Search Results

Search found 3399 results on 136 pages for 'rule'.

Page 128/136 | < Previous Page | 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135  | Next Page >

  • H.264 over RTP - Identify SPS and PPS Frames

    - by Toby
    I have a raw H.264 Stream from an IP Camera packed in RTP frames. I want to get raw H.264 data into a file so I can convert it with ffmpeg. So when I want to write the data into my raw H.264 file I found out it has to look like this: 00 00 01 [SPS] 00 00 01 [PPS] 00 00 01 [NALByte] [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 1] // Payload always without the first 2 Bytes -> NAL [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 2] [... until PAYLOAD Frame with Mark Bit received] // From here its a new Video Frame 00 00 01 [NAL BYTE] [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 1] .... So I get the SPS and the PPS from the Session Description Protocol out of my preceding RTSP communication. Additionally the camera sends the SPS and the PPSin two single messages before starting with the video stream itself. So I capture the messages in this order: 1. Preceding RTSP Communication here ( including SDP with SPS and PPS ) 2. RTP Frame with Payload: 67 42 80 28 DA 01 40 16 C4 // This is the SPS 3. RTP Frame with Payload: 68 CE 3C 80 // This is the PPS 4. RTP Frame with Payload: ... // Video Data Then there come some Frames with Payload and at some point a RTP Frame with the Marker Bit = 1. This means ( if I got it right) that I have a complete video frame. Afer this I write the Prefix Sequence ( 00 00 01 ) and the NALfrom the payload again and go on with the same procedure. Now my camera sends me after every 8 complete Video Frames the SPS and the PPS again. ( Again in two RTP Frames, as seen in the example above ). I know that especially the PPS can change in between streaming but that's not the problem. My questions are now: 1. Do I need to write the SPS/PPS every 8th Video Frame? If my SPS and my PPS don't change it should be enough to have them written at the very beginning of my file and nothing more? 2. How to distinguish between SPS/PPS and normal RTP Frames? In my C++ Code which parses the transmitted data I need make a difference between the RTP Frames with normal Payload an the ones carrying the SPS/PPS. How can I distinguish them? Okay the SPS/PPS frames are usually way smaller, but that's not a save call to rely on. Because if I ignore them I need to know which data I can throw away, or if I need to write them I need to put the 00 00 01 Prefix in front of them. ? Or is it a fixed rule that they occur every 8th Video Frame?

    Read the article

  • C# Finalize/Dispose pattern

    - by robUK
    Hello, C# 2008 I have been working on this for a while now. And I am still confused about some issues. My questions below 1) I know that you only need a finalizer if you are disposing of unmanaged resources. However, if you are using managed resources that make calls to unmanaged resources. Would you still need to implement a finalizer? 2) However, if you develop a class that doesn't use any unmanged resources directly or indirectly and you implement the IDisposable so that clients of your class can use the 'using statement'. Would it be acceptable to implement the IDisposable just so that clients of your class can use the using statement? using(myClass objClass = new myClass()) { // Do stuff here } 3) I have developed this simple code below to demostrate the Finalize/dispose pattern: public class NoGateway : IDisposable { private WebClient wc = null; public NoGateway() { wc = new WebClient(); wc.DownloadStringCompleted += wc_DownloadStringCompleted; } // Start the Async call to find if NoGateway is true or false public void NoGatewayStatus() { // Start the Async's download // Do other work here wc.DownloadStringAsync(new Uri(www.xxxx.xxx)); } private void wc_DownloadStringCompleted(object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) { // Do work here } // Dispose of the NoGateway object public void Dispose() { wc.DownloadStringCompleted -= wc_DownloadStringCompleted; wc.Dispose(); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } } Question about the source code: 1) Here I have not added the finalizer. And normally the finalizer will be called by the GC, and the finalizer will call the Dispose. As I don't have the finalizer, when do I call the Dispose method? Is it the client of the class that has to call it? So my class in the example is called NoGateway and the client could use and dispose of the class like this: Would the Dispose method be automatically called when execution reaches the end of the using block? using(NoGateway objNoGateway = new NoGateway()) { // Do stuff here } Or does the client have to manually call the dispose method i.e.? NoGateway objNoGateway = new NoGateway(); // Do stuff with object objNoGateway.Dispose(); // finished with it Many thanks for helping with all these questions, 2) I am using the webclient class in my 'NoGateway' class. Because the webclient implements the IDisposable interface. Does this mean that the webclient indirectly uses unmanaged resources? Is there any hard and fast rule to follow about this. How do I know that a class uses unmanaged resources?

