Search Results

Search found 31696 results on 1268 pages for 'client side validation'.

Page 129/1268 | < Previous Page | 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136  | Next Page >

• Filezilla client unable to get directory listing from Filezilla Server (Windows)

  - by sestocker

  I've set up a self signed certificate in FileZilla server and enabled FTP over SSL/TPS. When I connect from the client FileZilla, I am able to authenticate but cannot get a directory listing: Status: Connecting to MY_SERVER_IP:21... Status: Connection established, waiting for welcome message... Response: 220-FileZilla Server version 0.9.39 beta Response: 220-written by Tim Kosse ([email protected]) Response: 220 Please visit http://sourceforge.net/projects/filezilla/ Command: AUTH TLS Response: 234 Using authentication type TLS Status: Initializing TLS... Status: Verifying certificate... Command: USER MYUSER Status: TLS/SSL connection established. Response: 331 Password required for MYUSER Command: PASS ******** Response: 230 Logged on Command: PBSZ 0 Response: 200 PBSZ=0 Command: PROT P Response: 200 Protection level set to P Status: Connected Status: Retrieving directory listing... Command: PWD Response: 257 "/" is current directory. Command: TYPE I Response: 200 Type set to I Command: PORT 10,10,25,85,219,172 Response: 200 Port command successful Command: MLSD Response: 150 Opening data channel for directory list. Response: 425 Can't open data connection. Error: Failed to retrieve directory listing I have ports 21 and 50001 through 50005 open on the firewall. We are migrating servers - the 50001 - 50005 is one of the things that helped get FTPS working on the old server. I'm not sure this installation would use the same ports? What else could be the problem?

  Read the article

• Problems with connecting Thunderbird client to dovecot installed on Ubuntu

  - by Michael Omer

  I am trying to connect a Thunderbird client to my dovecot server. The dovecot is installed on Ubuntu. I know that my server works (at least partially), since when I send a mail to a user in the server ([email protected]), I see the new file created in /home/feedback/Maildir/new. However, when I try to connect with my Thunderbird to the server, It recognizes the server, but informs me that my user/password is wrong (they are not wrong). The exact message is: Configuration could not be verified - is the username or password wrong? The server configuration it tries to connect to is: incoming - IMAP 143, outgoing - SMTP 587 The dovecot configuration file is located here: dovecot.conf My PAM configuration is: @include common-auth @include common-account @include common-session In the log, I see: May 23 06: 07: 20 misfortune dovecot: imap-login: Disconnected (no auth attempts): ? rip=77.126.236.118, lip=184.106.69.153 Dovecot -n gives me: Log_timestamp: %Y-%m-%d %H: %M: %S Protocols: pop3 pop3s imap imaps Ssl: no Login_dir: /var/run/dovecot/login Login_executable(default): /usr/lib/dovecot/imap-login Login_executable(imap): /usr/lib/dovecot/imap-login Login_executable(pop3): /usr/lib/dovecot/pop3-login Mail_privileged_group: mail Mail_location: maildir: ~/Maildir Mbox_write_locks: fcntl dotlock Mail_executable(default): /usr/lib/dovecot/imap Mail_executable(imap): /usr/lib/dovecot/imap Mail_executable(pop3): /usr/lib/dovecot/pop3 Mail_plugin_dir(default): /usr/lib/dovecot/modules/imap Mail_plugin_dir(imap): /usr/lib/dovecot/modules/imap Mail_plugin_dir(pop3): /usr/lib/dovecot/modules/pop3 Imap_client_workarounds(default): tb-extra-mailbox-sep Imap_client_workarounds(imap): tb-extra-mailbox-sep Imap_client_workarounds(pop3): Auth default: passdb: driver: pam userdb: driver: passwd

