Search Results

Search found 3874 results on 155 pages for 'differed execution'.

Page 126/155 | < Previous Page | 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133  | Next Page >

  • Memory leaks while using array of double

    - by Gacek
    I have a part of code that operates on large arrays of double (containing about 6000 elements at least) and executes several hundred times (usually 800) . When I use standard loop, like that: double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... } The memory usage rises for about 40MB (from 40MB at the beggining of the loop, to the 80MB at the end). When I force to use the garbage collector to execute at every iteration, the memory usage stays at the level of 40MB (the rise is unsignificant). double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... GC.Collect() } But the execution time is 3 times longer! (it is crucial) How can I force the C# to use the same area of memory instead of allocating new ones? Note: I have the access to the code of someObject class, so if it would be needed, I can change it.

    Read the article

  • Finding cause of memory leaks in large PHP stacks

    - by Mike B
    I have CLI script that runs over several thousand iterations between runs and it appears to have a memory leak. I'm using a tweaked version of Zend Framework with Smarty for view templating and each iteration uses several MB worth of code. The first run immediately uses nearly 8MB of memory (which is fine) but every following run adds about 80kb. My main loop looks like this (very simplified) $users = UsersModel::getUsers(); foreach($users as $user) { $obj = new doSomethingAwesome(); $obj->run($user); $obj = null; unset($obj); } The point is that everything in scope should be unset and the memory freed. My understanding is that PHP runs through its garbage collection process at it's own desire but it does so at the end of functions/methods/scripts. So something must be leaking memory inside doSomethingAwesome() but as I said it is a huge stack of code. Ideally, I would love to find some sort of tool that displayed all my variables no matter the scope at some point during execution. Some sort of symbol-table viewer for php. Does anything like that or any other tools that could help nail down memory leaks in php exist?

    Read the article

  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

    Read the article

  • PHP file upload issue

    - by Varun
    I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

    - by tster
    I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

    Read the article

  • Using LINQ to map dynamically (or construct projections)

    - by CodeGrue
    I know I can map two object types with LINQ using a projection as so: var destModel = from m in sourceModel select new DestModelType {A = m.A, C = m.C, E = m.E} where class SourceModelType { string A {get; set;} string B {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string D {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } class DestModelType { string A {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } But what if I want to make something like a generic to do this, where I don't know specifically the two types I am dealing with. So it would walk the "Dest" type and match with the matching "Source" types.. is this possible? Also, to achieve deferred execution, I would want it just to return an IQueryable. For example: public IQueryable<TDest> ProjectionMap<TSource, TDest>(IQueryable<TSource> sourceModel) { // dynamically build the LINQ projection based on the properties in TDest // return the IQueryable containing the constructed projection } I know this is challenging, but I hope not impossible, because it will save me a bunch of explicit mapping work between models and viewmodels.

    Read the article

  • Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

    - by Yishai
    I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

    Read the article

  • Thread-safty of boost RNG

    - by Maciej Piechotka
    I have a loop which should be nicely pararellized by insering one openmp pragma: boost::normal_distribution<double> ddist(0, pow(retention, i - 1)); boost::variate_generator<gen &, BOOST_TYPEOF(ddist)> dgen(rng, ddist); // Diamond const std::uint_fast32_t dno = 1 << i - 1; // #pragma omp parallel for for (std::uint_fast32_t x = 0; x < dno; x++) for (std::uint_fast32_t y = 0; y < dno; y++) { const std::uint_fast32_t diff = size/dno; const std::uint_fast32_t x1 = x*diff, x2 = (x + 1)*diff; const std::uint_fast32_t y1 = y*diff, y2 = (y + 1)*diff; double avg = (arr[x1][y1] + arr[x1][y2] + arr[x2][y1] + arr[x2][y2])/4; arr[(x1 + x2)/2][(y1 + y2)/2] = avg + dgen(); } (unless I make an error each execution does not depend on others at all. Sorry that not all of code is inserted). However my question is - are boost RNG thread-safe? They seems to refer to gcc code for gcc so even if gcc code is thread-safe it may not be the case for other platforms.