    Read the article

  • Corner Cases, Unexpected and Unusual Matlab

    - by Mikhail
    Over the years, reading others code, I encountered and collected some examples of Matlab syntax which can be at first unusual and counterintuitive. Please, feel free to comment or complement this list. I verified it r2006a. set([], 'Background:Color','red') Matlab is very forgiving sometimes. In this case, setting properties to an array of objects works also with nonsense properties, at least when the array is empty. myArray([1,round(end/2)]) This use of end keyword may seem unclean but is sometimes very handy instead of using length(myArray). any([]) ~= all([]) Surprisigly any([]) returns false and all([]) returns true. And I always thought that all is stronger then any. EDIT: with not empty argument all() returns true for a subset of values for which any() returns true (e.g. truth table). This means that any() false implies all() false. This simple rule is being violated by Matlab with [] as argument. Loren also blogged about it. Select(Range(ExcelComObj)) Procedural style COM object method dispatch. Do not wonder that exist('Select') returns zero! [myString, myCell] Matlab makes in this case an implicit cast of string variable myString to cell type {myString}. It works, also if I would not expect it to do so. [double(1.8), uint8(123)] => 2 123 Another cast example. Everybody would probably expect uint8 value being cast to double but Mathworks have another opinion. a = 5; b = a(); It looks silly but you can call a variable with round brackets. Actually it makes sense because this way you can execute a function given its handle. a = {'aa', 'bb' 'cc', 'dd'}; Surprsisingly this code neither returns a vector nor rises an error but defins matrix, using just code layout. It is probably a relict from ancient times. set(hobj, {'BackgroundColor','ForegroundColor'},{'red','blue'}) This code does what you probably expect it to do. That function set accepts a struct as its second argument is a known fact and makes sense, and this sintax is just a cell2struct away. Equvalence rules are sometimes unexpected at first. For example 'A'==65 returns true (although for C-experts it is self-evident). About which further unexpected/unusual Matlab features are you aware?

    Read the article

  • agent-based simulation: performance issue: Python vs NetLogo & Repast

    - by max
    I'm replicating a small piece of Sugarscape agent simulation model in Python 3. I found the performance of my code is ~3 times slower than that of NetLogo. Is it likely the problem with my code, or can it be the inherent limitation of Python? Obviously, this is just a fragment of the code, but that's where Python spends two-thirds of the run-time. I hope if I wrote something really inefficient it might show up in this fragment: UP = (0, -1) RIGHT = (1, 0) DOWN = (0, 1) LEFT = (-1, 0) all_directions = [UP, DOWN, RIGHT, LEFT] # point is just a tuple (x, y) def look_around(self): max_sugar_point = self.point max_sugar = self.world.sugar_map[self.point].level min_range = 0 random.shuffle(self.all_directions) for r in range(1, self.vision+1): for d in self.all_directions: p = ((self.point[0] + r * d[0]) % self.world.surface.length, (self.point[1] + r * d[1]) % self.world.surface.height) if self.world.occupied(p): # checks if p is in a lookup table (dict) continue if self.world.sugar_map[p].level > max_sugar: max_sugar = self.world.sugar_map[p].level max_sugar_point = p if max_sugar_point is not self.point: self.move(max_sugar_point) Roughly equivalent code in NetLogo (this fragment does a bit more than the Python function above): ; -- The SugarScape growth and motion procedures. -- to M ; Motion rule (page 25) locals [ps p v d] set ps (patches at-points neighborhood) with [count turtles-here = 0] if (count ps > 0) [ set v psugar-of max-one-of ps [psugar] ; v is max sugar w/in vision set ps ps with [psugar = v] ; ps is legal sites w/ v sugar set d distance min-one-of ps [distance myself] ; d is min dist from me to ps agents set p random-one-of ps with [distance myself = d] ; p is one of the min dist patches if (psugar >= v and includeMyPatch?) [set p patch-here] setxy pxcor-of p pycor-of p ; jump to p set sugar sugar + psugar-of p ; consume its sugar ask p [setpsugar 0] ; .. setting its sugar to 0 ] set sugar sugar - metabolism ; eat sugar (metabolism) set age age + 1 end On my computer, the Python code takes 15.5 sec to run 1000 steps; on the same laptop, the NetLogo simulation running in Java inside the browser finishes 1000 steps in less than 6 sec. EDIT: Just checked Repast, using Java implementation. And it's also about the same as NetLogo at 5.4 sec. Recent comparisons between Java and Python suggest no advantage to Java, so I guess it's just my code that's to blame? EDIT: I understand MASON is supposed to be even faster than Repast, and yet it still runs Java in the end.

    Read the article

  • Data access pattern, combining push and pull?

    - by andlju
    I need some advice on what kind of pattern(s) I should use for pushing/pulling data into my application. I'm writing a rule-engine that needs to hold quite a large amount of data in-memory in order to be efficient enough. I have some rather conflicting requirements; It is not acceptable for the engine to always have to wait for a full pre-load of all data before it is functional. Only fetching and caching data on-demand will lead to the engine taking too long before it is running quickly enough. An external event can trigger the need for specific parts of the data to be reloaded. Basically, I think I need a combination of pushing and pulling data into the application. A simplified version of my current "pattern" looks like this (in psuedo-C# written in notepad): // This interface is implemented by all classes that needs the data interface IDataSubscriber { void RegisterData(Entity data); } // This interface is implemented by the data access class interface IDataProvider { void EnsureLoaded(Key dataKey); void RegisterSubscriber(IDataSubscriber subscriber); } class MyClassThatNeedsData : IDataSubscriber { IDataProvider _provider; MyClassThatNeedsData(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; _provider.RegisterSubscriber(this); } public void RegisterData(Entity data) { // Save data for later StoreDataInCache(data); } void UseData(Key key) { // Make sure that the data has been stored in cache _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); Entity data = GetDataFromCache(key); } } class MyDataProvider : IDataProvider { List<IDataSubscriber> _subscribers; // Make sure that the data for key has been loaded to all subscribers public void EnsureLoaded(Key key) { if (HasKeyBeenMarkedAsLoaded(key)) return; PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } // Force all subscribers to get a new version of the data for key public void ForceReload(Key key) { PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } void PublishDataToSubscribers(Key key) { Entity data = FetchDataFromStore(key); foreach(var subscriber in _subscribers) { subscriber.RegisterData(data); } } } // This class will be spun off on startup and should make sure that all data is // preloaded as quickly as possible class MyPreloadingThread { IDataProvider _provider; MyPreloadingThread(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; } void RunInBackground() { IEnumerable<Key> allKeys = GetAllKeys(); foreach(var key in allKeys) { _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); } } } I have a feeling though that this is not necessarily the best way of doing this.. Just the fact that explaining it seems to take two pages feels like an indication.. Any ideas? Any patterns out there I should have a look at?