  Read the article

• Persistent routes for DD-WRT PPTP VPN client

  - by Tim Kemp

  My home network in the USA is behind a Buffalo router (G300NH) running their version of DD-WRT. I use the built-in PPTP VPN client to connect to a VPN provider in the UK. I route certain traffic over the VPN (so it has a UK source address, for various entirely legal reasons) which I achieved by following the instructions in the DD-WRT docs and my VPN provider's own instructions. I placed two commands like this in the firewall script: route add -net xxx.xxx.0.0 netmask 255.255.0.0 dev ppp0 route add -net yyy.yyy.0.0 netmask 255.255.0.0 dev ppp0 I didn't put any of the iptables rules in since it my setup doesn't seem to need them. It works like a charm. Traffic to the xxx subnets goes over the VPN, everything else goes out over my ISPs own pipes. The problem comes when the VPN drops, which it does occasionally. DD-WRT does a fine job of reconnecting it automatically, but the routes are trashed every time that happens. How do I automate the process of re-establishing my routes? I thought about static routes, but the IP address of the VPN connection is dynamically assigned (which is why I'm using dev ppp0). Many thanks, Tim

  Read the article

• How does Windows 7 DNS client work?

  - by Mark Allison

  I am using a local DHCP and DNS server on my home network on a linux machine. It is running CentOS 6.3 with dnsmasq 2.48. It's all working fine except for local DNS lookups for Windows machines only. I have a mix of Ubuntu, CentOS and Windows machines on the network, some virtual, some physical. I have a machine called boron and the domain is called localdomain If I ping boron from any linux machine, I get [root@lithium lists]# ping -c3 boron PING boron.localdomain (10.0.0.5) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from boron.localdomain (10.0.0.5): icmp_seq=1 ttl=64 time=0.740 ms 64 bytes from boron.localdomain (10.0.0.5): icmp_seq=2 ttl=64 time=0.478 ms 64 bytes from boron.localdomain (10.0.0.5): icmp_seq=3 ttl=64 time=0.458 ms --- boron.localdomain ping statistics --- 3 packets transmitted, 3 received, 0% packet loss, time 2000ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 0.458/0.558/0.740/0.131 ms If I do it from my Windows 7 machine, I get: Ping request could not find host boron. Please check the name and try again. If I try ping boron.localdomain I get: Pinging boron.localdomain [67.215.65.132] with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=16ms TTL=57 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=188ms TTL=57 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=15ms TTL=57 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=14ms TTL=57 Ping statistics for 67.215.65.132: Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: Minimum = 14ms, Maximum = 188ms, Average = 58ms which is clearly wrong. Why is it going out to the internet? Why can't my windows machine resolve the boron hostname to a FQDN? My Windows machines and linux machines get their network config from DHCP. UPDATE If I do ipconfig /all in Windows, it looks as I would expect: Windows IP Configuration Host Name . . . . . . . . . . . . : lanthanum Primary Dns Suffix . . . . . . . : Node Type . . . . . . . . . . . . : Hybrid IP Routing Enabled. . . . . . . . : No WINS Proxy Enabled. . . . . . . . : No DNS Suffix Search List. . . . . . : .localdomain Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : .localdomain Description . . . . . . . . . . . : Realtek PCIe GBE Family Controller Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 50-E5-49-38-FC-A2 DHCP Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : Yes Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 10.0.0.57(Preferred) Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Lease Obtained. . . . . . . . . . : 23 August 2012 13:58:45 Lease Expires . . . . . . . . . . : 24 August 2012 07:58:48 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 10.0.0.6 DHCP Server . . . . . . . . . . . : 10.0.0.6 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 10.0.0.6 208.67.222.222 208.67.220.220 NetBIOS over Tcpip. . . . . . . . : Enabled When I do an nslookup I get: Server: carbon.localdomain Address: 10.0.0.6 *** carbon.localdomain can't find boron: Unspecified error However if I do ifconfig -a in Linux I get: [root@nitrogen ~]# ifconfig -a eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:0C:29:AF:EC:2A inet addr:10.0.0.7 Bcast:10.0.0.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:187687 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:5857 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:23910700 (22.8 MiB) TX bytes:712964 (696.2 KiB) lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:329894 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:329894 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:67153143 (64.0 MiB) TX bytes:67153143 (64.0 MiB) and nslookup: [root@nitrogen ~]# nslookup boron Server: 10.0.0.6 Address: 10.0.0.6#53 Name: boron Address: 10.0.0.5 Both machines are on the same network using the same DHCP server. UPDATE 2 I thought the issue was resolved but I am getting intermittent DNS resolving issues but only on my Windows 7 machine. All my linux boxes are fine. This is what happens when I ping and nslookup from Windows to a Windows 2008 Server: C:\Users\mark>nslookup magnesium Server: carbon.localdomain Address: 10.0.0.6 Name: magnesium.localdomain Address: 10.0.0.12 C:\Users\mark>ping magnesium Pinging magnesium.localdomain [67.215.65.132] with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=267ms TTL=57 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=162ms TTL=57 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=510ms TTL=57 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=146ms TTL=57 Ping statistics for 67.215.65.132: Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: Minimum = 146ms, Maximum = 510ms, Average = 271ms And from Linux: [root@beryllium ~]# ping -c4 magnesium PING magnesium.localdomain (10.0.0.12) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from magnesium.localdomain (10.0.0.12): icmp_seq=1 ttl=128 time=0.176 ms 64 bytes from magnesium.localdomain (10.0.0.12): icmp_seq=2 ttl=128 time=0.634 ms 64 bytes from magnesium.localdomain (10.0.0.12): icmp_seq=3 ttl=128 time=0.685 ms 64 bytes from magnesium.localdomain (10.0.0.12): icmp_seq=4 ttl=128 time=0.263 ms --- magnesium.localdomain ping statistics --- 4 packets transmitted, 4 received, 0% packet loss, time 3002ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 0.176/0.439/0.685/0.223 ms [root@beryllium ~]# nslookup magnesium Server: 10.0.0.6 Address: 10.0.0.6#53 Name: magnesium.localdomain Address: 10.0.0.12 UPDATE 3 I stopped the Windows DNS client on my Windows 7 machine with net stop dnscache and it is now working fine. It would be nice to get DNS working with the DNS client on, but I might be OK without it, what do you think?

