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• Revisiting .NET, but what should I focus on?

  - by Wayne M

  After about a two-year hiatus, I'm brushing up on my .NET skills to find a .NET job (my previous two positions have very little development, or development using legacy technologies, so apart from a few very minor apps I have not touched .NET in close to two years). I'm aware of things like ASP.NET MVC, and I have previously read on things like NHibernate and DI/IOC, albeit I have yet to use them apart from very trivial "Hello World" type applications. I have a subscription to Rob Conery's Tekpub website and occasionally watch these videos when I have free time. My concern is this: I don't live in a very technical area. I would be surprised if any but the most tech-savvy companies have heard of, let alone use, ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate (or even LINQ/EF), or know about IoC. I would be willing to bet a large sum of money that 95% of the possible jobs I could obtain will use the following: Visual Source Safe, if any VCS at all ASP.NET 2.0 Webforms (3.5 if lucky) Raw ADO.NET on top of a very thin implementation of the Gateway pattern Stored Procedures in the database for most CRUD operations Gratuitous use of code-behind, with a Service layer if I'm lucky If I were extremely lucky, I might find a shop that has heard of ORMs and either uses one, or has wrote their own data abstraction. Also if I were lucky, the company would be using Model-View-Presenter. In light of this I'm not sure what I should focus on learning. Personally, I would prefer to be using the latest stuff - ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate, jQuery, WCF etc. Reality says I should go back to the basics, since it looks like most potential opportunities aren't going to be anywhere near the cutting edge, or anywhere close to it. And, as much as I would like to find a position and start to show the other developers the benefits, in my past experience this has usually resulted in my being fired for "not being a team player" and doing things the bad old way. So, I am curious how you would approach a situation like this? What should I focus on, in order to A) Reaquaint myself with .NET, and B) Prepare myself to obtain a .NET job again that is more than likely going to use techniques that I and most other knowledgeable developers will scoff at?

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• CGContextDrawPDFPage doesn't seem to persist in CGContext

  - by erichf

  I am trying to access the pixels of a CGContext written to with a PDF, but the bitmap buffer doesn't seem to update. Any help would be appreciated: //Get the reference to our current page pageRef = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(docRef, iCurrentPage); //Start with a media crop, but see if we can shrink to smaller crop CGRect pdfRect1 = CGRectIntegral(CGPDFPageGetBoxRect(pageRef, kCGPDFMediaBox)); CGRect r1 = CGRectIntegral(CGPDFPageGetBoxRect(pageRef, kCGPDFCropBox)); if (!CGRectIsEmpty(r1)) pdfRect1 = r1; int wide = pdfRect1.size.width + pdfRect1.origin.x; int high = pdfRect1.size.height + pdfRect1.origin.y; CGContextRef ctxBuffer = NULL; CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace; UInt8* bitmapData; int bitmapByteCount; int bitmapBytesPerRow; bitmapBytesPerRow = (wide * 4); bitmapByteCount = (bitmapBytesPerRow * high); colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); bitmapData = malloc( bitmapByteCount ); if (bitmapData == NULL) { DebugLog (@"Memory not allocated!"); return; } ctxBuffer = CGBitmapContextCreate (bitmapData, wide, high, 8, // bits per component bitmapBytesPerRow, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast | kCGBitmapByteOrder32Big); // if (ctxBuffer== NULL) { free (bitmapData); DebugLog (@"Context not created!"); return; } CGColorSpaceRelease( colorSpace ); //White out the current context CGContextSetRGBFillColor(ctxBuffer, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); CGContextFillRect(ctxBuffer, CGContextGetClipBoundingBox(ctxBuffer)); CGContextDrawPDFPage(ctxBuffer, pageRef); //!!!This displays just fine to the context passed in from - (void)drawLayer:(CALayer *)layer inContext:(CGContextRef)ctx. That is, I can see the PDf page rendered, so we know ctxBuffer was created correctly //However, if I view bitmapData in memory, it only shows as 0xFF (or whatever fill color I use) CGImageRef img = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(ctxBuffer); CGContextDrawImage(ctx, tiledLayer.frame, img); void *data = CGBitmapContextGetData (ctx); for (int i = 0; i < wide; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < high; j++) { //All of the bytes show as 0xFF (or whatever fill color I test with)?! int byteIndex = (j * 4) + i * 4; UInt8 red = bitmapData[byteIndex]; UInt8 green = bitmapData[byteIndex + 1]; UInt8 blue = bitmapData[byteIndex + 2]; UInt8 alpha = m_PixelBuf[byteIndex + 3]; } } I have also tried using CGDataProviderCopyData(CGImageGetDataProvider(img)) & CFDataGetBytePtr, but the results are the same?

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• How much abstraction is too much?