    Read the article

  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

    Read the article

  • Personalized UIView created with Interface Builder

    - by Malox
    I need to project a personalized UIView with a UIImageView and 3 UILabel. I need to allocate more of this view because I want put it into a UIScrollView. I would avoid to generate the view programatically because it's difficult and boring design it. My idea is to create a new class that extends UIView and design it with interface builder. For example my Personalized View code is like that: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface PersonalizedPreview : UIView { IBOutlet UIImageView *image; IBOutlet UILabel *first_label; IBOutlet UILabel *second_label; IBOutlet UILabel *third_label; } -(void) setImage:(UIImage *)image; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIImageView *image; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *label; .... @end I would create an associated xib file for this view and initialize it simply specifing the xib file. Note that I don't want create a specific ViewController for this view and PersonalizedView is instantiate at runtime not when the app runs, moreover I don't know how many PersonalizedView I will instantiate, it depends on runtime execution. Anyone can help me? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Servlet Security question about j_security_check, j_username and j_password

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I used jdbcRealm in my web application and it's working fine. I defined all constraints also in my web.xml. Like all pages of url pattern /Admin/* should be accessed by only admin. I have a login form with uses standard j_security_check, j_username and j_password. Now, when i type Admin/home.jsf it rightly redirects me login.jsf and there when i type the password i am redirected to home.jsf. This works alright but problem comes i directly go to login.jsf and then type password and username. This time it again redirects me to login.jsf. Is there any way through which i can specify which page to go when successful login is there? I need to specify different different pages for different roles. For Admin, it is /Admin/home.jsf for general users it is /General/home.jsf because login form is shared between different type of users. Where do i specify all these things? Secondly, i want to have a remember me checkbox at the end of login form. How do i do this? By default, it is submitted to j_security_check servlet and i have no control over its execution. Please help. This doesn't seem so hard but looks like i am missing something.

    Read the article

  • Preprocessor "macro function" vs. function pointer - best practice?

    - by Dustin
    I recently started a small personal project (RGB value to BGR value conversion program) in C, and I realised that a function that converts from RGB to BGR can not only perform the conversion but also the inversion. Obviously that means I don't really need two functions rgb2bgr and bgr2rgb. However, does it matter whether I use a function pointer instead of a macro? For example: int rgb2bgr (const int rgb); /* * Should I do this because it allows the compiler to issue * appropriate error messages using the proper function name, * not to mention possible debugging benefits? */ int (*bgr2rgb) (const int bgr) = rgb2bgr; /* * Or should I do this since it is merely a convenience * and they're really the same function anyway? */ #define bgr2rgb(bgr) (rgb2bgr (bgr)) I'm not necessarily looking for a change in execution efficiency as it's more of a subjective question out of curiosity. I am well aware of the fact that type safety is neither lost nor gained using either method. Would the function pointer merely be a convenience or are there more practical benefits to be gained of which I am unaware?

    Read the article

  • SqlCeResultSet Problem

    - by Vlad
    Hello, I have a SmartDevice project (.NetCF 2.0) configured to be tested on the USA Windows Mobile 5.0 Pocket PC R2 Emulator. My project uses SqlCe 3.0. Understanding that a SmartDevice project is "more carefull" with the device's memory I am using SqlCeResultSets. The result sets are strongly typed, autogenerated by Visual Studio 2008 using the custom tool MSResultSetGenerator. The problem I am facing is that the result set does not recognize any column names. The autogenerated code for the fields does not work. In the client code I am using InfoResultSet rs = new InfoResultSet(); rs.Open(); rs.ReadFirst(); string myFormattedDate = rs.MyDateColumn.ToString("dd/MM/yyyy"); When the execution on the emulator reaches the rs.MyDateColumn the application throws an System.IndexOutOfRangeException. Investigating the stack trace at System.Data.SqlServerCe.FieldNameLookup.GetOrdinal() at System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeDataReader.GetOrdinal() I've tested the GetOrdinal method (in my autogenerated class that inherits SqlCeResultSet): this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"); // throws an exception this.GetName(1); // returns "MyDateColumn" this.GetOrdinal(this.GetName(1)); //throws an exception :) [edit added] The table exists and it's filled with data. Using typed DataSets works like a charm. Regenerating the SqlCeResultSet does not solve the issue, the problem remains. The problem basically is that I am not able to access a column by it's name. The data can be accessed trough this.GetDateTime(1)using the column ordinal. The application fails executing this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"). Also I have updated Visual Studio 2008 to Service Pack 1. Additionaly I am developing the project on a virtual machine with Windows XP SP 2, but in my opinion if the medium is virtual or not should have no effect on the developing. Am I doing something wrong or am I missing something? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Mimic Coldfusion's debug output in PHP?