  Read the article

• NFS server is ignoring anonuid?

  - by paszczak000

  On NFS server I've got user with UID=1024 and GID=1204. On client side too. Both servers are CentOS 6.4 (2.6.32-358.2.1.el6.x86_64). Right now anonuid/anongid is not working. Files aren't mapped to 1024 uid but to 99 (nobody:x:99:99:Nobody:/:/sbin/nologin). /etc/exports /vol/test10.xxx.xxx.xxx(rw,all_squash,anonuid=1024,anongid=1024) /etc/fstab 10.xxx.xxx.xxx:/vol/test /nas/test nfs nosuid,intr,defaults,_netdev,intr 0 0

  Read the article

• Use WSUS without client configuration

  - by sc911

  Hello *, is there any way to let client-PCs use the local WSUS-server without having to configure them? What we need is a system to update PCs before they are delivered to the users. So the WSUS-server is accessible only within our lab, not later on at the users place. We'd like to use WSUS because it will fasten up the download very much. And we don't like to modify the clients as those changes might be forgotten to remove and then at the users place no update will be possible. So the easiest way would be, if one could redirect the normal Microsoft update, but I'm pretty sure that this will not be possible as this update will not be WSUS compliant. An other option I thought of might be, that the DHCP delivers an extra option telling the clients where to get the updates. But I could not find any information about this, so it looks like that this isn't possible too. So, is there any way? Or will it be easier to use a little script to change the WSUS-entries automatically? Regards sc911

  Read the article

• Checkpoint VPN-1 R60 and Windows 7 64 Bit Client

  - by Mohit

  Hi All, As per my knowledge of checkpoint VPN-1. My company is using checkpoint VPN-1 R 60 ( I guess as I dont know how to check server version) Firewall(VPN Server). Now the problem is that I installed Windows 7 64 bit. But, after my research I found that there are not even one client (SecuRemote/SecuClient) for Win7 64 bit, when Firewall or server is R60. I thought of some open source solutions. Can you guys please suggest me some with the configuration required. As of now, I know the IP of the server. I know my username and password using which I connect and that is not my domain password. that i can confirm to you guys. I am not a network guy. I am more of a developer. But, I need some help in this.So, let me know if I can provide you more details. Please please i need urgent help on this.