  - by Daniel Bingham

  In an Object Oriented Program: How much abstraction is too much? How much is just right? I have always been a nuts and bolts kind of guy. I understood the concept behind high levels of encapsulation and abstraction, but always felt instinctively that adding too much would just confuse the program. I always tried to shoot for an amount of abstraction that left no empty classes or layers. And where in doubt, instead of adding a new layer to the hierarchy, I would try and fit something into the existing layers. However, recently I've been encountering more highly abstracted systems. Systems where everything that could require a representation later in the hierarchy gets one up front. This leads to a lot of empty layers, which at first seems like bad design. However, on second thought I've come to realize that leaving those empty layers gives you more places to hook into in the future with out much refactoring. It leaves you greater ability to add new functionality on top of the old with out doing nearly as much work to adjust the old. The two risks of this seem to be that you could get the layers you need wrong. In this case one would wind up still needing to do substantial refactoring to extend the code and would still have a ton of never used layers. But depending on how much time you spend coming up with the initial abstractions, the chance of screwing it up, and the time that could be saved later if you get it right - it may still be worth it to try. The other risk I can think of is the risk of over doing it and never needing all the extra layers. But is that really so bad? Are extra class layers really so expensive that it is much of a loss if they are never used? The biggest expense and loss here would be time that is lost up front coming up with the layers. But much of that time still might be saved later when one can work with the abstracted code rather than more low level code. So when is it too much? At what point do the empty layers and extra "might need" abstractions become overkill? How little is too little? Where's the sweet spot? Are there any dependable rules of thumb you've found in the course of your career that help you judge the amount of abstraction needed?

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• C# Design Questions

  - by guazz

  How to approach unit testing of private methods? I have a class that loads Employee data into a database. Here is a sample: public class EmployeeFacade { public Employees EmployeeRepository = new Employees(); public TaxDatas TaxRepository = new TaxDatas(); public Accounts AccountRepository = new Accounts(); //and so on for about 20 more repositories etc. public bool LoadAllEmployeeData(Employee employee) { if (employee == null) throw new Exception("..."); EmployeeRepository emps = new EmployeeRepository(); bool exists = emps.FetchExisting(emps.Id); if (!exists) { emps.AddNew(); } try { emps.Id = employee.Id; emps.Name = employee.EmployeeDetails.PersonalDetails.Active.Names.FirstName; emps.SomeOtherAttribute; } catch() {} try { emps.Save(); } catch(){} try { LoadorUpdateTaxData(employee.TaxData); } catch() {} try { LoadorUpdateAccountData(employee.AccountData); } catch() {} ... etc. for about 20 more other employee objects } private bool LoadorUpdateTaxData(employeeId, TaxData taxData) { if (taxData == null) throw new Exception("..."); ...same format as above but using AccountRepository } private bool LoadorUpdateAccountData(employee.TaxData) { ...same format as above but using TaxRepository } } I am writing an application to take serialised objects(e.g. Employee above) and load the data to the database. I have a few design question that I would like opinions on: A - I am calling this class "EmployeeFacade" because I am (attempting?) to use the facade pattern. Is it good practace to name the pattern on the class name? B - Is it good to call the concrete entities of my DAL layer classes "Repositories" e.g. "EmployeeRepository" ? C - Is using the repositories in this way sensible or should I create a method on the repository itself to take, say, the Employee and then load the data from there e.g. EmployeeRepository.LoadAllEmployeeData(Employee employee)? I am aim for cohesive class and but this will requrie the repository to have knowledge of the Employee object which may not be good? D - Is there any nice way around of not having to check if an object is null at the begining of each method? E - I have a EmployeeRepository, TaxRepository, AccountRepository declared as public for unit testing purpose. These are really private enities but I need to be able to substitute these with stubs so that the won't write to my database(I overload the save() method to do nothing). Is there anyway around this or do I have to expose them? F - How can I test the private methods - or is this done (something tells me it's not)? G- "emps.Name = employee.EmployeeDetails.PersonalDetails.Active.Names.FirstName;" this breaks the Law of Demeter but how do I adjust my objects to abide by the law?

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• Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

  - by Nader

  Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos; }

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• Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

  - by Nader

  Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos;

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• Does my fat-client application belong in the MVC pattern?

  - by boatingcow

  The web-based application I’m currently working on is growing arms and legs! It’s basically an administration system which helps users to keep track of bookings, user accounts, invoicing etc. It can also be accessed via a couple of different websites using a fairly crude API. The fat-client design loosely follows the MVC pattern (or perhaps MVP) with a php/MySQL backend, Front Controller, several dissimilar Page Controllers, a liberal smattering of object-oriented and procedural Models, a confusing bunch of Views and templates, some JavaScripts, CSS files and Flash objects. The programmer in me is a big fan of the principle of “Separation of Concerns” and on that note, I’m currently trying to figure out the best way to separate and combine the various concerns as the project grows and more people contribute to it. The problem we’re facing is that although JavaScript (or Flash with ActionScript) is normally written with the template, hence part of the View and decoupled from the Controller and Model, we find that it actually encompasses the entire MVC pattern... Swap an image with an onmouseover event - that’s Behaviour. Render a datagrid - we’re manipulating the View. Send the result of reordering a list via AJAX - now we’re in Control. Check a form field to see if an email address is in a valid format - we’re consulting the Model. Is it wise to let the database people write up the validation Model with jQuery? Can the php programmers write the necessary Control structures in JavaScript? Can the web designers really write a functional AJAX form for their View? Should there be a JavaScript overlord for every project? If the MVC pattern could be applied to the people instead of the code, we would end up with this: Model - the database boffins - “SELECT * FROM mind WHERE interested IS NULL” Control - pesky programmers - “class Something extends NothingAbstractClass{…}” View - traditionally the domain of the graphic/web designer - “” …and a new layer: Behaviour - interaction and feedback designer - “CSS3 is the new black…” So, we’re refactoring and I’d like to stick to best practice design, but I’m not sure how to proceed. I don’t want to reinvent the wheel, so would anyone have any hints or tips as to what pattern I should be looking at or any code samples from someone who’s already done the dirty work? As the programmer guy, how can I rewrite the app for backend and front end whilst keeping the two separate? And before you ask, yes I’ve looked at Zend, CodeIgnitor, Symfony, etc., and no, they don’t seem to cross the boundary between server logic and client logic!

