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multiple streaming servers behind a Bastion Host

- by Bond

I am using open source streaming server Red5 on multiple servers. Which are running behind a bastion host. the world knows these sites as http://site1.mydomain.com http://site2.mydomain.com http://site3.mydomain.com http://site4.mydomain.com To reach the front end server is using Apache Reverse Proxy. I am also having video streaming on each of these websites using rtmp. To be able to reach the streaming server I embed a javascript in HTML pages as follows Code: <embed ..... var="rtmp://site1.my_domain.com" > the problem is the website are many site1.mydomain.com site2.mydomain.com site3.mydomain.com site4.mydomain.com each on a separate physical server. Each of these four have their own Red5 installations the front end to each of these four is a common Bastion Host. If I run rtmp on each of the subdomains at a different port how will I make sure a request such as rtmp://site1.mydomain.com rtmp://site2.mydomain.com goes to their respective servers. from the front end server. What do I need to handle in this case ? IPTABLES came to mind instantly but from the client browser on internet when some one requests rtmp://site1.mydomain.com how will I make sure this rtmp request is mapped to a port different than 1935 as there are three other streaming servers which are also to respond to their respective requests ?

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How can I avoid an error in this .htaccess file?

- by mipadi

I have a blog. The blog is stored under the /blog/ prefix on my website. It has the usual URLs for a blog, so articles have URLs in the format /blog/:year/:month/:day/:title/. First and foremost, I want to automatically redirect visitors to the www subdomain (in case they leave that off), and internally rewrite the root URL to /blog/, so that the front page of the blog appears on the front page of the site. I have accomplished that with the following set of rewrite rules in my .htaccess file: RewriteEngine On # Rewrite monkey-robot.com to www.monkey-robot.com RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^monkey-robot\.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.monkey-robot.com/$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^$ /blog/ [L] RewriteRule ^feeds/blog/?$ /feeds/blog/atom.xml [L] That works fine. The problem is that the front page of the blog now appears at two distinct URLs: / and /blog/. So I'd like to redirect the /blog/ URL to the root URL. Initially I tried to accomplish this with the following set of rewrite rules: RewriteEngine On # Rewrite monkey-robot.com to www.monkey-robot.com RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^monkey-robot\.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.monkey-robot.com/$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^$ /blog/ [L] RewriteRule ^blog/?$ / [R,L] RewriteRule ^feeds/blog/?$ /feeds/blog/atom.xml [L] But that gave me an infinite redirect (maybe because of the preceding rule?). So then I tried this set: RewriteEngine On # Rewrite monkey-robot.com to www.monkey-robot.com RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^monkey-robot\.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.monkey-robot.com/$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^$ /blog/ [L] RewriteRule ^blog/?$ http://www.monkey-robot.com/ [R,L] RewriteRule ^feeds/blog/?$ /feeds/blog/atom.xml [L] But I got a 500 Internal Server Error with the following log message: Invalid command '[R,L]', perhaps misspelled or defined by a module not included in the server configuration What gives? I don't think [R,L] is a syntax error.

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how to design pound -> varnish -> jboss for ha + loadbalancing

- by andreash

Hello, I'm planning a new infrastructure for our web application. We have two JBossAS5 servers, running in a cluster. Session state will be replicated via JBoss Cache. In front of that, there should be some cache, to speed up delivery of static elements. However, most of the traffic to our app will be via HTTPS. So far, I had been thinking of two Varnish caches in front of the JBossASs, each being configured for loadbalancing to the two JBossASs via round-robin. Since Varnish doesn't handle HTTPS, then there would need to be two pound proxies in front of the Varnishs, dealing with the HTTPS. The two pounds would be made high-available with Heartbeat/LinuxHA. The traffic to www.example.com would then be going through our firewall, from there to the virtual IP of the pounds, from there to the Varnishs, and from there to the JBossASs. Question 1: Does this make sense? Or is it overly complicated, and the same goal can be reached with simpler methods? Question 2: If my layout is fine, how do I configure the pound - Varnish step? Should I a) make the Varnish service high-available through Heartbeat/LinuxHA as well and direct traffic from pound to the virtual IP of the Varnishs, or should I rather b) Configure two independent Varnishs and use load-balancing in pound to address the different Varnishs? Thanks a lot for your insight! Andreas.