    Read the article

  • Algorithm to Render a Horizontal Binary-ish Tree in Text/ASCII form

    - by Justin L.
    It's a pretty normal binary tree, except for the fact that one of the nodes may be empty. I'd like to find a way to output it in a horizontal way (that is, the root node is on the left and expands to the right). I've had some experience expanding trees vertically (root node at the top, expanding downwards), but I'm not sure where to start, in this case. Preferably, it would follow these couple of rules: If a node has only one child, it can be skipped as redundant (an "end node", with no children, is always displayed) All nodes of the same depth must be aligned vertically; all nodes must be to the right of all less-deep nodes and to the left of all deeper nodes. Nodes have a string representation which includes their depth. Each "end node" has its own unique line; that is, the number of lines is the number of end nodes in the tree, and when an end node is on a line, there may be nothing else on that line after that end node. As a consequence of the last rule, the root node should be in either the top left or the bottom left corner; top left is preferred. For example, this is a valid tree, with six end nodes (node is represented by a name, and its depth): [a0]------------[b3]------[c5]------[d8] \ \ \----------[e9] \ \----[f5] \--[g1]--------[h4]------[i6] \ \--------------------[j10] \-[k3] Which represents the horizontal, explicit binary tree: 0 a / \ 1 g * / \ \ 2 * * * / \ \ 3 k * b / / \ 4 h * * / \ \ \ 5 * * f c / \ / \ 6 * i * * / / \ 7 * * * / / \ 8 * * d / / 9 * e / 10 j (branches folded for compactness; * representing redundant, one-child nodes; note that *'s are actual nodes, storing one child each, just with names omitted here for presentation sake) (also, to clarify, I'd like to generate the first, horizontal tree; not this vertical tree) I say language-agnostic because I'm just looking for an algorithm; I say ruby because I'm eventually going to have to implement it in ruby anyway. Assume that each Node data structure stores only its id, a left node, and a right node. A master Tree class keeps tracks of all nodes and has adequate algorithms to find: A node's nth ancestor A node's nth descendant The generation of a node The lowest common ancestor of two given nodes Anyone have any ideas of where I could start? Should I go for the recursive approach? Iterative?

    Read the article

  • Undefined Behavior and Sequence Points Reloaded

    - by Nawaz
    Consider this topic a sequel of the following topic: Previous Installment Undefined Behavior and Sequence Points Let's revisit this funny and convoluted expression (the italicized phrases are taken from the above topic *smile* ): i += ++i; We say this invokes undefined-behavior. I presume that when say this, we implicitly assume that type of i is one of built-in types. So my question is: what if the type of i is a user-defined type? Say it's type is Index which is defined later in this post (see below). Would it still invoke undefined-behavior? If yes, why? Is it not equivalent to writing i.operator+=(i.operator ++()); or even syntactically simpler i.add(i.inc());? Or, do they too invoke undefined-behavior? If no, why not? After all, the object i gets modified twice between consecutive sequence points. Please recall the rule of thumb : an expression can modify an object's value only once between consecutive "sequence points. And if i += ++i is an expression, then it must invoke undefined-behavior. If so, then it's equivalents i.operator+=(i.operator ++()); and i.add(i.inc()); must also invoke undefined-behavior which seems to be untrue! (as far as I understand) Or, i += ++i is not an expression to begin with? If so, then what is it and what is the definition of expression? If it's an expression, and at the same time, it's behavior is also well-defined, then it implies that number of sequence points associated with an expression somehow depends on the type of operands involved in the expression. Am I correct (even partly)? By the way, how about this expression? a[++i] = i; //taken from the previous topic. but here type of `i` is Index. class Index { int state; public: Index(int s) : state(s) {} Index& operator++() { state++; return *this; } Index& operator+=(const Index & index) { state+= index.state; return *this; } operator int() { return state; } Index & add(const Index & index) { state += index.state; return *this; } Index & inc() { state++; return *this; } };

    Read the article

  • Classifying captured data in unknown format?