    - by TekiusFanatikus
    I'm trying to mimic Coldfusion's debug output in PHP. Here's an example of what it looks like (ie. Execution Time section): I've turned to XDebug. Ideally, the exception stack error output would be what I'd be looking for. However, it only shows up when an exception occurs. I also tried something like (in our CMS-ish app) this (original question here): $content.= "<?php xdebug_start_trace('e:/xdebug/trace');?>"; $content.= "<?php require('".$page['file_'.LG]."'); ?>"; $content.= "<?php xdebug_stop_trace();?>"; ... $content.= "<?php echo readfile('e:/xdebug/trace.xt');?>"; However, I get an insane, browser crashing HTML table dropped at the bottom of page. Not very efficient. My php.ini config: xdebug.trace_format = 2 xdebug.collect_vars = 1 xdebug.collect_params = 4 xdebug.dump_globals = 1 xdebug.dump.SERVER = 'REQUEST_URI' xdebug.show_local_vars = 1 xdebug.show_mem_delta = 1 I'm just wondering if someone has already done something similar?

    Read the article

  • How to store an interger value of 4 bytes in a memory of chunk which is malloced as type char

    - by Adi
    Dear all, Hello Guys!! This is my first post in the forum . I am really looking forward to having good fun in this site. My question is : int mem_size = 10; char *start_ptr; if((start_ptr= malloc(mem_size*1024*1024*sizeof(char)))==NULL) {return -1;} I have allocated a chunk of memory of type char and size is say 10 MB (i.e mem_size = 10 ); Now I want to store the size information in the header of the memory chunk, To make myself more clear Lets Say : start_ptr = 0xaf868004 (This is the value I got from my execution, it changes every time) Now I want to put the size information in the start of this pointer.. i.e *start_ptr = mem_size*1024*1024; But I am not able to put this information in the start_ptr. I think the reason is because my ptr is of type char which only takes one byte but I am trying to store int which takes 4 bytes, is the problem . I am not sure how to fix this problem.. I would greatly appreciate your suggestions. Cheers!! Aditya

    Read the article

  • Using Dispose on a Singleton to Cleanup Resources

    - by ImperialLion
    The question I have might be more to do with semantics than with the actual use of IDisposable. I am working on implementing a singleton class that is in charge of managing a database instance that is created during the execution of the application. When the application closes this database should be deleted. Right now I have this delete being handled by a Cleanup() method of the singleton that the application calls when it is closing. As I was writing the documentation for Cleanup() it struck me that I was describing what a Dispose() method should be used for i.e. cleaning up resources. I had originally not implemented IDisposable because it seemed out of place in my singleton, because I didn't want anything to dispose the singleton itself. There isn't currently, but in the future might be a reason that this Cleanup() might be called but the singleton should will need to still exist. I think I can include GC.SuppressFinalize(this); in the Dispose method to make this feasible. My question therefore is multi-parted: 1) Is implementing IDisposable on a singleton fundamentally a bad idea? 2) Am I just mixing semantics here by having a Cleanup() instead of a Dispose() and since I'm disposing resources I really should use a dispose? 3) Will implementing 'Dispose()' with GC.SuppressFinalize(this); make it so my singleton is not actually destroyed in the case I want it to live after a call to clean-up the database.