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Network Load Balancing, intermittent port problem

- by Jimmy Chandra

Trying to troubleshoot an intermittent problem. I think it might be related to an NLB issue. We are using Windows Network Load Balancing to balance load for our multiserver SharePoint front ends. Say... Web Front End 1 IP is 192.168.1.100 and Web Front End 2 IP is 192.168.1.101, the NLB is setup to load balance both WFE servers on any incoming traffic to the IP 192.168.1.200. Sometimes we got an intermittent issue where when we try to access the SharePoint site using 192.168.1.200:8080 (say the site is set up to run on port 8080) from a remote client, it will display page not found. Pinging the 192.168.1.200 will give responses, but when trying to telnet to 192.168.1.200:8080 it just won't connect. However, browsing the SharePoint site directly on individual WFE (192.168.1.100 and 192.168.1.101) show no problem whatsoever. My guess also (we didn't get a chance to try it yet, but I think it should work), if I try connecting remotely to individual server, it will respond just fine. But any attempt on trying to connect using the virtual IP (192.168.1.200) will fail miserably. Funny thing is, after a while it will return back to normal. Anyone had similar experience with this type of problem while implementing NLB before? We are doing this in a virtual environment.

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Specific DNS sometimes resolves to wildcard, incorrectly

- by Mojo

I have an intermittent problem, and I'm not sure where to start trying to troubleshoot it. In our dev environment, we have two visible IP addresses on load balancers, one to the front-end, and one to a number of back-end service machines. The front-end is configured to take a wildcard DNS name to support generic "portals." dev.example.com A 10.1.1.1 *.dev.example.com CNAME dev.example.com The back-end servers are all specific names within the same space: core.dev.example.com A 10.1.1.2 cms.dev.example.com CNAME core.dev.example.com search.dev.example.com CNAME core.dev.example.com Here's the problem. Periodically a developer or a program trying to reach, say, cms.dev.example.com will get a result that points to the front-end, instead of the back-end load balancer: cms.dev.example.com is an alias to core.dev.example.com core.dev.example.com is an alias to dev.example.com (WRONG!) dev.example.com 10.1.1.1 The developers are all on Mac OS X machines, though I've seen the problem occur on an Ubuntu machine as well, using a local cloud host DNS resolver. Sometimes the developer is using a VPN, which directs the DNS to its own resolver, and sometimes he's on the local net using a DNS resolver assigned by the NAT router. Sometimes clearing the Mac OS X DNS cache, logging into the VPN, then logging out of the VPN, will make the problem go away. The origin authoritative server is on zerigo, and a dig directly to their name servers always seems to give the correct answer. The published DNS cache time for these records is 15 minutes, but the problem has been intermittent for about a week. Any troubleshooting suggestions?

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Network Load Balancing, intermittent port problem on Windows Server 2008

- by Jimmy Chandra

Trying to troubleshoot an intermittent problem on a Windows Server 2008 NLB. I think it might be related to an NLB issue. We are using Windows Network Load Balancing to balance load for our multiserver SharePoint front ends. Say... Web Front End 1 IP is 192.168.1.100 and Web Front End 2 IP is 192.168.1.101, the NLB is setup to load balance both WFE servers on any incoming traffic to the IP 192.168.1.200. Sometimes we got an intermittent issue where when we try to access the SharePoint site using 192.168.1.200:8080 (say the site is set up to run on port 8080) from a remote client, it will display page not found. Pinging the 192.168.1.200 will give responses, but when trying to telnet to 192.168.1.200:8080 it just won't connect. However, browsing the SharePoint site directly on individual WFE (192.168.1.100 and 192.168.1.101) show no problem whatsoever. My guess also (we didn't get a chance to try it yet, but I think it should work), if I try connecting remotely to individual server, it will respond just fine. But any attempt on trying to connect using the virtual IP (192.168.1.200) will fail miserably. Funny thing is, after a while it will return back to normal. Anyone had similar experience with this type of problem while implementing NLB before? We are doing this in a virtual environment.