    - by monch1962
    I've got a large set of captured data (potentially hundreds of thousands of records), and I need to be able to break it down so I can both classify it and also produce "typical" data myself. Let me explain further... If I have the following strings of data: 132T339G1P112S 164T897F5A498S 144T989B9B223T 155T928X9Z554T ... you might start to infer the following: possibly all strings are 14 characters long the 4th, 8th, 10th and 14th characters may always be alphas, while the rest are numeric the first character may always be a '1' the 4th character may always be the letter 'T' the 14th character may be limited to only being 'S' or 'T' and so on... As you get more and more samples of real data, some of these "rules" might disappear; if you see a 15 character long string, then you have evidence that the 1st "rule" is incorrect. However, given a sufficiently large sample of strings that are exactly 14 characters long, you can start to assume that "all strings are 14 characters long" and assign a numeric figure to your degree of confidence (with an appropriate set of assumptions around the fact that you're seeing a suitably random set of all possible captured data). As you can probably tell, a human can do a lot of this classification by eye, but I'm not aware of libraries or algorithms that would allow a computer to do it. Given a set of captured data (significantly more complex than the above...), are there libraries that I can apply in my code to do this sort of classification for me, that will identify "rules" with a given degree of confidence? As a next step, I need to be able to take those rules, and use them to create my own data that conforms to these rules. I assume this is a significantly easier step than the classification, but I've never had to perform a task like this before so I'm really not sure how complex it is. At a guess, Python or Java (or possibly Perl or R) are possibly the "common" languages most likely to have these sorts of libraries, and maybe some of the bioinformatic libraries do this sort of thing. I really don't care which language I have to use; I need to solve the problem in whatever way I can. Any sort of pointer to information would be very useful. As you can probably tell, I'm struggling to describe this problem clearly, and there may be a set of appropriate keywords I can plug into Google that will point me towards the solution. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • CSS precedence order? My lecture slides are correct or not?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I've noticed that there are a couple of similar questions and answers at SO already, but let me clarify my specific question here first: I've got lecture slides which states like this: To be frank, I haven't heard of this rule of css precedence myself, and I googled to find something with similar topic but not quite like that : here To have a test myself, I've made a test page on my own server here After running it on FireFox 3.6.3, I am sure it does not show the way as it should be, according to the statement in lecture slides: imported stylesheet ? am I doing it wrong? I cannot see its effect using FireBug it says that embedded stylesheet has a higher precedence over linked/imported stylesheets, however, it doesn't work, if I put the linked/imported tag AFTER that. inline style vs html attributes ? I've got an image where I firstly set its inline style to control the width and height, then use direct html attributes width/height to try modifying that, but failed... Below is the source code : <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> #target { border : 2px solid green; color : green; } </style> <link rel="stylesheet" href="./linked.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> </head> <body> <div id="target">A targeted div tag on page.</div> <img src="cat.jpg" alt="" style="width : 102px; height : 110px;" width="204px" height="220px" /> </body> </html> Can any experienced CSS guys help me figure out if the slide is correct or not? Frankly speaking, I am puzzled myself, as I can clearly see some other "incorrect" statements here and there amongst the slides, such as JavaScript is on client-side (how about server-side JavaScript?) and "Embedded styles are in the head section of a web page "(what the heck? I am not allowed to put it inside the body tag?) Sorry about this silly question, the exam is on TOMORROW, and I now see a lot of things to think about :)

    Read the article

  • difference equations in MATLAB - why the need to switch signs?

    - by jefflovejapan
    Perhaps this is more of a math question than a MATLAB one, not really sure. I'm using MATLAB to compute an economic model - the New Hybrid ISLM model - and there's a confusing step where the author switches the sign of the solution. First, the author declares symbolic variables and sets up a system of difference equations. Note that the suffixes "a" and "2t" both mean "time t+1", "2a" means "time t+2" and "t" means "time t": %% --------------------------[2] MODEL proc-----------------------------%% % Define endogenous vars ('a' denotes t+1 values) syms y2a pi2a ya pia va y2t pi2t yt pit vt ; % Monetary policy rule ia = q1*ya+q2*pia; % ia = q1*(ya-yt)+q2*pia; %%option speed limit policy % Model equations IS = rho*y2a+(1-rho)yt-sigma(ia-pi2a)-ya; AS = beta*pi2a+(1-beta)*pit+alpha*ya-pia+va; dum1 = ya-y2t; dum2 = pia-pi2t; MPs = phi*vt-va; optcon = [IS ; AS ; dum1 ; dum2; MPs]; He then computes the matrix A: %% ------------------ [3] Linearization proc ------------------------%% % Differentiation xx = [y2a pi2a ya pia va y2t pi2t yt pit vt] ; % define vars jopt = jacobian(optcon,xx); % Define Linear Coefficients coef = eval(jopt); B = [ -coef(:,1:5) ] ; C = [ coef(:,6:10) ] ; % B[c(t+1) l(t+1) k(t+1) z(t+1)] = C[c(t) l(t) k(t) z(t)] A = inv(C)*B ; %(Linearized reduced form ) As far as I understand, this A is the solution to the system. It's the matrix that turns time t+1 and t+2 variables into t and t+1 variables (it's a forward-looking model). My question is essentially why is it necessary to reverse the signs of all the partial derivatives in B in order to get this solution? I'm talking about this step: B = [ -coef(:,1:5) ] ; Reversing the sign here obviously reverses the sign of every component of A, but I don't have a clear understanding of why it's necessary. My apologies if the question is unclear or if this isn't the best place to ask.