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• How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

  - by FreshCode

  I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

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• When is it worth using a BindingSource?

  - by Justin

  I think I understand well enough what the BindingSource class does - i.e. provide a layer of indirection between a data source and a UI control. It implements the IBindingList interface and therefore also provides support for sorting. And I've used it frequently enough, without too many problems. But I'm wondering if I use it more often than I should. Perhaps an example would help. Let's say I have just a simple textbox on a form (using WinForms), and I'd like to bind that textbox to a simple property inside a class that returns a string. Is it worth using a BindingSource in this situation? Now let's say I have a grid on my form, and I'd like to bind it to a DataTable. Should I use a BindingSource now? In the latter case, I probably would not use a BindingSource, as a DataTable, from what I can gather, provides the same functionality that the BindingSource itself would. The DataTable will fire the the right events when a row is added, deleted, etc so that the grid will automatically update. But in the first case with the textbox being bound to a string, I would probably have the class that contains the string property implement INotifyPropertyChanged, so that it could fire the PropertyChanged event when the string changes. I would use a BindingSource so that it could listen to these PropertyChanged events so that it could update the textbox automatically when the string changes. How does this sound so far? I still feel like there's a gap in my understanding that's preventing me from seeing the whole picture. This has been a pretty vague question so far, so I'll try to ask some more specific questions - ideally the answers will reference the above examples or something similar... (1) Is it worth using a BindingSource in either of the above examples? (2) It seems that developers just "assume" that the DataTable class will do the right thing, in firing PropertyChanged events at the right time. How does one know if a data source is capable of doing this? Is there a particular interface that a data source should implement in order for developers to be able to assume this behaviour? (3) Does it matter what Control is being bound to, when considering whether or not to use a BindingSource? Or is it only the data source that should affect the decision? Perhaps the answer is (and this would seem logical enough): the Control needs to be intelligent enough to listen to the PropertyChanged events, otherwise a BindingSource is required. So how does one tell if the Control is capable of doing this? Again, is there a particular interface that developers can look for that the Control must implement? It is this confusion that has, in the past, led to me always using a BindingSource. But I'd like to understand better exactly when to use one, so that I do so only when necessary.

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• Should an event-sourced aggregate root have query access to the event sourcing repository?

  - by JD Courtoy

  I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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• LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

  - by bradhe

  So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

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• Custom validator not invoked when using Validation Application Block through configuration

  - by Chris

  I have set up a ruleset in my configuration file which has two validators, one of which is a built-in NotNullValidator, the other of which is a custom validator. The problem is that I see the NotNullValidator hit, but not my custom validator. The custom validator is being used to validate an Entity Framework entity object. I have used the debugger to confirm the NotNull is hit (I forced a failure condition so I saw it set an invalid result), but it never steps into the custom one. I am using MVC as the web app, so I defined the ruleset in a config file at that layer, but my custom validator is defined in another project. However, I wouldn't have thought that to be a problem because when I use the Enterprise Library Configuration tool inside Visual Studio 2008 it is able to set the type properly for the custom validator. As well, I believe the custom validator is fine as it builds ok, and the config tool can reference it properly. Does anybody have any ideas what the problem could be, or even what to do/try to debug further? Here is a stripped down version of my custom validator: [ConfigurationElementType(typeof(CustomValidatorData))] public sealed class UserAccountValidator : Validator { public UserAccountValidator(NameValueCollection attributes) : base(string.Empty, "User Account") { } protected override string DefaultMessageTemplate { get { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } protected override void DoValidate(object objectToValidate, object currentTarget, string key, ValidationResults results) { if (!currentTarget.GetType().Equals(typeof(UserAccount))) { throw new Exception(); } UserAccount userAccountToValidate = (UserAccount)currentTarget; // snipped code ... this.LogValidationResult(results, "The User Account is invalid", currentTarget, key); } } Here is the XML of my ruleset in Validation.config (the NotNull rule is only there to force a failure so I could see it getting hit, and it does): <validation> <type defaultRuleset="default" assemblyName="MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="MyProj.Entities.UserAccount"> <ruleset name="default"> <properties> <property name="HashedPassword"> <validator negated="true" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.NotNullValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" name="Not Null Validator" /> </property> <property name="Property"> <validator messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="MyProj.Entities.UserAccountValidator, MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="Custom Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> </type> </validation> And here is the stripped down version of the way I invoke the validation: var type = entity.GetType() var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator(type, "default", new FileConfigurationSource("Validation.config")) var results = validator.Validate(entity) Any advice would be much appreciated! Thanks, Chris

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• Is it worth moving from stored procedures to linq ?

