Search Results

Search found 24820 results on 993 pages for 'url parameters'.

Page 126/993 | < Previous Page | 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133  | Next Page >

  • Prevent hash navigation url

    - by Koningh
    I have the following problem: I'm using a slider (coda) to let people navigate trough some 'pages'. The slider uses hash links to navigate to the next page/slide. If a user is at page one (#page1), there is a link which will lead the user to page 2 (#page2) and so on. At the top of the slider the numbers of the pages appear as a link, but only when the page is visited. So if there are six pages and the user navigates from the first to the second and then the third one, there are only three links at the top of the slider (to page one, two and three). The problem is that a user can navigate to page five (or any page actually) without first visiting the pages previous to page five by just using the hash URL and typing the whole link in their address bar. For example if I would type www.mydomain.com/slider/index.php#page5 the slider automatically navigates to the fifth slide/page of the slider and thereby skipping the first four. I want to allow users to navigate to #page5 only if they have visited the first four (So by clicking trough the slides). This means that if they would go to #page5 directly by typing the URL in the address bar, I would like them to be send to the first page (#page1). Does anyone have any idea on solving this?

    Read the article

  • Handling the distinction between undefined- and null-parameters in JavaScript

    - by Jakob
    I know very well that null and undefined are distinct in JavaScript. However, I can't seem to decide whether or not use that fact when my own functions are passed one of those as its argument. Or, expressed in a different way, should myFoo(undefined) return the same thing as myFoo(null) or is everything fine if it doesn't? Or, in yet another case, since myBar(1, 2, 3) is the same thing as myBar(1, 2, 3, undefined, undefined), should myBar(1, 2, 3, null, null) return the same thing as myBar(1, 2, 3)? I feel that there's potential for confusion in both cases and that a library should probably follow a convention when handling null/undefined. I'm not really asking for personal opinions (so please express those as comments rather than answers). I'm asking if anyone knows if there is a best practice that one should stick to when it comes to handling this distinction. References to external sources are very welcome!

    Read the article

  • Querying using table-valued parameter

    - by antmx
    I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

    Read the article

  • Polling a web URL until event

    - by Jaxo
    I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Can someone help me understand why this is happening?

    - by Juan Manuel Formoso
    I just run into the weirdest thing I've ever encounter. Consider this test page: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <title></title> <script language=javascript> function test(myParameter) { alert(myParameter); } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" value="Strange" onclick="javascript: test(044024);" /> <input type="button" value="Ok" onclick="javascript: test('044024');" /> </body> </html> If I click the "strange" button, I get 18452, if I click the "ok" button I get 044024 Does anyone know what is happening and explain it to me?

    Read the article

  • Setting parameters after obtaining their values in stored procedures

    - by user1260028
    Right now I have an upload field while uploads files to the server. The prefix is saved so that it can later be obtained for retrieval. For this I need to attach the ID of the form to the prefix. I would like to be able to do this as such: @filePrefix = SCOPE_IDENTITY() + @filePrefix; However I am not so sure this would work because the record has not been created yet. If anything I could call an update function which obtains the ID and then injects it into the row after it has been created. To speed things up, I don't want to do this on the server but rather do this on the database. Regardless of what the approach is, I would still like to know if something like the above is possible (at least for future reference?) So if we replace that with @filePrefix = 5 + @filePrefix; would that be possible? SQL doesn't seem to like the current syntax very much...

    Read the article

  • php - clean URL

    - by tibin mathew
    Hai I want to create a web site with pure php. I want to hide the url parameters. I.e. I want to make my web site with clean urls. Is there is any way to do this with out using any framework? Is it curl help full to do this? Does any one give me a solution.

    Read the article

  • Designing WCF interface: no out or ref parameters

    - by Captain Comic
    I have a WCF service and web client. Web service implements one method SubmitOrders. This method takes a collection of orders. The problem is that service must return an array of results for each order - true or false. Marking WCF paramters as out or ref makes no sense. What would you recommend? [ServiceContact] public bool SubmitOrders(OrdersInfo) [DataContract] public class OrdersInfo { Order[] Orders; }

    Read the article

  • Validation controls error message from Resource file and parameterized

    - by BigBoss
    Hi, I would like to get validation messages for validation controls from resource files. I know I can do that easily by following code snippet. <%$ Resources:[filename prefix,]resource-key %> or <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" meta:resourcekey="resource-key-prefix" /> But I would also like to parameterized it. e.g. Above Resource Expression will give me message like "Fill Information.". What I have in resource file is "Fill {0} Information." which should show end user message like "Fill Address Information.".