    Read the article

  • use Ghostscript to convert pcl to postscript

    - by Bryon
    So I want to use Ghostscript to convert files that are created in pcl format to postscript. That's the gist of my problem. I am simply trying to run it on the command line, but in the final stage it will have to be run on a lp command like lp -d < gs something something GPL Ghostscript 9.00 (2010-09-14) I will be running this on a solaris 10 server but I believe any unix system should work similar. bash-3.00# /usr/local/bin/gs -sDEVICE=pswrite -dLanguageLevel=1 -dNOPAUSE -dBATCH -dSAFER -sOutputFile=output.ps cms-form.pcl GPL Ghostscript 9.00 (2010-09-14) Copyright (C) 2010 Artifex Software, Inc. All rights reserved. This software comes with NO WARRANTY: see the file PUBLIC for details. Error: /undefined in &k2G-210z100u0l6d0e63fa0V Operand stack: Execution stack: %interp_exit .runexec2 --nostringval-- --nostringval-- --nostringval-- 2 %stopped_push --nostringval-- --nostringval-- --nostringval-- false 1 %stopped_push 1910 1 3 %oparray_pop 1909 1 3 %oparray_pop 1893 1 3 %oparray_pop 1787 1 3 %oparray_pop --nostringval-- %errorexec_pop .runexec2 --nostringval-- --nostringval-- --nostringval-- 2 %stopped_push --nostringval-- Dictionary stack: --dict:1154/1684(ro)(G)-- --dict:0/20(G)-- --dict:77/200(L)-- Current allocation mode is local Current file position is 30 GPL Ghostscript 9.00: Unrecoverable error, exit code 1

    Read the article

  • form:select items problem in spring mvc portlet

    - by dhaval
    I have a set of drop-down control which I want to render with my custom tag library. The following is the code of the tag lib: <spring:bind path="${path}"> <c:choose> <c:when test="${readOnly}"> <span class="readOnly">${status.value}</span> </c:when> <c:otherwise> <form:select path="${path }" itemLabel="${label }" itemValue="${value }" items="${itemList}"> </form:select> </c:otherwise> </c:choose> And this is the code I have written in the JSP file: <tag:conditionalListControl path="model.selectedCountry" readOnly="false" label="name" value="id" listItems="model.countryList" className="simple" /> Upon execution the paring returns the following error: [jsp:165] javax.servlet.jsp.JspException: Type [java.lang.String] is not valid for option items But if i change the items="${itemList}" to items="${model.countryList}" which is the list I want to display, it works fine without any problem and also bind to required variables on form submit. But i don't want to hard code any variables in the tag lib. Any suggestions???

    Read the article

  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

    Read the article

  • How can I merge two Linq IEnumerable<T> queries without running them?

    - by makerofthings7
    How do I merge a List<T> of TPL-based tasks for later execution? public async IEnumerable<Task<string>> CreateTasks(){ /* stuff*/ } My assumption is .Concat() but that doesn't seem to work: void MainTestApp() // Full sample available upon request. { List<string> nothingList = new List<string>(); nothingList.Add("whatever"); cts = new CancellationTokenSource(); delayedExecution = from str in nothingList select AccessTheWebAsync("", cts.Token); delayedExecution2 = from str in nothingList select AccessTheWebAsync("1", cts.Token); delayedExecution = delayedExecution.Concat(delayedExecution2); } /// SNIP async Task AccessTheWebAsync(string nothing, CancellationToken ct) { // return a Task } I want to make sure that this won't spawn any task or evaluate anything. In fact, I suppose I'm asking "what logically executes an IQueryable to something that returns data"? Background Since I'm doing recursion and I don't want to execute this until the correct time, what is the correct way to merge the results if called multiple times? If it matters I'm thinking of running this command to launch all the tasks var AllRunningDataTasks = results.ToList(); followed by this code: while (AllRunningDataTasks.Count > 0) { // Identify the first task that completes. Task<TableResult> firstFinishedTask = await Task.WhenAny(AllRunningDataTasks); // ***Remove the selected task from the list so that you don't // process it more than once. AllRunningDataTasks.Remove(firstFinishedTask); // TODO: Await the completed task. var taskOfTableResult = await firstFinishedTask; // Todo: (doen't work) TrustState thisState = (TrustState)firstFinishedTask.AsyncState; // TODO: Update the concurrent dictionary with data // thisState.QueryStartPoint + thisState.ThingToSearchFor Interlocked.Decrement(ref thisState.RunningDirectQueries); Interlocked.Increment(ref thisState.CompletedDirectQueries); if (thisState.RunningDirectQueries == 0) { thisState.TimeCompleted = DateTime.UtcNow; } }