  - by Josef

  I'm looking at standardizing programming in an organisaiton. Half uses stored procedures and the other half Linq. From what i've read there is still some debate going on on this topic. My concern is that MS is trying to slip in it's own proprietry query language 'linq' to make SQL redundant. If a few years back microsoft had tried to win customers from oracle and sybase with their MSSQL database and stated that it didn't use SQL by their own proprietry query langues ie linq. I doubt many would have switched. I believe that is exactly what is happening now by introducting it into the applicaiton business layer. I have used MS for many years but there is one gripe that I have with them and that is that they change their direction a lot. By a lot I mean new releases of .net, silverlight etc are more than 30% different from previous version. So by the time you become productive a new release is on the way. As things stand now a web developer using .net would need to know either vb.net or c#, xml, xaml,javascript,html, sql and now linq. That doesn't make for good productivity in my books. My concern is that once we all start using linq MS will start changing it between releases. and it will become an ever changing landscape. I believe that 'linq to sql' has already been deprecated. At leas with SQL we are dealing with a more stable and standardized language. Are we looking at a programming revolution or a marketing campaign? As far as I know other languages like Cobol have stayed the same for years. A cobol program from 20 years ago could pick up todays code and start working on it. Could a Vb3 person work on a modern .net web app ? Would these large changes need to be made if the underlying original foundation had been sound ? I worry about following MS shaking roadmap with it's deadends and double backs. are there any architects out there who feel the same ? regards Josef

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• How to get jQuery draggable elements scroll with mb.imageNavigator

  - by bulltorious

  I am using jQuery mb.imageNavigator (1.8) from http://pupunzi.open-lab.com/mb-jquery-components/mb-imagenavigator/ to implements a Risk type game adjucation system. Using the imageNavigator plugin I am able to scroll around a large game map of the world. My issue is when I declare some elements as draggable and drag them onto the map image, their location does not stay relative to where in the picture I put them. They just stay fixed on the screen no matter where I scroll. Does anyone know how to make the the draggable elements scroll with the image? Matteo posts about "you can add an additional content layer that overlay image and moves with it" and posts an example, but I can't make it work. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> ` <head> <script type="text/jscript" src="lib/jquery/jquery-1.3.2.js"> </script> <script type="text/jscript" src="lib/jquery/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"> </script> <script type="text/jscript" src="lib/utilities/mbImgNav.min.js_0.js"> </script> <script type="text/jscript" src="lib/utilities/start.js"> </script> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>New Web Project</title> </head> <body> <div id="AdamsAshTray" style="float:right; background-color:red; z-index:999"> test test test </div> <div id="navArea"> <div imageUrl="someimage" navPosition="BR" navWidth="100" style="display:none;" class="imagesContainer"> <span class="title">zuccheriera</span> <div class="description"> <STRONG>description1</STRONG> </div> </div> </div> </body> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#navArea").imageNavigator({ areaWidth:1820, areaHeight:1000, draggerStyle: "1px dotted red", navOpacity: .8 }) $("#AdamsAshTray").draggable({ grid: [20,20] }); })`

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• ASP.NET FormView: "Object of type 'System.Int32' cannot be converted to type 'System.String"

  - by Vinzcent

  Hey I have a problem with my FromView. I would like to show some data from a Database Table in my FormView. But some data is from the tupe Int32, while this data should be in a TextBox, a string. How do you convert these Int32's. FormView and my ObjectDataSource <asp:FormView ID="fvDetailOrder" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> Aantal:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label15" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("COUNT") %>' /><br /> Prijs:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label16" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PRICE") %>' /><br /> Korting:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label17" runat="server" Text='' /><br /> Totaal:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label18" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("AMOUNT") %>' /><br /> Betaald:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label19" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PAID") %>' /><br /> Datum betaling:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label20" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PDATE") %>' /><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="objdsOrderID" runat="server" OnSelecting="objdsOrderID_Selecting" SelectMethod="getOrdersByID" TypeName="DAL.OrdersDAL"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="id" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> My Code behind protected void gvOrdersAdmin_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { fvDetailOrder.DataSource = objdsOrderID; fvDetailOrder.DataBind(); // <-- HERE I GET THE ERROR } protected void objdsOrderID_Selecting(object sender, ObjectDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.InputParameters["id"] = gvOrdersAdmin.DataKeys[gvOrdersAdmin.SelectedRow.RowIndex].Values[0]; ; } My Data Acces Layer public static DataTable getOrdersByID(string id) { string sql = "SELECT 'AUTHOR' = tblAuthors.FIRSTNAME + ' ' + tblAuthors.LASTNAME, tblBooks.*, tblGenres.*, tblLanguages.*, tblOrders.* FROM tblAuthors INNER JOIN tblBooks ON tblAuthors.AUTHOR_ID = tblBooks.AUTHOR_ID INNER JOIN tblGenres ON tblBooks.GENRE_ID = tblGenres.GENRE_ID INNER JOIN tblLanguages ON tblBooks.LANG_ID = tblLanguages.LANG_ID INNER JOIN tblOrders ON tblBooks.BOOK_ID = tblOrders.BOOK_ID" + " WHERE tblOrders.ID = @id;"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, GetConnectionString()); da.SelectCommand.Parameters["id"].Value = id; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Orders"); return ds.Tables["Orders"]; } Thanks a lot, Vincent