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When machine is turned on, only the fan runs

- by Gopal

Hi, I have an issue slightly similar to this one posted here, http://superuser.com/questions/127016/troubleshooting-monitor-never-turns-on-system-fans-running-dvd-rom-does-not-op My configuration is as follows: EPOX 9NPA+ Ultra motherboard AMD Athlon 64 CPU Corsair 2 x 1GB PC3200 DDR RAM 1 DVD RW drive and 1 CD ROM Drive SATA 250 GB Hard drive 400W Power supply EVGA 256MB graphics card I have had this configuration for about four years. Last month, I started having issues in starting the machine. It wouldn't start when I press the ON button in the front of the case. So I used to pull out the power cord and plug it back in and then switch on in the front, and it used to work fine. And then one fine day, when I plugged in the power cord at the back, even without switching on the power-on button at the front, I saw that the fan at the back was running. So I opened the system. Then I could see that all the fans inside were running. I replaced the power supply. No luck there. Then I replaced the CMOS battery. Again nothing improved. Even when I removed all the cards and memory, I still get one short beep. That's it. Any idea how to proceed on this? Anything else could be checked? I want to confirm if this is a motherboard failure, before proceeding to replace it.

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NGINX returning 404 error on a valid url

- by Harrison

We have a site that runs PHP-FPM and NGINX. The application sends invitations to site members that are keyed with 40 character random strings (alphanumerics only -- example below). Today for the first time we ran into an issue with this approach. The following url: http://oursite.com/notices/response/approve/1960/OzH0pedV3rJhefFlMezDuoOQSomlUVdhJUliAhjS is returning a 404 error. This url format has been working for 6 months now without an issue, and other urls following this exact format continue to resolve properly. We have a very basic config with a simple redirect to a front controller, and everything else has been running fine for a while now. Also, if we change the last character from an "S" to anything other than a lower-case "s", no 404 error and the site handles the request properly, so I'm wondering if there's some security module that might see something wrong with this specific string... Not sure if that makes any sense. We are not sure where to look to find out what specifically is causing the issue, so any direction would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Update: Adding a slash to the end of the url allowed it to be handled properly... Would still like to get to the bottom of the issue though. Solved: The problem was caused by part of my configuration... Realized I should have posted, but was headed out of town and didn't have a chance. Any url that ended in say "css" or "js" and not necessarily preceded by a dot (so, for example, http://site.com/response/somerandomestringcss ) was interpreted as a request for a file and the request was not routed through the front controller. The problem was my regex for disabling logging and setting expiration headers on jpgs, gifs, icos, etc. I replaced this: location ~* ^.+(jpg|jpeg|gif|css|png|js|ico)$ { with this: location ~* \.(jpg|jpeg|gif|css|png|js|ico)$ { And now urls ending in css, js, png, etc, are properly routed through the front controller. Hopefully that helps someone else out.

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NGINX returning 404 error on a valid url

- by Harrison

We have a site that runs PHP-FPM and NGINX. The application sends invitations to site members that are keyed with 40 character random strings (alphanumerics only -- example below). Today for the first time we ran into an issue with this approach. The following url: http://oursite.com/notices/response/approve/1960/OzH0pedV3rJhefFlMezDuoOQSomlUVdhJUliAhjS is returning a 404 error. This url format has been working for 6 months now without an issue, and other urls following this exact format continue to resolve properly. We have a very basic config with a simple redirect to a front controller, and everything else has been running fine for a while now. Also, if we change the last character from an "S" to anything other than a lower-case "s", no 404 error and the site handles the request properly, so I'm wondering if there's some security module that might see something wrong with this specific string... Not sure if that makes any sense. We are not sure where to look to find out what specifically is causing the issue, so any direction would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Update: Adding a slash to the end of the url allowed it to be handled properly... Would still like to get to the bottom of the issue though. Solved: The problem was caused by part of my configuration... Realized I should have posted, but was headed out of town and didn't have a chance. Any url that ended in say "css" or "js" and not necessarily preceded by a dot (so, for example, http://site.com/response/somerandomestringcss ) was interpreted as a request for a file and the request was not routed through the front controller. The problem was my regex for disabling logging and setting expiration headers on jpgs, gifs, icos, etc. I replaced this: location ~* ^.+(jpg|jpeg|gif|css|png|js|ico)$ { with this: location ~* \.(jpg|jpeg|gif|css|png|js|ico)$ { And now urls ending in css, js, png, etc, are properly routed through the front controller. Hopefully that helps someone else out.

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How do I activate the F_LINE input in a transplanted HP chassis?