  Read the article

• Video Chat going through a server

  - by Alexander

  I'm trying to build a simple video chat client on the mac as a little project and I want it to be able to go over my own little server and arrive at the other end (so going over the internet rather just locally). So my question is if there are any references I should look for online on how to handle something like this on the server side and such. Any links or pointers would be a great help, thanks!

  Read the article

• Whats a good tabbed FTP program? [closed]

  - by yegor

  Possible Duplicate: Best opensource FTP software? Im looking for a less outdated TABBED ftp program similar to WS_FTP that allows me to open several ftp connections on 1 side, and several local folders on the other. For Windows 7 (64bit) Can someone suggest something like this?

  Read the article

• Measure Upload Speed between a client and our server

  - by tresstylez

  We host a SAAS application specially customized for multiple clients. For one customer in particular -- they are reporting sporadic performance issues from various locations on their network, in particular UPLOADING documents through a form on our website. The client claims they have "bandwidth to spare" and that utilization of their "pipe" is so low that it MUST be our application, but our application has MANY clients and all features are working fine for all other clients. Interestingly enough -- DOWNLOADS (ie. just accessing the website, or downloading documents) is working fine. Speed test shows that they should get 1.2Mbps UP. So, a 3MB file should take 20 secs to upload. It takes 60+ seconds on their network. Sometimes even small files take OVER 10 minutes to upload or they timeout. Pings and Traceroutes don't show any abnormally long hops or response times. They claim other SAAS applications they use allow them to upload just fine. Both IT teams are working together to resolve this issue. What kind of data can I request from the clients to begin ruling things out. Seems like we need to somehow measure LATENCY of the networks involved or even at the switch level, we need to understand if packets are getting dropped somewhere and why. Where should I start? Any help is appreciated. I'll provide more info upon requests

  Read the article

• TortoiseSVN client slows Explorer to a crawl in Windows XP running in Parallels

  - by Cory Larson

  I thought I'd make my first SuperUser question relatively simple, though it's the kind of question that may not get many responses as I'm not directly involved with the issue. A colleague does his development in Windows XP running in Parallels on his Mac. We've just migrated our VSS repository to SVN, and we've gone with TortoiseSVN as our client of choice with the Ankhsvn plugin for Visual Studio. On his XP instance, after installing TortoiseSVN, browsing through folders using Explorer is extremely slow; about 15 - 30 seconds before the contents of the next folder displays. It's the slowest when opening My Computer. Once he reaches a folder that contains the working content of an SVN project, Explorer behaves quickly again as expected. It seems that TortoiseSVN may be spending a bunch of time searching subfolders for stuff so it can do its icon-overlay thing, but that's just a guess. I've used TortoiseSVN for years on both XP and Vista on far less powerful machines without any issues with Explorer, so I'm attributing the slowness to it being run in a VM, though that may not be the actual issue. So has anyone encountered similar performance issues, and/or know of a fix? Keep in mind that any requests to make changes to his configuration will need to be communicated and thus my response time might be slow. Thanks everyone!

  Read the article

• Client cannot access my IIS7 web server

  - by Soccerwiz

  I have a Windows 2008 web server on running IIS 7 with about 25 websites. One of those sites is an SaaS application that is accessed constantly throughout the day. However, one particular client keeps getting blocked from my server. They will be using the service, and then all of a sudden they cannot access the program, or any other site on the server. The entire office of 4 users is blocked from accessing anything on the web server. A trace route reveals they get all the way to the server before they are blocked. However, they can access a linux server that is a different VM with a different IP on the same physical server. Also, when they are blocked from their office, they can still access the site from their mobile phone or local Starbucks. They can also occasionally reset the router and gain access to the web server again as they are on a dynamic IP address. I checked IIS and allow all IPs to access the server. There is nothing in the logs the says anything about a user being banned. I really have no idea what is causing this? Could it be a virus on their end? I have even moved the SaaS to a completely new server in a different location, and they were working fine for about a month, and then the problem started occurring again. Are there any hidden blacklists in IIS? Or is it a routing issue on their end?