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• ItemsControl ItemTemplate Binding

  - by Wonko the Sane

  Hi All, In WPF4.0, I have a class that contains other class types as properties (combining multiple data types for display). Something like: public partial class Owner { public string OwnerName { get; set; } public int OwnerId { get; set; } } partial class ForDisplay { public Owner OwnerData { get; set; } public int Credit { get; set; } } In my window, I have an ItemsControl with the following (clipped for clarity): <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I then get a collection of display information from the data layer, and set the DataContext of the ItemsControl to this collection. The "Credit" property gets displayed correctly, but the OwnerName property does not. Instead, I get a binding error: Error 40: BindingExpression path error: 'OwnerName' property not found on 'object' ''ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874)'. BindingExpression:Path=OwnerName; DataItem='ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874); target element is 'TextBlock' (Name=txtOwnerName'); target property is 'Text' (type 'String') I don't understand why this is attempting to look for the OwnerName property in the ForDisplay class, rather than in the Owner class from the ForDisplay OwnerData property. Edit It appears that it has something to do with using the custom control. If I bind the same properties to a TextBlock, they work correctly. <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding OwnerData.OwnerName}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Credit}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> Thanks, wTs

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• Drawing a texture with an alpha channel doesn't work -- draws black

  - by DevDevDev

  I am modifying GLPaint to use a different background, so in this case it is white. Anyway the existing stamp they are using assumes the background is black, so I made a new background with an alpha channel. When I draw on the canvas it is still black, what gives? When I actually draw, I just bind the texture and it works. Something is wrong in this initialization. Here is the photo - (id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { CGImageRef brushImage; CGContextRef brushContext; GLubyte *brushData; size_t width, height; if (self = [super initWithCoder:coder]) { CAEAGLLayer *eaglLayer = (CAEAGLLayer *)self.layer; eaglLayer.opaque = YES; // In this application, we want to retain the EAGLDrawable contents after a call to presentRenderbuffer. eaglLayer.drawableProperties = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], kEAGLDrawablePropertyRetainedBacking, kEAGLColorFormatRGBA8, kEAGLDrawablePropertyColorFormat, nil]; context = [[EAGLContext alloc] initWithAPI:kEAGLRenderingAPIOpenGLES1]; if (!context || ![EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]) { [self release]; return nil; } // Create a texture from an image // First create a UIImage object from the data in a image file, and then extract the Core Graphics image brushImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"test.png"].CGImage; // Get the width and height of the image width = CGImageGetWidth(brushImage); height = CGImageGetHeight(brushImage); // Texture dimensions must be a power of 2. If you write an application that allows users to supply an image, // you'll want to add code that checks the dimensions and takes appropriate action if they are not a power of 2. // Make sure the image exists if(brushImage) { brushData = (GLubyte *) calloc(width * height * 4, sizeof(GLubyte)); brushContext = CGBitmapContextCreate(brushData, width, width, 8, width * 4, CGImageGetColorSpace(brushImage), kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CGContextDrawImage(brushContext, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, (CGFloat)width, (CGFloat)height), brushImage); CGContextRelease(brushContext); glGenTextures(1, &brushTexture); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, brushTexture); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, brushData); free(brushData); } //Set up OpenGL states glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); CGRect frame = self.bounds; glOrthof(0, frame.size.width, 0, frame.size.height, -1, 1); glViewport(0, 0, frame.size.width, frame.size.height); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glDisable(GL_DITHER); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_DST_ALPHA); glEnable(GL_POINT_SPRITE_OES); glTexEnvf(GL_POINT_SPRITE_OES, GL_COORD_REPLACE_OES, GL_TRUE); glPointSize(width / kBrushScale); } return self; }

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• str is not callable error in python .