- by admin

I have an HP Pavilion Media Center PC chassis, vintage 2003 or so and I replaced the motherboard in it with a newer (vintage 2009) HP motherboard, M2N68-LA (Narra 5). I have scoured the internet trying to find pinouts for the motherboard to no avail. My question concerns the front panel audio, specifically Line In. The old chassis was built for AC97 but the new mobo is build for the newer HD audio standard. I figured out by comparison & experimentally how to connect the Mic & Headphone jacks to the HD audio header of the mobo by adding a manual switch to set the SENSE lines. Now all works fine for Mic & headphone. The old chassis also has a front panel Line In jack that the newer HP chassis does not have. However, the new mobo has a 4 pin white connector labeled F_LINE that I believe is a line input. Under Windows 7 I see the two Line Inputs in the mixer but I can't get one of them to become active. The 4 pin F_LINE connector uses the two middle pins for ground, and presumably the other two for left and right audio inputs. There are no pins for sensing on that connector. Can anyone tell me how to use that F_LINE input for the front panel, or how to activate it?

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PHP, javascript, single quote problems with IE when passing variable from ajax post to javascript fu

- by Mattis

Hi! I have been trying to get this to work for a while, and I suspect there's an easy solution that I just can't find. My head feels like jelly and I would really appreciate any help. My main page.php makes a .post() to backend.php and fetches a list of cities which it echoes in the form of: <li onclick="script('$data');">$data</li> The list is fetched and put onto the page via .html(). My problem occurs when $data has a single quote in it. backend.php passes the variable just fine to page.php but when i run html() it throws a javascript error (in IE, not FF obviously); ')' is expected IE parses the single quote and messes up the script()-call. I've been trying to rebuild the echoed string in different ways, escaping the 's on the php side and/or on the javascript side - but in vain. Do I have to review the script in total? page.php $.post("backend.php", {q: ""+str+""}, function(data) { if(data.length >0) { $('#results').html(data); } backend.php while ($row = $q->fetch()) { $city = $row['City']; // $city = addslashes($row['City']); // $city = str_replace("'","'",$row['City']); echo "<li onclick=\"script('$city');\">".$city."</li>"; }

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jqGrid dynamic select option

- by Jo

I'm creating a jqgrid with drop down columns and I'm using cell editing. I need the options of the drop down columns to change dynamically and I've tried implementing this by setting the column to be: { name: "AccountLookup", index: "AccountLookup", width: 90, editable: true, resizable: true, edittype: "select", formatter: "select" }, and then in the beforeCellEdit event I have: beforeEditCell: function(id, name, val, iRow, iCol) { if(name=='AccountLookup') { var listdata = GetLookupValues(id, name); if (listdata == null) listdata = "1:1"; jQuery("#grid").setColProp(name, { editoptions: { value: listdata.toString()} }) } }, GetLookupValues just returns a string in the format "1:One;2:Two" etc. That works fine however the options are populated one click behind - ie i click on AccountID in row 1, and the dropdown is empty, however when I then click on AccountID in row 3 the options I set in the row 1 click are shown in the row 3 click. And so on. So always one click behind. Is there another way of achieving what I need? Bacially the dropdown options displayed are always changing and I need to load them as user enters the cell for editing. Perhaps I can somehow get at the select control in the beforeEditCell event and manually enter its values instead of using the setColProp call? If so could I get an example of doing that please? Another thing - if the dropdown is empty and a user doesn't cancel the cell edit, the grid script throws an error. I'm using clientarray editing if that makes a difference. Greatly appreciate any help. Regards, Jo

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WPF ObservableCollection CollectionView.CurrentChanged not firing.

- by EL

Hi folks, I have a problem with one of my ICollectionViews. The ICollectionView's CurrentChanged event i not firing. Please see my code below. XAML:  <TextBlock Name="tbkPublication" Text="{x:Static abConst:Print.tbkPublicationText}" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="0" Margin="3" ></TextBlock> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="0" Margin="3" Name="cmbPublication" BorderThickness="1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=EnterpriseList}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectedValuePath="Value" SelectedIndex="0" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" />  <TextBlock Name="tbkDistributionArea" Text="{x:Static abConst:Print.tbkDistributionAreaText}" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" Margin="3" ></TextBlock> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Margin="3" Name="cmbDistributionArea" BorderThickness="1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ZonesList}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectedValuePath="Value" SelectedIndex="0" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" /> AND C# (ViewModel) #region Properties public ObservableCollection<GenericNameValuePair<int, string>> EnterpriseList { get { return _abEnterpriseList; } set { _abEnterpriseList = value; } } public ObservableCollection<GenericNameValuePair<int, string>> ZonesList { get { return _abZonesList; } set { _abZonesList = value; } } #endregion private void InitCollections() { _collectionViewEnterprise = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(EnterpriseList); _collectionViewZone = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(ZonesList); //Replace if(_collectionViewEnterprise == null) throw new NullReferenceException("Enterprise collectionView is null."); if (_collectionViewZone == null) throw new NullReferenceException("Zone collectionView is null."); _collectionViewEnterprise.CurrentChanged += new EventHandler(OnCollectionViewEnterpriseCurrentChanged); _collectionViewZone.CurrentChanged += new EventHandler(OnCollectionViewZoneCurrentChanged); } Please help. Thanks in advance.