    Read the article

  • SELECT SUM PHP MySQL problem

    - by user345426
    This is driving me nuts! Below you will find my PHP/MySQL code but I will post the direct mySQL statement here: SELECT SUM( ot.value ) AS msa FROM orders o LEFT JOIN orders_total ot ON ot.orders_id = o.orders_id WHERE ot.class = 'ot_total' AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP( o.date_purchased ) >=1262332800 AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP( o.date_purchased ) <=1264924800 AND o.sales_rep_id = '2' When I execute this statement inside of phpMyAdmin I get the sum for ot.value which is associated to "msa". Although, when I run my php code it does not return a value. Anyone see the problem? // works in phpMyAdmin but not displaying during PHP execution! $monthly_sales_amount_sql = "SELECT SUM(ot.value) AS msa FROM orders o LEFT JOIN orders_total ot ON ot.orders_id = o.orders_id WHERE ot.class = 'ot_total' AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP(o.date_purchased) >= $start_timestamp AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP(o.date_purchased) <= $end_timestamp AND o.sales_rep_id = '" . $sales_rep_id "'"; $result = mysql_query($monthly_sales_amount_sql); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); echo "MSA: " . $row['msa'] . "<BR><BR>";

    Read the article

  • Loop to check all 14 days in the pay period

    - by Rachel Ann Arndt
    Name: Calc_Anniversary Input: Pay_Date, Hire_Date, Termination_Date Output: "Y" if is the anniversary of the employee's Hire_Date, "N" if it is not, and "T" if he has been terminated before his anniversary. Description: Create local variables to hold the month and day of the employee's Date_of_Hire, Termination_Date, and of the processing date using the TO_CHAR function. First check to see if he was terminated before his anniversary. The anniversary could be on any day during the pay period, so there will be a loop to check all 14 days in the pay period to see if one was his anniversary. CREATE OR replace FUNCTION Calc_anniversary( incoming_anniversary_date IN VARCHAR2) RETURN BOOLEAN IS hiredate VARCHAR2(20); terminationdate VARCHAR(20); employeeid VARCHAR2(38); paydate NUMBER := 0; BEGIN SELECT Count(arndt_raw_time_sheet_data.pay_date) INTO paydate FROM arndt_raw_time_sheet_data WHERE paydate = incoming_anniversary_date; WHILE paydate <= 14 LOOP SELECT To_char(employee_id, '999'), To_char(hire_date, 'DD-MON'), To_char(termination_date, 'DD-MON') INTO employeeid, hiredate, terminationdate FROM employees, time_sheet WHERE employees.employee_id = time_sheet.employee_id AND paydate = pay_date; IF terminationdate > hiredate THEN RETURN 'T'; ELSE IF To_char(SYSDATE, 'DD-MON') = To_char(hiredate, 'DD-MON')THEN RETURN 'Y'; ELSE RETURN 'N'; END IF; END IF; paydate := paydate + 1; END LOOP; END; Tables I am using CREATE TABLE Employees ( EMPLOYEE_ID INTEGER, FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(15), LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25), ADDRESS_LINE_ONE VARCHAR2(35), ADDRESS_LINE_TWO VARCHAR2(35), CITY VARCHAR2(28), STATE CHAR(2), ZIP_CODE CHAR(10), COUNTY VARCHAR2(10), EMAIL VARCHAR2(16), PHONE_NUMBER VARCHAR2(12), SOCIAL_SECURITY_NUMBER VARCHAR2(11), HIRE_DATE DATE, TERMINATION_DATE DATE, DATE_OF_BIRTH DATE, SPOUSE_ID INTEGER, MARITAL_STATUS CHAR(1), ALLOWANCES INTEGER, PERSONAL_TIME_OFF FLOAT, CONSTRAINT pk_employee_id PRIMARY KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID), CONSTRAINT fk_spouse_id FOREIGN KEY (SPOUSE_ID) REFERENCES EMPLOYEES (EMPLOYEE_ID)) / CREATE TABLE Arndt_Raw_Time_Sheet_data ( EMPLOYEE_ID INTEGER, PAY_DATE DATE, HOURS_WORKED FLOAT, SALES_AMOUNT FLOAT, CONSTRAINT pk_employee_id_pay_date_time PRIMARY KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID, PAY_DATE), CONSTRAINT fk_employee_id_time FOREIGN KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID) REFERENCES EMPLOYEES (EMployee_ID)); error FUNCTION Calc_Anniversary compiled Warning: execution completed with warning