  - by mekasperasky

  import sys import md5 from TOSSIM import * from RadioCountMsg import * t = Tossim([]) #The Tossim object is defined here m = t.mac()#The mac layer is defined here , in which the communication takes place r = t.radio()#The radio communication link object is defined here , as the communication needs Rf frequency to transfer t.addChannel("RadioCountToLedsC", sys.stdout)# The various channels through which communication will take place t.addChannel("LedsC", sys.stdout) #The no of nodes that would be required in the simulation has to be entered here print("enter the no of nodes you want ") n=input() for i in range(0, n): m = t.getNode(i) m.bootAtTime((31 + t.ticksPerSecond() / 10) * i + 1) #The booting time is defined so that the time at which the node would be booted is given f = open("topo.txt", "r") #The topography is defined in topo.txt so that the RF frequencies of the transmission between nodes are are set lines = f.readlines() for line in lines: s = line.split() if (len(s) > 0): if (s[0] == "gain"): r.add(int(s[1]), int(s[2]), float(s[3])) #The topogrography is added to the radio object noise = open("meyer-heavy.txt", "r") #The noise model is defined for the nodes lines = noise.readlines() for line in lines: str = line.strip() if (str != ""): val = int(str) for i in range(0, 4): t.getNode(i).addNoiseTraceReading(val) for i in range (0, n): t.getNode(i).createNoiseModel() #The noise model is created for each node for i in range(0,n): t.runNextEvent() fk=open("key.txt","w") for i in range(0,n): if i ==0 : key=raw_input() fk.write(key) ak=key key=md5.new() key.update(str(ak)) ak=key.digest() fk.write(ak) fk.close() fk=open("key.txt","w") plaint=open("pt.txt") for i in range(0,n): msg = RadioCountMsg() msg.set_counter(7) pkt = t.newPacket()#A packet is defined according to a certain format print("enter message to be transported") ms=raw_input()#The message to be transported is taken as input #The RC5 encryption has to be done here plaint.write(ms) pkt.setData(msg.data) pkt.setType(msg.get_amType()) pkt.setDestination(i+1)#The destination to which the packet will be sent is set print "Delivering " + " to" ,i+1 pkt.deliver(i+1, t.time() + 3) fk.close() print "the key to be displayed" ki=raw_input() fk=open("key.txt") for i in range(0,n): if i==ki: ms=fk.readline() for i in range(0,n): msg=RadioCountMsg() msg.set_counter(7) pkt=t.newPacket() msg.data=ms pkt.setData(msg.data) pkt.setType(msg.get_amType()) pkt.setDestination(i+1) pkt.deliver(i+1,t.time()+3) #The key has to be broadcasted here so that the decryption can take place for i in range(0, n): t.runNextEvent(); this code gives me error here key.update(str(ak)) . when i run a similar code on the python terminal there is no such error but this code pops up an error . why so?

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• Am I using EJBs properly?

  - by kgrad

  I am using a JEE6 stack including JPA 2.0, JSF 2.0, EJB 3.1 etc. The way my architecture is setup is the following: I have JPA annotated DAOs using hibernate as my JPA provider. I have JSF Managed beans which correspond to my facelet/xhtml pages. I have EJBs that handle all of my database requests. My XHTML pages have JSF EL which make calls to my Managed beans. My managed beans contain references to my DAO entities which are managed by EJBs. For example, I have a user entity which is mapped to a db table. I have a user EJB which handles all CRUD operations that return Users. I have a page that edits a user. The highlevel workflow would be: navigate to user edit page - EL calls a method located in the managed bean that loads a user. The method calls userEJB.loadUser(user) from the EJB to get the user from the database. The user is edited and submit - a function is called in the managed bean which calls a function in the EJB to save the user. etc. I am running into issues accessing my data within my JSF pages using EJBs. I am having a lot of problems with lazy initialization errors, which I believe is due to how I have set things up. For example, I have a Client entity that has a List of users which are lazily loaded. In order to get a client I call a method in my EJB which goes to the database, finds a client and returns it. Later on i wish to access this clients list of users, in order to do so i have to go back to the EJB by calling some sort of method in order to load those users (since they are lazily loaded). This means that I have to create a method such as public List<User> getUserListByClient(Client c) { c = em.merge(c); return c.getUserList(); } The only purpose of this method is to load the users (and I'm not even positive this approach is good or works). If i was doing session management myself, I would like just leave the session open for the entire request and access the property directly, this would be fine as the session would be open anyway, there seems to be this one extra layer of indirection in EJBs which is making things difficult for me. I do like EJBs as I like the fact that they are controlled by the container, pooled, offer transaction management for free etc. However, I get the feeling that I am using them incorrectly, or I have set up my JSF app incorrectly. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated. thanks,

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• How to Configure SSL over Database in Spring?

  - by Sameer Malhotra

  Hi, I want to add SSL security in the Database layer. I am using Struts2.1.6, Spring 2.5, JBOSS 5.0 and Informix 11.5. Any idea how to do this? I have researched through a lot on the internet but could not find any solution. Please suggest! Here is my datasource and entity manager beans which is working perfect without SSL: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="database" value="INFORMIX" /> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:informix-sqli://SERVER_NAME:9088/DB_NAME:INFORMIXSERVER=SERVER_NAME;DELIMIDENT=y;" /> <property name="username" value="username" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="minIdle" value="2" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.MethodInvokingFactoryBean" lazy-init="false"> <property name="targetObject" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="targetMethod" value="addConnectionProperty" /> <property name="arguments"> <list> <value>characterEncoding</value> <value>UTF-8</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="jdbcTemplate" class="org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate" scope="prototype"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager" />