    Read the article

  • WPF Application Slow Unresponsive when demonstrating using remote sharing software

    - by Kev
    After spending 14 hours on this I think its time to share my woes and see if anyone has experienced this issue before. Ill describe the issue and tests I have done to rule out certain things. Ok so I have a WPF application which loads in data from an SQL database. I am using DevExpress Components for datagrids, ribbons etc.. and FluentNhibernate to provide a session for database operations. I am also using log4net to log events to a textfile. Using the application on my laptop with SQL Express 2008 works fine.. the application starts up, retrieves 1000 records and I can tab through the controls on the ribbon. Now, I decided to demo the application to a third party and used remote login/sharing software online to share my desktop with the other person so as I could load the application on my laptop and they could view me using the application. Now, the application takes approx 45 seconds to load... 30 seconds with a blank database where as, when im not sharing out my screen using the online software the application loads in about 7-10 seconds. As well as that, even using the controls in the application during the demo were very sticky, slow and unresponsive. During the sharing session though however I was able to use other applications without any problems.. everything else worked fine. But I cannot understand how my application works ok under normal conditions , even browsing the net at the same time etc... BUT totally fails to perform correctly when I am sharing a session with another user... the CPU usage shot up to 100% too at times when the application was trying to start up... Please see below a list of 3rd party dlls I am using as references in my project. DevExpress dlls FluidKit PixelLab.WPF PixelLab.Common Galasoft WPF Kit FluentNHibernate NHibernate Nhibernate.ByteCode.Castle Skype4ComLib TXTEXTControl log4net LinqKit All of these DLLs are in the output folder with the application dlls created from the class assemblys in the project. So when installed via an installer on a machine the dlls will be in the same application folder as the application file itself. Many thanks

    Read the article

  • Checking if an int is prime more efficiently

    - by SipSop
    I recently was part of a small java programming competition at my school. My partner and I have just finished our first pure oop class and most of the questions were out of our league so we settled on this one (and I am paraphrasing somewhat): "given an input integer n return the next int that is prime and its reverse is also prime for example if n = 18 your program should print 31" because 31 and 13 are both prime. Your .class file would then have a test case of all the possible numbers from 1-2,000,000,000 passed to it and it had to return the correct answer within 10 seconds to be considered valid. We found a solution but with larger test cases it would take longer than 10 seconds. I am fairly certain there is a way to move the range of looping from n,..2,000,000,000 down as the likely hood of needing to loop that far when n is a low number is small, but either way we broke the loop when a number is prime under both conditions is found. At first we were looping from 2,..n no matter how large it was then i remembered the rule about only looping to the square root of n. Any suggestions on how to make my program more efficient? I have had no classes dealing with complexity analysis of algorithms. Here is our attempt. public class P3 { public static void main(String[] args){ long loop = 2000000000; long n = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); for(long i = n; i<loop; i++) { String s = i +""; String r = ""; for(int j = s.length()-1; j>=0; j--) r = r + s.charAt(j); if(prime(i) && prime(Long.parseLong(r))) { System.out.println(i); break; } } System.out.println("#"); } public static boolean prime(long p){ for(int i = 2; i<(int)Math.sqrt(p); i++) { if(p%i==0) return false; } return true; } } ps sorry if i did the formatting for code wrong this is my first time posting here. Also the output had to have a '#' after each line thats what the line after the loop is about Thanks for any help you guys offer!!!

    Read the article

  • Finding underlying cause of Window 7 Account corruption.

    - by Carl Jokl
    I have been having trouble with my Sister's computer which I built. It is running Windows 7 Ultimate x64. The problem is that I have had problems with the accounts becoming corrupted. First problems manifest themselves in the form of Windows saying the profile failed to be loaded properly and a temporary profile. Eventually the account will not allow login at all. An error message along the lines the authentication service failing the login. I have found information about this problem and how to fix it. The problem being that something has corrupted the account profile and backing up and recreating the accounts fixes the problem. I have been able to fix things and get logins working again but over the period of usually about a week it happens again. Bit by bit the accounts corrupt and then it is back to square one. I am frustrated because I don't know what the underlying cause of the problem is i.e. what is causing the accounts to be corrupted in the first place. At the moment I am just treating the symptoms. I was hoping someone who may have more experience with dealing with this problem might be able to help me find the root cause. Some articles suggest that Norton Internet Security is a big culprit of this problem which is installed. I could try uninstalling Norton and see if it helps. The one thing which is different about this computer to any other I have built is that it has a solid state drive. Actually it has both a hard drive and solid state drive. The documents and settings i.e. the Users directory is stored on the hard drive. This was done following an article about moving the user account data onto a separate drive on Windows 7 which I found on the Internet. Moving the User accounts is more of a pain under Windows 7 and this solution involved creating a low level file system link to the folder from the boot drive (Solid State) to the Hard Drive. The idea is that the computer behaves just as if it is accessing the User's folder from the boot drive but actually the data is stored on the hard drive. This may have nothing to do with the cause of the problem but due to the problem being user account corruption it is a possibility I have not been able to rule out. Any help would be appreciated as I would be glad to see the back of this problem.

