWildcard; binding.MessageEncoding = WSMessageEncoding.Mtom; binding.TextEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; binding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Buffered; binding.UseDefaultWebProxy = true; repositoryService = new WorkflowRepositoryServiceClient(binding, endpoint); When I call login method although method is called from machine B, but username and password in Login(string username,string password) are coming null on machine B. Any Idea what I am doing wrong here?

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• Jboss 6 Cluster Singleton Clustered

  - by DanC

  I am trying to set up a Jboss 6 in a clustered environment, and use it to host clustered stateful singleton EJBs. So far we succesfully installed a Singleton EJB within the cluster, where different entrypoints to our application (through a website deployed on each node) point to a single environment on which the EJB is hosted (thus mantaining the state of static variables). We achieved this using the following configuration: Bean interface: @Remote public interface IUniverse { ... } Bean implementation: @Clustered @Stateful public class Universe implements IUniverse { private static Vector<String> messages = new Vector<String>(); ... } jboss-beans.xml configuration: <deployment xmlns="urn:jboss:bean-deployer:2.0"> <!-- This bean is an example of a clustered singleton --> <bean name="Universe" class="Universe"> </bean> <bean name="UniverseController" class="org.jboss.ha.singleton.HASingletonController"> <property name="HAPartition"><inject bean="HAPartition"/></property> <property name="target"><inject bean="Universe"/></property> <property name="targetStartMethod">startSingleton</property> <property name="targetStopMethod">stopSingleton</property> </bean> </deployment> The main problem for this implementation is that, after the master node (the one that contains the state of the singleton EJB) shuts down gracefuly, the Singleton's state is lost and reset to default. Please note that everything was constructed following the JBoss 5 Clustering documents, as no JBoss 6 documents were found on this subject. Any information on how to solve this problem or where to find JBoss 6 documention on clustering is appreciated.

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• Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

  - by ServAce85

  I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

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• Corrupt UTF-8 Characters with PHP 5.2.10 and MySQL 5.0.81

  - by jkndrkn

  We have an application hosted on both a local development server and a live site. We are experiencing UTF-8 corruption issues and are looking to figure out how to resolve them. The system is run using symfony 1.0 with Propel. On our development server, we are running PHP 5.2.0 and MySQL 5.0.32. We do not experience corrupted UTF-8 characters there. On our live site, PHP 5.2.10 and MySQL 5.0.81 is running. On that server, certain characters such as ô´ and S are corrupted once they are stored in the database. The corrupted characters are showing up as either question marks or approximations of the original character with adjacent question marks. Examples of corruption: Uncorrupted: ô´ Corrupted: ô? Uncorrupted: S Corrupted: ? We are currently using the following techniques on both development and live servers: Executing the following queries prior to execution of any other queries: SET NAMES 'utf8' COLLATE 'utf8_unicode_ci' SET CHARSET 'utf8' Setting the <meta> Content-Type value to: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Adding the following to our .htaccess file: AddDefaultCharset utf-8 Using mb_* (multibyte) PHP functions where necessary. Being sure to set database columns to use utf8_unicode_ci collation. These techniques are sufficient for our development site, but do not work on the live site. On the live site I've also tried adding mysql_set_encoding('ut8', $mysql_connection) but this does not help either. I have found some evidence that newer versions of PHP and MySQL are mishandling UTF-8 character encodings.

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• javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

  - by agnieszka

  I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

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• Very strange client/browser issue

  - by Jeriko

  One of our clients has logged a very strange issue with us- We launched a preview for their website, but when it's viewed on their main PC, peculiar things start to happen... At first, the stylesheet wasn't being found, and so accessing any page resulted in one void of all styles. We sent them a direct link to the stylesheet, which was viewable from all our computers in the office - but gave a "File Not Found" error on their side. I then deleted the file, and replaced it with a new blank file, which he could then access. Copy-pasted screen.css contents into this file, and he could then view it fine, and stylesheets magically worked on the site again. Now, he can view styles, but not the referenced header images. The strange thing is that this problem doesn't exist on any other PC we've tested, or on any other site on the problem computer, but obviously we'd like our client's site to work for them. The strange thing is, they can view other sites of ours, hosted on the same server, built on top of the same CMS (and so most of the files are the same) without problem - but are getting 404s for files that most definitely do exist. Stylesheets are not turned off, nor is anything specifically deactivated on their browser (as other sites are fine) Reloading with CTRL+F5 doesn't help The client is using the latest version of firefox Any ideas here on what to try / how to narrow the problem down?

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• Replacement for Hamachi for SVN access

  - by Piers

  My company has been using Hamachi to access our SVN repository for a number of years. We are a small yet widely distributed development team with each programmer in a different country working from home. The server is hosted by a non-techie in our central office. Hamachi is useful here since it has a GUI and supports remote management. This system worked well for a while, but recently I have moved to a country with poor internet speeds. Hamachi will no longer connect 99% of the time - instead I get a "Probing..." message that doesn't resolve. It's certain to be a latency issue, as the same laptop will connect without problems when I cross the border and connect using a different ISP with better speeds. So I really need to replace Hamachi with some other VPN/protocol that handles latency better. The techie managing the repository is not comfortable installing and configuring Apache or IIS, so it looks like HTTP is out. I tried to convince my boss to go for a web hosting company, but he doesn't trust a 3rd party with our source. Any other recommended options / experiences out there for accessing our SVN repos that would be as simple as Hamachi for setup; but be more tolerant of network latency issues?

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