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• WCF doesn't find client configuration

  - by ultraman69

  Hi ! I have a WCF service on server B. Then on the machine A is the client, which is a Windows service. In a separate dll stands all the business logic for this service. So my proxy for the WCF is on that side. I have 2 app.config (client side only) : 1 for the service and another one in the dll. So I tried (for test purpose) puting the servicemodel config section in both. Both still, it doesn't work, it says that it can't find the endpoint with that name and for that contract... What I'm trying to do here is modify the configuration programatically. Here' the code in the business layer dll : Dim ep As New EndpointAddress(New Uri(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(nomServeurCible)), _ EndpointIdentity.CreateDnsIdentity(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("Identity_" & nomServeurCible))) serviceCible = New ServiceProxy.ExecOperClient("wsHttp", ep) And here is a sample of the config file : <add key="TEST1" value="http://TEST1:8000/MySpacePerso/ExecOperService"/> <add key="TEST1_CertificateSerialNumber" value="10 hj 6y 7b 00 01 32 12 01 21"/> <add key="Identity_TEST1" value="TEST1"/> <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://SERV_NAME:8000/CSSTQDA/ExecOperService" binding="wsHttpBinding" behaviorConfiguration="myClientBehavior" bindingConfiguration="MybindingCon" contract="ExecOper.Service.IExecOper" name="wsHttp"> <identity> <dns value="SERV_CERT_NAME"/> </identity> </endpoint> </client> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="MybindingCon"> <security mode="Message"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceTraitementBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="myClientBehavior"> <clientCredentials> <serviceCertificate> <authentication certificateValidationMode="ChainTrust" revocationMode="NoCheck"/> </serviceCertificate> </clientCredentials> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors>

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• How to call base abstract or interface from DAL into BLL?

  - by programmerist

  How can i access abstract class in BLL ? i shouldn't see GenAccessor in BLL it must be private class GenAccessor . i should access Save method over _AccessorForSQL. ok? MY BLL cs: public class AccessorForSQL: GenoTip.DAL._AccessorForSQL { public bool Save(string Name, string SurName, string Adress) { ListDictionary ld = new ListDictionary(); ld.Add("@Name", Name); ld.Add("@SurName", SurName); ld.Add("@Adress", Adress); return **base.Save("sp_InsertCustomers", ld, CommandType.StoredProcedure);** } } i can not access base.Save....???????? it is my DAL Layer: namespace GenoTip.DAL { public abstract class _AccessorForSQL { public abstract bool Save(string sp, ListDictionary ld, CommandType cmdType); public abstract bool Update(); public abstract bool Delete(); public abstract DataSet Select(); } private class GenAccessor : _AccessorForSQL { DataSet ds; DataTable dt; public override bool Save(string sp, ListDictionary ld, CommandType cmdType) { SqlConnection con = null; SqlCommand cmd = null; SqlDataReader dr = null; try { con = GetConnection(); cmd = new SqlCommand(sp, con); con.Open(); cmd.CommandType = cmdType; foreach (string ky in ld.Keys) { cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(ky, ld[ky]); } dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); ds = new DataSet(); dt = new DataTable(); ds.Tables.Add(dt); ds.Load(dr, LoadOption.OverwriteChanges, dt); } catch (Exception exp) { HttpContext.Current.Trace.Warn("Error in GetCustomerByID()", exp.Message, exp); } finally { if (dr != null) dr.Close(); if (con != null) con.Close(); } return (ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count 0) ? true : false; } public override bool Update() { return true; } public override bool Delete() { return true; } public override DataSet Select() { DataSet dst = new DataSet(); return dst; } private static SqlConnection GetConnection() { string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ConnectionString; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); return conn; }

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• JPA One To Many Relationship Persistence Bug

  - by Brian

  Hey folks, I've got a really weird problem with a bi-directional relationship in jpa (hibernate implementation). A User is based in one Region, and a Region can contain many Users. So...relationship is as follows: Region object: @OneToMany(mappedBy = "region", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Set<User> getUsers() { return users; } public void setUsers(Set<User> users) { this.users = users; } User object: @ManyToOne(cascade = {CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.MERGE}, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name = "region_fk") public Region getRegion() { return region; } public void setRegion(Region region) { this.region = region; } So, the relationship as you can see above is Lazy on the region side, ie, I don't want the region to eager load all the users. Therefore, I have the following code within my DAO layer to add a user to an existing user to an existing region object... public User setRegionForUser(String username, Long regionId){ Region r = (Region) this.get(Region.class, regionId); User u = (User) this.get(User.class, username); u.setRegion(r); Set<User> users = r.getUsers(); users.add(u); System.out.println("The number of users in the set is: "+users.size()); r.setUsers(users); this.update(r); return (User)this.update(u); } The problem is, when I run a little unit test to add 5 users to my region object, I see that the region.getUsers() set always stays stuck at 1 object...somehow the set isn't getting added to. My unit test code is as follows: public void setUp(){ System.out.println("calling setup method"); Region r = (Region)ManagerFactory.getCountryAndRegionManager().get(Region.class, Long.valueOf("2")); for(int i = 0; i<loop; i++){ User u = new User(); u.setUsername("username_"+i); ManagerFactory.getUserManager().update(u); ManagerFactory.getUserManager().setRegionForUser("username_"+i, Long.valueOf("2")); } } public void tearDown(){ System.out.println("calling teardown method"); for(int i = 0; i<loop; i++){ ManagerFactory.getUserManager().deleteUser("username_"+i); } } public void testGetUsersForRegion(){ Set<User> totalUsers = ManagerFactory.getCountryAndRegionManager().getUsersInRegion(Long.valueOf("2")); System.out.println("Expecting 5, got: "+totalUsers.size()); this.assertEquals(5, totalUsers.size()); } So the test keeps failing saying there is only 1 user instead of the expected 5. Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? thanks very much, Brian