    Read the article

  • Testing for existence using SELECT WHERE HAVING and NOT HAVING in a grouped subset

    - by IanC
    I have data on which I need to count +1 if a particular condition exists or another condition doesn't exist. I'm using SQL Server 2008. I shred the following simplified sample XML into a temp table and validate it: <product type="1"> <param type="1"> <item mode="0" weight="1" /> </param> <param type="2"> <item mode="1" weight="1" /> <item mode="0" weight="0.1" /> </param> <param type="3"> <item mode="1" weight="0.75" /> <item mode="1" weight="0.25" /> </param> </product> The validation in concern is the following rule: For each product type, for each param type, mode may be 0 & (1 || 2). In other words, there may be a 0(s), but then 1s or 2s are required, or there may be only 1(s) or 2(s). There cannot be only 0s, and there cannot be 1s and 2s. The only part I haven't figured out is how to detect if there are only 0s. This seems like a "not having" problem. The validation code (for this part): WITH t1 AS ( SELECT SUM(t.ParamWeight) AS S, COUNT(1) AS C, t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode FROM @t AS t GROUP BY t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode ), ... UNION ALL SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 WHERE t1.Mode IN (1, 2) GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING COUNT(1) > 1 UNION ALL ... ) SELECT @C = COUNT(1) FROM t2 This will show if any mode 1s & 2s are mixed, but not if the group contains only a 0. I'm sure there is a simple solution, but it's evading me right now. EDIT: I thought of a "cheat" that works perfectly. I added the following to the above: SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (null || 1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING SUM(t1.Mode) = 0 However, I'd still like to know how to do this without cheating.

    Read the article

  • How to define generic super type for static factory method?

    - by Esko
    If this has already been asked, please link and close this one. I'm currently prototyping a design for a simplified API of a certain another API that's a lot more complex (and potentially dangerous) to use. Considering the related somewhat complex object creation I decided to use static factory methods to simplify the API and I currently have the following which works as expected: public class Glue<T> { private List<Type<T>> types; private Glue() { types = new ArrayList<Type<T>>(); } private static class Type<T> { private T value; /* some other properties, omitted for simplicity */ public Type(T value) { this.value = value; } } public static <T> Glue<T> glueFactory(String name, T first, T second) { Glue<T> g = new Glue<T>(); Type<T> firstType = new Glue.Type<T>(first); Type<T> secondType = new Glue.Type<T>(second); g.types.add(firstType); g.types.add(secondType); /* omitted complex stuff */ return g; } } As said, this works as intended. When the API user (=another developer) types Glue<Horse> strongGlue = Glue.glueFactory("2HP", new Horse(), new Horse()); he gets exactly what he wanted. What I'm missing is that how do I enforce that Horse - or whatever is put into the factory method - always implements both Serializable and Comparable? Simply adding them to factory method's signature using <T extends Comparable<T> & Serializable> doesn't necessarily enforce this rule in all cases, only when this simplified API is used. That's why I'd like to add them to the class' definition and then modify the factory method accordingly. PS: No horses (and definitely no ponies!) were harmed in writing of this question.

    Read the article

  • In Ruby, how does coerce() actually work?

    - by Jian Lin
    It is said that when we have a class Point and knows how to perform point * 3 like the following: class Point def initialize(x,y) @x, @y = x, y end def *(c) Point.new(@x * c, @y * c) end end point = Point.new(1,2) p point p point * 3 Output: #<Point:0x336094 @x=1, @y=2> #<Point:0x335fa4 @x=3, @y=6> but then, 3 * point is not understood: Point can't be coerced into Fixnum (TypeError) So we need to further define an instance method coerce: class Point def coerce(something) [self, something] end end p 3 * point Output: #<Point:0x3c45a88 @x=3, @y=6> So it is said that 3 * point is the same as 3.*(point) that is, the instance method * takes an argument point and invoke on the object 3. Now, since this method * doesn't know how to multiply a point, so point.coerce(3) will be called, and get back an array: [point, 3] and then * is once again applied to it, is that true? point * 3 which is the same as point.*(3) and now, this is understood and we now have a new Point object, as performed by the instance method * of the Point class. The question is: 1) who invokes point.coerce(3) ? Is it Ruby automatically, or is it some code inside of * method of Fixnum by catching an exception? Or is it by case statement that when it doesn't know one of the known types, then call coerce? 2) Does coerce always need to return an array of 2 elements? Can it be no array? Or can it be an array of 3 elements? 3) And is the rule that, the original operator (or method) * will then be invoked on element 0, with the argument of element 1? (element 0 and element 1 are the two elements in that array returned by coerce) Who does it? Is it done by Ruby or is it done by code in Fixnum? If it is done by code in Fixnum, then it is a "convention" that everybody follows when doing a coerce? So could it be the code in * of Fixnum do something like this: if (something.typeof? ...) else if ... # other type else if ... # other type else # if it is not a type I know array = something.coerce(self) return array[0].*(array[1]) end