  Read the article

• Windows preventing running of Telnet client

  - by palswim

  At first, I had issues because Windows 7 doesn't install the Telnet client by default (also, SuperUser has a thread). So, after installing it (and restarting, like Windows asked, though completely unnecessary), I opened a command prompt, and went to run my new Telnet program. I enter telnet, and receive: C:\Users\[USER]>telnet 'telnet' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. "That's odd," I think to myself. So, in Windows explorer, I navigate to \Windows\System32 and see telnet.exe sitting in that folder. If I double-click on the executable file, the Telnet command prompt opens for me without a problem. So, I return to my Windows Command Prompt, and enter: C:\Users\[USER]>\Windows\System32\telnet.exe '\Windows\System32\telnet.exe' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. And then (grep comes from cygwin): C:\Users\ryan\Desktop>dir \Windows\System32 | grep telnet Nothing. I've disabled UAC and have no idea why my Command Prompt is lying to me. Anyone experience something similar? To recap: In Windows 7, I have installed Telnet and can see it in my System32 folder, but cannot run it via a Command Prompt.

  Read the article

• How to stop split tunnelling over cisco VPN (OS X)?

  - by Notre

  I'm using OS X (Snow Leopard) and the built in Cisco IP Sec client to connect to my corporate VPN. Currently, everything works as designed, and desired for most people. However, I would like to be able to funnel all traffic (particularly all web browser traffic) through the VPN. (Note - I'm an end user here, not the network administrator). Is this possible? In searching around, most people are looking to do the opposite; break out the VPN and enable split tunnelling of data. I'd like to avoid the split tunnelling. Is there some setting I can make in my OS X client to make this happen? I ran across a post where routing table changes are made to force split tunnelling: how to force split tunnel routing on mac -> cisco vpn I'm thinking something similar to that might work, but I'm not a networking expert so I'm not sure where to start (or if it is even possible). Thank you! Notre

  Read the article

• JSF with Enum 'Validation Error: Value is not valid'

  - by Shamik

  I have an enum whose code is like this - public enum COSOptionType { NOTAPPLICABLE, OPTIONAL, MANDATORY; private String[] label = { "Not Applicable", "Optional", "Mandatory"}; @Override public String toString() { return label[this.ordinal()]; } public static COSOptionType getCOSOption(String value) { int ivalue = Integer.parseInt(value); switch(ivalue) { case 0: return NOTAPPLICABLE; case 1: return OPTIONAL; case 2: return MANDATORY; default: throw new RuntimeException("Should not get this far ever!"); } } } I have the converter to convert the enum type public class COSEnumConverter implements Converter { public Object getAsObject(FacesContext context, UIComponent comp, String value) { return COSOptionType.getCOSOption(value); } public String getAsString(FacesContext context, UIComponent comp, Object obj) { if (obj instanceof String) { return (String) obj; } COSOptionType type = (COSOptionType) obj; int index = type.ordinal(); return ""+index; } } The view looks like this <h:selectOneMenu value="#{controller.type}" id="smoking"> <f:selectItems value="#{jnyController.choices}" /> </h:selectOneMenu> Here is the code for create choices private List<SelectItem> createChoicies() { List<SelectItem> list = new ArrayList<SelectItem>(); for (COSOptionType cos : COSOptionType.values()) { SelectItem item = new SelectItem(); item.setLabel(cos.toString()); item.setValue("" + cos.ordinal()); list.add(item); } return list; } I do not understand why this would throw "validation error" all the time ? I can debug and see that the converter is working fine. NOTE: I am using JSF 1.1

  Read the article

• jQuery datepicker validation message issue

  - by Abhishek

  Hi, I'm using the jquery datepicker plugin at http://plugins.jquery.com/project/datepick with the datepicker validation plugin. <script id="frmValidation" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var validator = $("#frmTest").validate({ rules:{ fname: "required", dobPicker: "required" }, messages:{ fname: "Please enter a name", dobPicker: "Select a date" }, }); $('#dobPicker').datepick(); $.datepick.setDefaults({showOn: 'both', dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy', yearRange:'1900:2010'}); }); </script> And the body of the document is as follows : <form id="frmTest" action="" method="post"> <div id="error-list"></div> <div class="form-row"> <span class="label"><label for="fname">Name</label></span> <input type="text" name="fname" /> </div> <div class="form-row"> <span class="label"><label for="dobPicker">DOB</label></span> <input type="text" id="dobPicker" name="dobPicker" style="margin-left: 4px;"/> </div> <div class="form-row"> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="submit"/> </div> </form> The form validates the first time but the error message for the datepicker does not disappear immediately a date is selected.. however it goes away if the date is selected the second time. Any help to make it go the first time a date is selected will be appreciated