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• Using JUnit as an acceptance test framework

  - by Chris Knight

  OK, so I work for a company who has openly adopted agile practices for development in recent years. Our unit tests and code quality are improving. One area we still are working on is to find what works best for us in the automated acceptance test arena. We want to take our well formed user stories and use these to drive the code in a test driven manner. This will also give us acceptance level tests for each user story which we can then automate. To date, we've tried Fit, Fitnesse and Selenium. Each have their advantages, but we've also had real issues with them as well. With Fit and Fitnesse, we can't help but feel they overcomplicate things and we've had many technical issues using them. The business haven't fully bought in these tools and aren't particularly keen on maintaining the scripts all the time (and aren't big fans of the table style). Selenium is really good, but slow and relies on real time data and resources. One approach we are now considering is the use of the JUnit framework to provide similiar functionality. Rather than testing just a small unit of work using JUnit, why not use it to write a test (using the JUnit framework) to cover an acceptance level swath of the application? I.e. take a new story ("As a user I would like to see basic details of my policy...") and write a test in JUnit which starts executing application code at the point of entry for the policy details link but covers all code and logic down to the stubbed data access layer and back to the point of forwarding to the next page in the application, asserting on what data the user should see on that page. This seems to me to have the following advantages: Simplicity (no additional frameworks required) Zero effort to integrate with our Continuous Integration build server (since it already handles our JUnit tests) Full skillset already present in the team (its just a JUnit test after all) And the downsides being: Less customer involvement (though they are heavily involved in writing the user stories in the first place from which the acceptance tests will be written) Perhaps more difficult to understand (or make understood) the user story and acceptance criteria in a JUnit class verses a freetext specification ala Fit or Fitnesse So, my question is really, have you ever tried this method? Ever considered it? What are your thoughts? What do you like and dislike about this approach? Finally, please only mention alternative frameworks if you can say why you like or dislike them more than this approach.

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• Running out of memory with UIImage creation on an offscreen Bitmap Context by NSOperation

  - by sigsegv

  I have an app with multiple UIView subclasses that acts as pages for a UIScrollView. UIViews are moved back and forth to provide a seamless experience to the user. Since the content of the views is rather slow to draw, it's rendered on a single shared CGBitmapContext guarded by locks by NSOperation subclasses - executed one at once in an NSOperationQueue - wrapped up in an UIImage and then used by the main thread to update the content of the views. -(void)main { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; if([self isCancelled]) { return; } if(nil == data) { return; } // Buffer is the shared instance of a CG Bitmap Context wrapper class // data is a dictionary CGImageRef img = [buffer imageCreateWithData:data]; UIImage * image = [[UIImage alloc]initWithCGImage:img]; CGImageRelease(img); if([self isCancelled]) { [image release]; return; } NSDictionary * result = [[NSDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:image,@"image",id,@"id",nil]; // target is the instance of the UIView subclass that will use // the image [target performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateContentWithData:) withObject:result waitUntilDone:NO]; [result release]; [image release]; [pool release]; } The updateContentWithData: of the UIView subclass performed on the main thread is just as simple -(void)updateContentWithData:(NSDictionary *)someData { NSDictionary * data = [someData retain]; if([[data valueForKey:@"id"]isEqualToString:[self pendingRequestId]]) { UIImage * image = [data valueForKey:@"image"]; [self setCurrentImage:image]; [self setNeedsDisplay]; } // If the image has not been retained, it should be released together // with the dictionary retaining it [data release]; } The drawLayer:inContext: method of the subclass will just get the CGImage from the UIImage and use it to update the backing layer or part of it. No retain or release is involved in the process. The problem is that after a while I run out of memory. The number of the UIViews is static. CGImageRef and UIImage are created, retained and released correctly (or so it seems to me). Instruments does not show any leaks, just the free memory available dip constantly, rise a few times, and then dip even lower until the application is terminated. The app cycles through about 2-300 of the aforementioned pages before that, but I would expect to have the memory usage reach a more or less stable level of used memory after a bunch of pages have been already skimmed at fast speed or, since the images are up to 3MB in size, deplete way earlier. Any suggestion will be greatly appreciated.

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