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Mixed surrogate composite key insert in JPA 2.0, PostgreSQL and Hibernate 3.5

- by Gerald

First off, we are using JPA 2.0 and Hibernate 3.5 as persistence provider on a PostgreSQL database. We successfully use the sequence of the database via the JPA 2.0 annotations as an auto-generated value for single-field-surrogate-keys and all works fine. Now we are implementing a bi-temporal database-scheme that requires a mixed key in the following manner: Table 1: id (pk, integer, auto-generated-sequence) validTimeBegin (pk, dateTime) validTimeEnd (dateTime) firstName (varChar) Now we have a problem. You see, if we INSERT a new element, the field id is auto-generated and that's fine. Only, if we want to UPDATE the field within this scheme, then we have to change the validTimeBegin column WITHOUT changing the id-field and insert it as a new row like so: BEFORE THE UPDATE OF THE ROW: |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | NULL | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| AFTER THE UPDATE OF THE ROW happening at exactly 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 server-time: (we update the person with the id:1 to reflect his new first name...) |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | NULL | Jerry | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| So our problem is, that this doesn't work at all using an auto-generated-sequence for the field id because when inserting a new row then the id ALWAYS is auto-generated although it really is part of a composite key which should sometimes behave differently. So my question is: Is there a way to tell hibernate via JPA to stop auto-generating the id-field in the case I want to generate a new variety of the same person and go on as usual in every other case or do I have to take over the whole id-generation with custom code? Thanks in advance, Gerald

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Python Tkinter Tix: How to use ScrolledWindow with grid in Tix NoteBook

- by Sano98

Hi guys, I'm adding several widgets to a Frame which is located in a tix.NoteBook. When there are too much widgets to fit in the window, I want to use a scrollbar, so I put tix.ScrolledWindow inside that Frame and add my widgets to this ScrolledWindow instead. The problem is that when using the grid() geometry manager, the scrollbar appears, but it is not working (The drag bar occupies the whole scroll bar). from Tkinter import * import Tix class Window: def __init__(self, root): self.labelList = [] self.notebook = Tix.NoteBook(root, ipadx=3, ipady=3) self.notebook.add('sheet_1', label="Sheet 1", underline=0) self.notebook.add('sheet_2', label="Sheet 2", underline=0) self.notebook.add('sheet_3', label="Sheet 3", underline=0) self.notebook.pack() #self.notebook.grid(row=0, column=0) tab1=self.notebook.sheet_1 tab2=self.notebook.sheet_2 tab3=self.notebook.sheet_3 self.myMainContainer = Frame(tab1) self.myMainContainer.pack() #self.myMainContainer.grid(row=0, column=0) scrwin = Tix.ScrolledWindow(self.myMainContainer, scrollbar='y') scrwin.pack() #scrwin.grid(row=0, column=0) self.win = scrwin.window for i in range (100): self.labelList.append((Label(self.win))) self.labelList[-1].config(text= "Bla", relief = SUNKEN) self.labelList[-1].grid(row=i, column=0, sticky=W+E) root = Tix.Tk() myWindow = Window(root) root.mainloop() Whenever I change at least one of the geometry managers from pack() to grid(), the problem occurs. (Actually, I'd prefer using grid() for all containers.) When I don't use the NoteBook widget, the problem does not occur either. The other examples here all seem to rely on pack(). Any ideas? Many thanks, Sano

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ExtJS: Combobox in EditorGridPanel not selecting the desired item (with test case)