  Read the article

• Validation using JAXB and Stax to marshal XML document

  - by bajafresh4life

  I have created an XML schema (foo.xsd) and used xjc to create my binding classes for JAXB. Let's say the root element is "collection" and I am writing N "document" objects, which are complex types. Because I plan to write out large XML files, I am using Stax to write out the "collection" root element, and JAXB to marshal document subtrees using Marshaller.marshal(JAXBElement, XMLEventWriter). This is the approach recommended by jaxb's unofficial user's guide: https://jaxb.dev.java.net/guide/Different_ways_of_marshalling.html#Marshalling_into_a_subtree My question is, how can I validate the XML while it's being marshalled? If I bind a schema to the JAXB marshaller (using Marshaller.setSchema()), I get validation errors because I am only marshalling a subtree (it's complaining that it's not seeing the "collection" root element"). I suppose what I really want to do is bind a schema to the Stax XMLEventWriter or something like that. Any comments on this overall approach would be helpful. Basically I want to be able to use JAXB to marshal and unmarshal large XML documents without running out of memory, so if there's a better way to do this let me know.

  Read the article

• CSS Validation Warning: Same colors for color and background-color in two contexts

  - by TankDriver

  I am getting a ton of warnings like the ones listed below when I do a CSS validation check via http://jigsaw.w3.org/css-validator/validator?uri=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.gamefriction.com%2FCoded&profile=css21&usermedium=all&warning=1&lang=en > 513 Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > #blue_module and #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > .content ul li and #red_module_top 513 > Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > #footer_container and #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > ul.tabs li a.active and > #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and background-color in two > contexts #content_960 and > #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and background-color in two > contexts #content_main and > #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and background-color in two > contexts .content and #red_module_top > 513 Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > #league_module select option and #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and background-color in two > contexts #red_module and > #red_module_top Any ideas how to fix this? CSS file: gamefriction.com/Coded/css/style.css

  Read the article

• Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

  - by dean nolan

  I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

  Read the article

• Invalid security validation exception inside a SharePoint workflow

  - by Dan Revell

  I'm having a strange security problem with a SharePoint workflow. Particular calls seem to result in the following exception: Microsoft.SharePoint.SPException: The security validation for this page is invalid. I've come across this error before and the simple fix is web.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; ... web.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; However I've never once encountered this problem inside a workflow before since a workflow runs as system. I first got this error in a code activity where I set the value of a column on the list item. Wrapping the item.Update in AllowUnsafeUpdates fixed it. After the code activity I have a CreateTask activity. This also causes the same error but only after running the code inside the activity's MethodInvoking. In both cases there's a SPListItem.UpdateItem involved within the stack trace. This call is failing a security check. I don't know anything about how this check works so I don't know where to look next. This is a strange one, because this SharePoint dev machine has been working fine for some time. No other projects or workflows exhibit this behaviour so that rules out an installation problem. There's just something about this particular workflow. [UPDATE] I've gotten around the issue by just creating a new project and building it up again. I still have the broken one and I'd still like to figure out the problem with it. I'd appreciate any suggestions of what it might be.

  Read the article

• Enable/disable RequiredValidator on client-side / CustomValidator not firing

  - by Simeon

  I've got a drop-down where the user selects a Country. It is a required "field". Next to it, there is a textfield named State. If the user selects US, then the field State is required. If the user selects e.g. Sweden, the State is not required, since Sweden has no states. Example code: <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="Country"></asp:DropDownList> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ControlToValidate="Country" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="State"></asp:TextBox> <asp:CustomValidator ClientValidationFunction="DoesntGetFiredIfStateIsEmpty" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> <!-- SO, RATHER THIS TOGETHER WITH CONDITIONAL FIRING --> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ControlToValidate="State" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> My question to you is: How can I make this CustomValidator fire validation when it is empty? Or put simplier: How can I make a RequiredValidator fire conditionally? Or simplest: How can I enable/disable a RequiredValidator on client-side?