    Read the article

  • Sending parameters to other sites

    - by moustafa
    look here first http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2883338/how-can-i-send-a-date-from-one-site-to-other-sites let me change the question a bit, i didnt really explain myself properly. What i intend to do is get z.php to read a text file called 'sites.txt' which has a list of sites: site1.com/a.php site2.com/b.php site3.com/c.php to execute the urls in the sites in 'sites.txt' i want it to go through siteA.com/z.php?ip=xxx.xxx.xx.xxx&location=UK (z.php will then read 'sites.txt') All sites in the 'sites.txt' file will be executed as site1.com/a.php?ip=xxx.xxx.xx.xxx&location=UK site2.com/b.php?ip=xxx.xxx.xx.xxx&location=UK I hope that makes more sense, i have tried looking around but couldnt find what i was looking for. Thanks for your help so far everyone. site3.com/c.php?ip=xxx.xxx.xx.xxx&location=UK

    Read the article

  • Invoking static methods containing Generic Parameters using Reflection.

    - by AJP
    While executing the following code i gets this error "Late bound operations cannot be performed on types or methods for which ContainsGenericParameters is true." class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { MethodInfo MI = typeof(MyClass).GetMethod("TestProc"); MI.MakeGenericMethod(new [] {typeof(string)}); MI.Invoke(null, new [] {"Hello"}); } } class MyClass { public static void TestProc<T>(T prefix) { Console.WriteLine("Hello"); } } Please help.

    Read the article

  • How to get the parameter names of an object's constructors (reflection)?

    - by Tom
    Say I somehow got an object reference from an other class: Object myObj = anObject; Now I can get the class of this object: Class objClass = myObj.getClass(); Now, I can get all constructors of this class: Constructor[] constructors = objClass.getConstructors(); Now, I can loop every constructor: if (constructors.length > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < constructors.length; i++) { System.out.println(constructors[i]); } } This is already giving me a good summary of the constructor, for example a constructor public Test(String paramName) is shown as public Test(java.lang.String) Instead of giving me the class type however, I want to get the name of the parameter.. in this case "paramName". How would I do that? I tried the following without success: if (constructors.length > 0) { for (int iCon = 0; iCon < constructors.length; iCon++) { Class[] params = constructors[iCon].getParameterTypes(); if (params.length > 0) { for (int iPar = 0; iPar < params.length; iPar++) { Field fields[] = params[iPar].getDeclaredFields(); for (int iFields = 0; iFields < fields.length; iFields++) { String fieldName = fields[i].getName(); System.out.println(fieldName); } } } } } Unfortunately, this is not giving me the expected result. Could anyone tell me how I should do this or what I am doing wrong? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to pass parameters with spaces via cstdlib system

    - by buchtak
    Hi, I have this windows console app which takes a file, do some calculations, and then writes the output to a specified file. The input is specified in "app.exe -input fullfilename" format. I need to call this application from my C++ program, but I have a problem with spaces in paths to files. When I call the app directly from cmd.exe by typing (without specifying output file for clarity) "c:\first path\app.exe" -input "c:\second path\input.file" everything works as expected. But, when I try using cstdlib std::system() function, i.e. std::system(" \"c:\\first path\\app.exe\" -input \"c:\\second path\\input.file\" "); the console prints out that c:\first is not any valid command. It's probably common mistake and has simple solution, but I have been unable to find any. Thx for any help.

    Read the article

  • Const-Qualification of Main's Parameters in C++

    - by pt2cv
    The C++ standard mandates that all conforming implementations support the following two signatures for main: int main(); int main(int, char*[]); In case of the latter signature, would the addition of (top-level) const-ness break any language rules? For example: int main(const int argc, char** const argv); From my understanding, top-level const qualification doesn't affect the function's signature hash, so it should be legal as far as the specification is concerned. Also, did anyone ever encounter an implementation which rejected this type of modification?

    Read the article

  • Accessing Sub functions /procedures from DPR or other function / procedure in Delphi

    - by HX_unbanned
    Hello, stackoverflowers :) As much I know - Subroutines are with Private access mode to its parent unction / procedure, right? Is there any way to access them from "outer-world" - dpr or other function / procedure in unit? Also - which way takes more calcualtion and space to compiled file? for example: function blablabla(parameter : tparameter) : abcde; procedure xyz(par_ : tpar_); begin // ... end; begin // ... end; procedure albalbalb(param : tparam) : www; begin xyz(par_ : tpar); // is there any way to make this function public / published to access it therefore enabling to call it this way? end; // all text is random. // also, is there way to call it from DPR in this manner? // in C++ this can be done by specifing access mode and/or using "Friend" class .. but in DELPHI?