    Read the article

  • OpenCV. cvFnName() works, but cv::FunName() doesn't work

    - by Innuendo
    I'm using OpenCV to write a plugin for a simulator. I've made an OpenCV project (single - not a plugin) and it works fine. When I added OpenCV libs to the plugin project, I added all libs required. Visual Studio 2010 doesn't highlight any code line with red. All looks fine and compiles fine. But in execution, the program halts with a Runtime Error on any cv::function. For example: cv::imread, or cv::imwrite. But if I replace them with cvLoadImage() and cvSaveImage(), it works fine. Why does this happen? I don't want to rewrite the whole script in old-api-style (cvFnName). It means I should change all Mat objects to IplImages, and so on. UPDATE: // preparing template ifstream ifile(tmplfilename); if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { // loading template file Mat tmpl = cv::imread(tmplfilename, 1); // << here occurs error FILE_LOADED = true; } Mat src; Bmp2Mat(hDC, hBitmap, src); TargetDetector detector(src, tmpl); detector.detectTarget(); If I change to: if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { IplImage* tmpl = 0; tmpl = cvLoadImage(tmplfilename, 1); // no error occurs } And then no error occurs. Early it displayed some Runtime Error. Now, I wanted to copy exact message and it just crashes the application (simulator, what I am pluginning). It displays window error - to kill process or no. (I can't show exact message, because I'm using russian windows now)

    Read the article

  • Should I pass a SqlDataReader by reference or not when passing it out to multiple threads.

    - by deroby
    Hi all, being new to c# I've run into this 'conundrum' when passing around a SqlDataReader between different threads. Without going into too much detail, the idea is to have a main thread fetching data from the database (a large recordset) and then have a helper-task run through this record by record and doing some stuff based upon the contents of this. There is no feedback to the recordset, it simply wades through until no records are left. This works fine, but given the nature of the job at hand it should be possible to have this job spread over different threads (CPUs) to maximize throughput (the order of execution is of no significance). The question then becomes, when I pass this recordset in a SqlDataReader, do I have to use ref or not ? It kind of boils down to the question : if I pass the object around without specifying ref, won't it create new copies in memory and have records processed n times ? Or, don't I risk having the record-position being moved forward while not all fields have been fully read yet ? The latter seems more like a 'data racing' issue and probably is covered by the lock()ing mechanism (or not?). My initial take on the problem was that it doesn't really hurt passing the variable using ref, yet as a colleague put it : "you only need ref when you're doing something wrong" =) Additionally using ref restricts me from applying a Using() construction too which isn't very nice either. I thus create a "basic" project that tackles the same approach but without the ref notation. Tests so far show that it works flawlessly on a Core2Duo (2cpu) using any number of threads, yet I'm still a bit wary... What do you experts think about this ? Use ref or not ? You can find the test-project here as it seems I can't upload it to this question directly ?!? ps: it's just a test-project and I'm new to c#, so please be gentle on me when breaking down the code =P

    Read the article

  • What does it mean for an OS to "execute within user processes"? Do any modern OS's use that approach

    - by Chris Cooper
    I have recently become interested in operating system, and a friend of mine lent me a book called Operating Systems: Internals and Design Principles (I have the third edition), published in 1998. It's been a very interesting book so far, but I have come to the part dealing with process control, and it's using UNIX System V as one of its examples of an operating system that executes within user processes. This concept has struck me as a little strange. First of all, does this mean that OS instructions and data are stored in each user of the processes? Probably not, because that would be an absurdly redundant scheme. But if not, then what does it mean to "execute within" a user process? Do any modern operating systems use this approach? It seems much more logical to have the operating system execute as its own process, or even independently of all processes, if you're short on memory. All the inter-accessiblilty of process data required for this layout seems to greatly complicate things. (But maybe that's just because I don't quite get the concept ;D) Here is what the book says: "Execution within User Processes: An alternative that is common with operation systems on smaller machines is to execute virtually all operating system software in the context of a user process. ... "

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133  | Next Page >