- by TomH

I'm using ExtJS to create an EditorGridPanel with a combobox for an editor in a cell. The combobox in my EditorGridPanel that is not working as I'd expect it to. When the user types the first letter of an item in the drop down list, the combobox seems to ignore it and select the first item in the list. I can reproduce the error consistently and have put together a test case here: http://cluebucket.com/dev/testcase/testcase.html Load the page and reproduce the behavior by the following -- note that this is all done using the keyboard, no mouse clicks: Click 'Add Record' (A new row is added to the grid) enter text in the text field. TAB to the Priority field without selecting anything (None will remain selected) TAB out of the Priority field. (A new row is added to the grid) enter text and TAB to the Priority field TYPE v (Very High is selected) TAB out of the priority field (A new row is added to the grid) enter text and TAB to the Priority field Type v (None is selected, but Very High should have been) TAB out of the priority field Enter text and TAB to the priority field Type l ('el') (Low is selected) TAB out, enter text, TAB to priority Type l (None is selected) It appears that whenever the user attempts to select the same value that was selected in the previous row, the combobox selects None. Any ideas? The code is available at cluebucket.com/dev/testcase/js/testcase.js Thoughts/Pointers/Corrections are appreciated!! thanks tom

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Jqgrid + CodeIgniter

- by Ivan

I tried to make jqgrid work with codeigniter, but I could not do it, I only want to show the data from the table in json format... but nothing happens.. but i dont know what i am doing wrong, i cant see the table with the content i am calling. my controller class Grid extends Controller { public function f() { $this->load->model('dbgrid'); $var['grid'] = $this->dbgrid->getcontentfromtable(); foreach($var['grid'] as $row) { $responce->rows[$i]['id']=$row->id; $responce->rows[$i]['cell']=array($row->id,$row->id_catalogo); } $json = json_encode($responce); $this->load->view('vgrid',$json); } function load_view_grid() { $this->load->view('vgrid'); } } my model class Dbgrid extends Model{ function getcontentfromtable() { $sql = 'SELECT * FROM anuncios'; $query = $this->db->query($sql); $result = $query->result(); return $result; } } my view(script) $(document).ready(function() { jQuery("#list27").jqGrid({ url:'http://localhost/sitio/index.php/grid/f', datatype: "json", mtype: "post", height: 255, width: 600, colNames:['ID','ID_CATALOGO'], colModel:[ {name:'id',index:'id', width:65, sorttype:'int'}, {name:'id_catalogo',index:'id_catalogo', sorttype:'int'} ], rowNum:50, rowTotal: 2000, rowList : [20,30,50], loadonce:true, rownumbers: true, rownumWidth: 40, gridview: true, pager: '#pager27', sortname: 'item_id', viewrecords: true, sortorder: "asc", caption: "Loading data from server at once" }); }); hope someone help me

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Zend Studio Debugger returns Application Error

- by Keyne

When I run debug for my public/index.php I got an application error as output. I've seen that it occurs at this line: foreach($feed->findFeedEntries($entriesLimit) as $entry) If I put a breakpoint before this, all works as expected, I mean, the error is after the line above. If I remove findFeedEntries() method, I can perform debugging without erros. To clarify, this method is in my row object as described bellow: This is the error <?php class Model_DbTable_FeedEntries extends Zf_Db_Table { public function fetchNewEntries($feed_id) { $Feeds = new Model_DbTable_Feeds(); $Feed = $Feeds->getById($feed_id); // ERROR IS HERE! The colum doesn't exists! // And this is only on zend-debugger!!! var_dump($Feed->link) // ... } } I'm completely lost about what's happening, once my application has no errors, the problem is with zend-debugger. The error is: An error occurred Application error Exception information: Message: Specified column "link" is not in the row Stack trace: #0 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\FeedEntries.php(75): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->__get('link') #1 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\FeedEntries.php(50): Model_DbTable_FeedEntries->fetchNewEntries('1') #2 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\Row\Feed.php(15): Model_DbTable_FeedEntries->getAllByFeedId('1', 1) #3 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\modules\default\controllers\IndexController.php(41): Model_DbTable_Row_Feed->findFeedEntries(1) #4 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): IndexController->indexAction() #5 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('indexAction') #6 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #7 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #8 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #9 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\public\index.php(54): Zend_Application->run() #10 C:\Users\RAPOSO\AppData\Local\Temp\dummy.php(1): include('C:\Program File...') #11 {main} I've notice that when I get the row object my colums names are not right. Instead of have "title", "link", ... I have "feeds", "desenvolvimentistas" (projectname), and so on...