  Read the article

• How to add validation errors in the validation collection asp.net mvc?

  - by johndoe

  Inside my controller's action I have the following code: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add errors to the errors collection and then return the view saying that you cannot select the dropdownlist value with the "Please Select" option } return View(); UPDATE: if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add error ModelState.AddModelError("GridActionDropDownList", "Please select an option"); return RedirectToAction("Orders"); } } UPDATE 2: Here is my updated code: @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedGridAction, Model.GridActions,"Please Select") @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.SelectedGridAction) The Model looks like the following: public class MyInvoicesViewModel { private List<SelectListItem> _gridActions; public int CurrentGridAction { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please select an option")] public string SelectedGridAction { get; set; } public List<SelectListItem> GridActions { get { _gridActions = new List<SelectListItem>(); _gridActions.Add(new SelectListItem() { Text = "Export to Excel", Value = "1"}); return _gridActions; } } } And here is my controller action: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add error ModelState.AddModelError("SelectedGridAction", "Please select an option"); return RedirectToAction("Orders"); } return View(); } Nothing happens! I am totally lost on this one! UPDATE 3: I am now using the following code but still the validation is not firing: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { var myViewModel= new MyViewModel(); myViewModel.SelectedGridAction = id; // id is passed as null if (!ModelState.IsValid) { return View("Orders"); }

  Read the article

• XHTML Validation issue trying to render '&' character inside an ASP.Net control

  - by Micah

  Ok, the description is kind of funky, but here's my problem: <asp:ListItem Value="0">All Leads <i>(include Archive & Trash)</i></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="0">All Leads <i>(include Archive &amp; Trash)</i></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="0" Text="All Leads <i>(include Archive & Trash)</i>" /> <asp:ListItem Value="0" Text="All Leads <i>(include Archive &amp; Trash)</i>" /> All three versions render the following html All Leads <i>(include Archive & Trash)</i> This of course fails XHTML validation. It needs to render the html like this: All Leads <i>(include Archive &amp; Trash)</i> How can I fix this? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Custom control doesn't fire validation

  - by Ed Woodcock

  I've written a custom ASP.net control that descends from LinkButton and overrides the Render() method. I'm using it to replace ImageButtons in the site I'm working on so we don't have to have an image for each button. This control works fine, does the required post-backs etc., however it doesn't fire the validators in its validation group. This is obviously an issue. The code for the control is (condensed) as follows: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public class CustomButton : LinkButton { public string SpanCssClass { get; set; } protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { if (!Visible) { return; } writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Name, UniqueID); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Id, ClientID); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Class, CssClass); string postback = string.IsNullOrEmpty(OnClientClick) ? "javascript:__doPostBack('" + UniqueID + "','');" : OnClientClick; writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Href, postback); writer.RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag.A); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Class, SpanCssClass); writer.RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag.Span); writer.Write(Text); writer.RenderEndTag(); writer.RenderEndTag(); } } Does anyone know why this would not be causing the validators to fire? I was under the impression that leaving all the other methods in LinkButton un-overridden would leave all the other functionality the same!

  Read the article

• Netbeans PHP Validation sees endif as a syntax error

  - by Asaf

  I have this part of code <?php for ($j=0; $j < $count; $j++): ?> <?php if(isset(votes[$j])): ?> <dt>something something</dt> <dd> <span><?php echo $result; ?>%</span> <div class="bar"> </div> </dd> <?php else: ?> <dt>info</dt> <dd> <span>0</span> <div class="bar"> <div style="width: 0px"></div> </div> </dd> <?php endif; ?> <?php endfor; ?> now Netbeans insists that on the endif line (near the end) there's a syntax error: Error Syntax error: expected: exit, identifier, variable, function... Is there some sort of known problem with the validation of endif on Netbeans ?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136  | Next Page >