    Read the article

  • gcc, strict-aliasing, and casting through a union

    - by Joseph Quinsey
    About a year ago the following paragraph was added to the GCC Manual, version 4.3.4, regarding -fstrict-aliasing: Similarly, access by taking the address, casting the resulting pointer and dereferencing the result has undefined behavior [emphasis added], even if the cast uses a union type, e.g.: union a_union { int i; double d; }; int f() { double d = 3.0; return ((union a_union *)&d)->i; } Does anyone have an example to illustrate this undefined behavior? Note this question is not about what the C99 standard says, or does not say. It is about the actual functioning of gcc, and other existing compilers, today. My simple, naive, attempt fails. For example: #include <stdio.h> union a_union { int i; double d; }; int f1(void) { union a_union t; t.d = 3333333.0; return t.i; // gcc manual: 'type-punning is allowed, provided ...' } int f2(void) { double d = 3333333.0; return ((union a_union *)&d)->i; // gcc manual: 'undefined behavior' } int main(void) { printf("%d\n", f1()); printf("%d\n", f2()); return 0; } works fine, giving on CYGWIN: -2147483648 -2147483648 Also note that taking addresses is obviously wrong (or right, if you are trying to illustrate undefined behavior). For example, just as we know this is wrong: extern void foo(int *, double *); union a_union t; t.d = 3.0; foo(&t.i, &t.d); // UD behavior so is this wrong: extern void foo(int *, double *); double d = 3.0; foo(&((union a_union *)&d)->i, &d); // UD behavior For background discussion about this, see for example: http://www.open-std.org/jtc1/sc22/wg14/www/docs/n1422.pdf http://gcc.gnu.org/ml/gcc/2010-01/msg00013.html http://davmac.wordpress.com/2010/02/26/c99-revisited/ http://cellperformance.beyond3d.com/articles/2006/06/understanding-strict-aliasing.html http://stackoverflow.com/questions/98650/what-is-the-strict-aliasing-rule http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771023/c99-strict-aliasing-rules-in-c-gcc/2771041#2771041 The first link, draft minutes of an ISO meeting seven months ago, notes in section 4.16: Is there anybody that thinks the rules are clear enough? No one is really able to interpret tham.

    Read the article

  • How do I debug a difficult-to-reproduce crash with no useful call stack?

    - by David M
    I am encountering an odd crash in our software and I'm having a lot of trouble debugging it, and so I am seeking SO's advice on how to tackle it. The crash is an access violation reading a NULL pointer: First chance exception at $00CF0041. Exception class $C0000005 with message 'access violation at 0x00cf0041: read of address 0x00000000'. It only happens 'sometimes' - I haven't managed to figure out any rhyme or reason, yet, for when - and only in the main thread. When it occurs, the call stack contains one incorrect entry: For the main thread, which this is, it should show a large stack full of other items. At this point, all other threads are inactive (mostly sitting in WaitForSingleObject or a similar function.) I have only seen this crash occur in the main thread. It always has the same call stack of one entry, in the same method at the same address. This method may or may not be related - we do use the VCL in our application. My bet, though, is that something (possibly quite a while ago) is corrupting the stack, and the address where it's crashing is effectively random. Note it has been the same address across several builds, though - it's probably not truly random. Here is what I've tried: Trying to reproduce it reliably at a certain point. I have found nothing that reproduces it every time, and a couple of things that occasionally do, or do not, for no apparent reason. These are not 'narrow' enough actions to narrow it down to a particular section of code. It may be timing related, but at the point the IDE breaks in, other threads are usually doing nothing. I can't rule out a threading problem, but think it's unlikely. Building with extra debugging statements (extra debug info, extra asserts, etc.) After doing so, the crash never occurs. Building with Codeguard enabled. After doing so, the crash never occurs and Codeguard shows no errors. My questions: 1. How do I find what code caused the crash? How do I do the equivalent of walking back up the stack? 2. What general advice do you have for how to trace the cause of this crash? I am using Embarcadero RAD Studio 2010 (the project mostly contains C++ Builder code and small amounts of Delphi.)

    Read the article

  • Does the <script> tag position in HTML affects performance of the webpage?

    - by Rahul Joshi
    If the script tag is above or below the body in a HTML page, does it matter for the performance of a website? And what if used in between like this: <body> ..blah..blah.. <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> ... some text here too ... </body> Or is this better?: <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> <body> ..blah..blah.. ..call above functions on some events like onclick,onfocus,etc.. </body> Or this one?: <body> ..blah..blah.. ..call above functions on some events like onclick,onfocus,etc.. <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> </body> Need not tell everything is again in the <html> tag!! How does it affect performance of webpage while loading? Does it really? Which one is the best, either out of these 3 or some other which you know? And one more thing, I googled a bit on this, from which I went here: Best Practices for Speeding Up Your Web Site and it suggests put scripts at the bottom, but traditionally many people put it in <head> tag which is above the <body> tag. I know it's NOT a rule but many prefer it that way. If you don't believe it, just view source of this page! And tell me what's the better style for best performance.