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Naming of ASP.NET controls inside User Controls with ASP.NET MVC

- by skb

I am wondering if there is a way to make ASP.NET controls play nicely with my ASP.NET MVC app. Here is what I am doing. I have an order page which displays info about a single Order object. The page will normally have a bunch of rows of data, each row representing an OrderItem object. Each row is an ASP.NET User Control. On the user control there is a form element with two text boxes (Quantity and Price), and an update button. When I click the update button, I expect the form to post the data for that individual OrderItem row to a controller method and update the OrderItem record in the database. Here is my problem: When the post happens, the framework complains because the fields on the form don't match the parameters on the controller method. Each form field is something like "OrderItem_1$Quantity" or "OrderItem_2$Price" instead of just "Quantity" or "Price" which would match my method parameters. I have been told that I can overcome this by making sure that the IDs of all my controls are unique for the page, but allow the NAMEs to be repeated between different forms, so that if a form for an individual row is posted, the name can be something that will match what is on my controller method. The only problem is that I am using ASP.NET controls for my text boxes (which I REALLY want to continue doing) and I can't find any way to override the name field. There is no Name propery on an ASP.NET control, and even when I try to set it using the Attributes accessor property by saying "control.Attributes["Name"] = "Price";" it just adds another name= attribute to the HTML tag which doesn't work. Does any one know how I can make this work? I really don't like all of the HtmlHelper functions like TextBox and DropDown because I hate having my .aspx be so PHP or ASP like with the <%% tags and everything. Thanks!

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UITableView not reloading data on [self.tableView reloadData]

- by donnib

I have following code : - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; static NSString *RowListCellIdentifier = @"RowListCellIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:RowListCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:RowListCellIdentifier]autorelease]; } NSMutableString *rowString = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; [rowString appendString:[[[rows objectAtIndex:row] firstNumber]stringValue]]; [rowString appendString:@" : "]; [rowString appendString:[[[rows objectAtIndex:row] secondNumber]stringValue]]; [rowString appendString:@" : "]; [[cell textLabel] setText:rowString]; [rowString release]; return cell; } - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self.tableView reloadData]; [super viewWillAppear:animated]; } My problem is that the textLabel does not get reloaded with new data. If i log the rowString i see the correct value so data is good but in the UI it's the old data. I can see the cellForRowAtIndexPath beeing called so i know the reloadDatacall goes thru. What am i doing wrong ?

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Lost connection to MySQL server during query

- by Otavio

I have a huge table and I need to process all rows in it. I'm always getting this Lost connection message and I'm not able to reconnect and restore the cursor to the last position it was. This is basically the code I have here: # import MySQLdb class DB: conn = None def connect(self): self.conn = MySQLdb.connect('hostname', 'user', '*****', 'some_table', cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.SSCursor) def query(self, sql): try: cursor = self.conn.cursor() cursor.execute(sql) except (AttributeError, MySQLdb.OperationalError): self.connect() cursor = self.conn.cursor() cursor.execute(sql) return cursor # # db = DB() sql = "SELECT bla FROM foo" data = db.query(sql) for row in data: do_something(row) # But I'm always getting this: # Traceback (most recent call last): File "teste.py", line 124, in <module> run() File "teste.py", line 109, in run for row in data: File "/usr/lib64/python2.5/site-packages/MySQLdb/cursors.py", line 417, in next row = self.fetchone() File "/usr/lib64/python2.5/site-packages/MySQLdb/cursors.py", line 388, in fetchone r = self._fetch_row(1) File "/usr/lib64/python2.5/site-packages/MySQLdb/cursors.py", line 285, in _fetch_row return self._result.fetch_row(size, self._fetch_type) _mysql_exceptions.OperationalError: (2013, 'Lost connection to MySQL server during query') Exception _mysql_exceptions.OperationalError: (2013, 'Lost connection to MySQL server during query') in <bound method SSCursor.__del__ of <MySQLdb.cursors.SSCursor object at 0x7f7e3c8da410>> ignored # Do you have any idea?

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How can I access the group of a linq group-by query from a nested repeater control?