    Read the article

  • Add a parameter to a google maps geocoder funcion

    - by kree
    I want to create a geocoder function, which write the result to it's parameter. function geoCode(latlng,div) { gc.geocode({'latLng': latlng}, function (result, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { new google.maps.Marker({ position: result[0].geometry.location, map: map }); jq(div).html(result[0].formatted_address); } }); How can I add the div parameter to the geocoder function? Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • LayoutInflater ignoring parameters ?

    - by TiGer
    Hi, I have the following xml object representing a ImageButton <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ImageButton xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/genreCellItemId" android:layout_weight="1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center" android:paddingLeft="5.0dip" android:paddingRight="5.0dip"> </ImageButton> I try to inflate it and add it to a TableRow with the following code : LayoutInflater inflater= this.getLayoutInflater(); TableLayout grid = (TableLayout)findViewById(R.id.bodyTableLayout); TableRow row = (TableRow)inflater.inflate(R.layout.genre_row, null); View myButton = (View)inflater.inflate(R.layout.genre_cell, null); row.addView(tempButton, new TableRow.LayoutParams()); grid.addView(row, new TableLayout.LayoutParams()); Ok so I noticed that it didn't look as expected, so I fire up the Hierarchy Viewere and noticed that the ImageButton's actually have an layout_width = FILL_PARENT instead of WRAP_CONTENT, also the layout_gravity is NONE and there is no padding to be seen... Do, am I inflating it wrongly ? Or is maybe the new TableRow.LayoutParams() part doins omething wrong ?

    Read the article

  • [MS-DOS] Read command-line parameters to .bat from file

    - by John
    I have a build.bat file which uses %1 internally... so you might call: build 1.23 I wanted it to read the parameter from a separate file, so I tried putting "1.23" in version.txt and doing: build < version.txt But it doesn't work. Isn't this how piping works? Is what I want possible and if so how?

    Read the article

  • Detecting and reloading updated application parameters at runtime

    - by VeeKayBee
    I am working on an ASP.NET web application(using .NET 4.5 and C#).The application deals with lot of units (for measuring like KG,Litre,KM etc). So based on the selected unit we have to implement some allowed range.This values can be configured without much effort. We identified two solutions for this Keeping a configuration xml. Suppose the values in xml, does it requires an iisreset or any other thing which can take the site down for some time, if we are changing the xml file to change some validation. Keeping in Db, then use SQL dependency caching. So an update to DB can reflect the caching values.SO i believe if we change the values, it will update the cache. How much complex is this and does it effect the performance ? It will be great helpful, if we have some other method to achieve this. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to save links with tags and parameters in TextField

    - by xRobot
    I have this simple Post model: class Post(models.Model): title = models.CharField(_('title'), max_length=60, blank=True, null=True) body = models.TextField(_('body')) blog = models.ForeignKey(Blog, related_name="posts") user = models.ForeignKey(User) I want that when I insert in the form the links, then these links are saved in the body from this form: http://www.example.com or www.example.com to this form ( with tag and rel="nofollow" parameter ): <a href="http://www.example.com" rel="nofollow">www.example.com</a> How can I do this ? Thanks ^_^

    Read the article

  • Load script with parameters

    - by Doseke
    Before I used .jsp pages for jsf, and the below code was pretty fine <script language="javascript" src='<%= renderResponse.encodeURL(renderRequest.getContextPath() +"/resources/jsCropperUI/scriptaculous.js?load=effects,builder,dragdrop") %>' > </script> Now, I'm using .xhtml with RichFaces, and the below code does not work <a4j:loadScript src="/resources/jsCropperUI/scriptaculous.js?load=effects,builder,dragdrop"/> Exception is Static resource not found for path /resources/jsCropperUI/scriptaculous.js?load=effects,builder,dragdrop How can I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to inspect the contents of a Table Value Parameter via the debugger?

    - by Stephen Edmonds
    Does anyone know if it is possible to use the Visual Studio / SQL Server Management Studio debugger to inspect the contents of a Table Value Parameter passed to a stored procedure? To give a trivial example: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[ControllerId] AS TABLE( [id] [nvarchar](max) NOT NULL ) GO CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[test] @controllerData [dbo].[ControllerId] READONLY AS BEGIN SELECT COUNT(*) FROM @controllerData; END DECLARE @SampleData as [dbo].[ControllerId]; INSERT INTO @SampleData ([id]) VALUES ('test'), ('test2'); exec [dbo].[test] @SampleData; Using the above with a break point on the exec statement, I am able to step into the stored procedure without any trouble. The debugger shows that the @controllerData local has a value of '(table)' but I have not found any tool that would allow me to actual view the rows that make up that table.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133  | Next Page >