    Read the article

  • CoreData : App crashes when deleting last instance created

    - by Leo
    Hello, I have a 2 tabs application. In the first one, I'm creating objects of the "Sample" and "SampleList" entities. Each sampleList contains an ID and a set of samples. Each sample contains a date and temperature property. In the second tab, I'm displaying my data in a tableView. I implemented the - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath method in order to delete SampleLists. In my xcdatamodel the delete rule for my relationship between SampleList and Sample is Cascade. My problem is that when I try to delete SampleList I just created, the app crashes and I receive a EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. If I restart it, then I'm able to delete "old" sampleList without any problems. Earlier, I had the following problem : I couldn't display the the sampleLists I created since I launched the app, because it crashed too. I received also the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. Actually, it seemed that the date of the last sample created of the set was nil. If I am not releasing the NSDate I'm using to set the sample's date, I don't have this problem anymore... If anyone could help me to find out what could cause my troubles it would be great !! Here is the method I'm using to create new instances : SampleList *newSampleList = (SampleList *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"SampleList" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newSampleList setPatchID:patchID]; NSMutableSet *newSampleSet = [[NSMutableSet alloc] init]; NSCalendar *gregorian = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; for (int i = 0; i < [byteArray count]; i=i+4, sampleCount++) { NSDateComponents *comps = [[NSDateComponents alloc] init]; [comps setYear:year]; [comps setMonth:month]; [comps setDay:day]; [comps setHour:hours]; [comps setMinute:minutes]; NSDate *sampleDate = [gregorian dateFromComponents:comps]; Sample *newSample = (Sample *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Sample" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newSample setSampleDate:sampleDate]; [newSample setSampleTemperature:[NSNumber numberWithInt:temperature]]; [newSampleSet addObject:newSample]; [comps release]; //[sampleDate release]; } [newSampleList setSampleSet:newSampleSet]; // [newSampleSet release]; NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { NSLog(@"Could not Save the context !!"); } [gregorian release];

    Read the article

  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

    Read the article

  • How would you implement this "WorkerChain" functionality in .NET?

    - by Dan Tao
    Sorry for the vague question title -- not sure how to encapsulate what I'm asking below succinctly. (If someone with editing privileges can think of a more descriptive title, feel free to change it.) The behavior I need is this. I am envisioning a worker class that accepts a single delegate task in its constructor (for simplicity, I would make it immutable -- no more tasks can be added after instantiation). I'll call this task T. The class should have a simple method, something like GetToWork, that will exhibit this behavior: If the worker is not currently running T, then it will start doing so right now. If the worker is currently running T, then once it is finished, it will start T again immediately. GetToWork can be called any number of times while the worker is running T; the simple rule is that, during any execution of T, if GetToWork was called at least once, T will run again upon completion (and then if GetToWork is called while T is running that time, it will repeat itself again, etc.). Now, this is pretty straightforward with a boolean switch. But this class needs to be thread-safe, by which I mean, steps 1 and 2 above need to comprise atomic operations (at least I think they do). There is an added layer of complexity. I have need of a "worker chain" class that will consist of many of these workers linked together. As soon as the first worker completes, it essentially calls GetToWork on the worker after it; meanwhile, if its own GetToWork has been called, it restarts itself as well. Logically calling GetToWork on the chain is essentially the same as calling GetToWork on the first worker in the chain (I would fully intend that the chain's workers not be publicly accessible). One way to imagine how this hypothetical "worker chain" would behave is by comparing it to a team in a relay race. Suppose there are four runners, W1 through W4, and let the chain be called C. If I call C.StartWork(), what should happen is this: If W1 is at his starting point (i.e., doing nothing), he will start running towards W2. If W1 is already running towards W2 (i.e., executing his task), then once he reaches W2, he will signal to W2 to get started, immediately return to his starting point and, since StartWork has been called, start running towards W2 again. When W1 reaches W2's starting point, he'll immediately return to his own starting point. If W2 is just sitting around, he'll start running immediately towards W3. If W2 is already off running towards W3, then W2 will simply go again once he's reached W3 and returned to his starting point. The above is probably a little convoluted and written out poorly. But hopefully you get the basic idea. Obviously, these workers will be running on their own threads. Also, I guess it's possible this functionality already exists somewhere? If that's the case, definitely let me know!

    Read the article

  • multithreading with database

    - by Darsin
    I am looking out for a strategy to utilize multithreading (probably asynchronous delegates) to do a synchronous operation. I am new to multithreading so i will outline my scenario first. This synchronous operation right now is done for one set of data (portfolio) based on the the parameters provided. The (psudeo-code) implementation is given below: public DataSet DoTests(int fundId, DateTime portfolioDate) { // Get test results for the portfolio // Call the database adapter method, which in turn is a stored procedure, // which in turns runs a series of "rule" stored procs and fills a local temp table and returns it back. DataSet resultsDataSet = GetTestResults(fundId, portfolioDate); try { // Do some local processing on the results DoSomeProcessing(resultsDataSet); // Save the results in Test, TestResults and TestAllocations tables in a transaction. // Sets a global transaction which is provided to all the adapter methods called below // It is defined in the Base class StartTransaction("TestTransaction"); // Save Test and get a testId int testId = UpdateTest(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update testId in the other tables in the dataset UpdateTestId(resultsDataSet, testId); // Update TestResults UpdateTestResults(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update TestAllocations UpdateTestAllocations(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // It is defined in the base class CommitTransaction("TestTransaction"); } catch { RollbackTransaction("TestTransaction"); } return resultsDataSet; } Now the requirement is to do it for multiple set of data. One way would be to call the above DoTests() method in a loop and get the data. I would prefer doing it in parallel. But there are certain catches: StartTransaction() method creates a connection (and transaction) every time it is called. All the underlying database tables, procedures are the same for each call of DoTests(). (obviously). Thus my question are: Will using multithreading anyway improve performance? What are the chances of deadlock especially when new TestId's are being created and the Tests, TestResults and TestAllocations are being saved? How can these deadlocked be handled? Is there any other more efficient way of doing the above operation apart from looping over the DoTests() method repeatedly?

    Read the article

  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135  | Next Page >