- by Duke

I'm using a linq group by query (with two grouping parameters) and would like to use the resulting data in a nested repeater. var dateGroups = from row in data.AsEnumerable() group row by new { StartDate = row["StartDate"], EndDate = row["EndDate"] }; "data" is a DataTable from an SqlDataAdapter-filled DataSet. "dateGroups" is used in the parent repeater, and I can access the group keys using Eval("key.StartDate") and Eval("key.EndDate"). Since dateGroups actually contains all the data rows grouped neatly by Start/End date, I'd like to access those rows to display the data in a child repeater. To what would I set the child repeater's DataSource? I have tried every expression in markup I could think of; I think the problem is that I'm trying to access an anonymous member (and I don't know how.) In case it doesn't turn out to be obvious, what would be the expression to access the elements in each iteration of the child repeater? Is there an expression that would let me set the DataSource in the markup, or will it have to be in the codebehind on some event in the parent repeater?

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Can't get Secondary UITableViewController to display inside a UITabBarController

- by Paul Johnston

I've programmatically created a UITabBarController that is loaded in my App Delegate like this: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; myTableViewController = [[MyTableViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tableNavController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:myTableViewController] autorelease]; myTableViewController.title = @"Tab 1"; [myTableViewController release]; mySecondTableViewController = [[MySecondTableViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *table2NavController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:mySecondTableViewController] autorelease]; mySecondTableViewController.title = @"Tab 2"; [mySecondTableViewController release]; tabBarController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:tableNavController, table2NavController, nil]; [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Now the issue I have is that I can get into the views no problem, but when I try and click onto any item in the Table View, I can't get a secondary table view to appear in any tab. The tabs work absolutely fine, just the secondary views. I'm using the code below in my myTableViewController to run when selecting a specific row (the code reaches the HELP line, and crashes)... - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; // this gets the correct view controller from a list of controllers SecondaryViewController *svc = [self.controllers objectAtIndex:row]; /*** HELP NEEDED WITH THIS LINE ***/ [self.navigationController pushViewController:svc animated:YES]; } Simply put, I'm trying to switch views to the new view controller whilst keeping the tabs available and using the navigation to go back and forth (like in the iTunes App). Any help appreciated. Thanks

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jquery jeditable pass multiple values...

- by Scott

Alright totally new to jeditable, Say I have some <div>'s and <input type='hidden' /> items that are generated dynamically with PHP like this: <?php while($row = $db->fetch_assoc($query)) : ?> <input name="hiddenID" type="hidden" value="<?php echo $row['id'] ?>" <div class="items"><?php echo $row['item']; ?></div> <?php endwhile; ?> Which gives me say...this: 1 //hidden value item1 2 //hidden value item2 3 //hidden value item3 And a jeditable inline-edit script to go along with it: hidden = $(".items").siblings("[name=hiddenID]").val(); //using a global var..don't know how to pass it into the editable function. $(".items").editable('save.php', { type : 'text', tooltip : 'Double-Click to edit...', onblur : 'submit', event : 'dblclick', submitdata : function() { return {id : hidden }; //how do I pass mutiple hiddenID values?? } }); I am wondering how to pass multiple values into the editable function. The way I've shown here only passes one value...the first row.

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python win32com EXCEL data input error

- by Rafal

Welcome, I'm exporting results of my script into Excel spreadsheet. Everything works fine, I put big sets of data into SpreadSheet, but sometimes an error occurs: File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\win32com\client\dynamic.py", line 550, in __setattr__ self._oleobj_.Invoke(entry.dispid, 0, invoke_type, 0, value) pywintypes.com_error: (-2147352567, 'Exception.', (0, None, None, None, 0, -2146777998), None)*** I suppose It's not a problem of input data format. I put several different types of data strings, ints, floats, lists and it works fine. When I run the sript for the second time it works fine - no error. What's going on? PS. This is code that generates error, what's strange is that the error doesn't occur always. Say 30% of runs results in an error. : import win32com.client def Generate_Excel_Report(): Excel=win32com.client.Dispatch("Excel.Application") Excel.Workbooks.Add(1) Cells=Excel.ActiveWorkBook.ActiveSheet.Cells for i in range(100): Row=int(35+i) for j in range(10): Cells(int(Row),int(5+j)).Value="string" for i in range(100): Row=int(135+i) for j in range(10): Cells(int(Row),int(5+j)).Value=32.32 #float Generate_Excel_Report() The strangest for me is that when I run the script with the same code, the same input many times, then sometimes an error occurs, sometimes not. Thanks in advance for any help

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