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• How to void authorized transaction in authorize.net gateway using ActiveMerchant

  - by m7d

  Goal: Only have successful purchases show up on a customer's billing statement. I don't want declined authorizations showing up on their billing statement (as seen in an online banking system) as pending. A customer often will accidentally input an incorrect billing address, for example, followed by a correct one. Together, the two attempts, one successful and one not both show up on their billing statement as pending prior to settlement. This can scare the customer as it looks potentially like they will be charged twice. Details: When I do an AUTH_CAPTURE (via ActiveMerchant's purchase) or an AUTH (via ActiveMerchant's authorize) which is declined and subsequently want to void that authorization (via ActiveMerchant's void) so as not to have it appear on a customer's billing statement as pending (even though it will settle out after a few days), the gateway can't find the transaction to void using the authorization code returned from the authorization or capture method calls on the gateway. This is specific to the authorize.net AIM gateway. Please advise. Thanks!

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• WCF Transaction Scope SQL insert table lock

  - by lihnid

  Hi All, I have two services talking to two different Data-stores (i.e SQL). I am using transactionscope: eg: using(TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { service1.InsertUser(user);//Insert to SQL Service 1 table User service2.SavePayment(payment);//Save payment SQL Service 2 table payment scope.Complete(); } Service1 is locking the table (User) until the transaction is completed making subsequent transactions with that table sequential. Is there a way to overcome the lock, so can have more than one concurrent calls to the SQL service1 table while the above code is executing? I would appreciate any input. Thanks in Advance. Lihnid

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• Getting consecutive version numbers from Hibernate's @Version usage once per transaction

  - by Cheradenine

  We use Hibernate with the following version definition for optimistic locking et. al: <version name="version" access="field" column="VERSION" type="long" unsaved-value="negative"/> This is fine and dandy; however, there is one small problem, which is that the first version for some entities is '0', and for others, it is '1'. Why this is happening, is that for some object graphs, an entity will be subject to both onSave and flushDirty - this is reasonable, such as if two object are circular dependencies. However, the version number gets incremented on both occasions, leading to the above '0' / '1' discrepancy. I'd really like the version number only to ever increment once per transaction. However, I can't see a simple way to do this in the hibernate versioning implementation, without hacking about with an Interceptor (which was how I generated a column value for version before, but I wanted hibernate to do it itself)..

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• Filter DataTable to show only the most recent transaction for each user

  - by Dan Neely

  I have a datatable that contains rows of transaction data for multiple users. Each row includes UserID and UserTransactionID columns. What would I use for as a RowFilter in the tables DefaultView to only show the row for each user that has the highest UserTransactionID value? sample data and results UserID UserTransactionID PassesFilter 1 1 False 1 2 False 1 3 True 2 1 True 3 1 False 3 2 True My data is orginating in a non-SQL source, the DataTable is being created to be bound to a DataGridView so I can't make changes to a query being used to get the data initially.

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• GAE Entity Groups/Transaction

  - by bach

  Hi, Say you have a Client Buying Card object and a product object. When the client chooses the buy opition you create the object and then add a product. It should be transactional but it's not on the same entity group as the product and the card already been persisted, isn't it? Is there any way to overcome this simple scenario safely and easily? here's a code sample: Transaction tx = pm.currentTransaction(); tx.begin(); Product prod = pm.getObjectById(Product.class, "TV"); prod.setReserved(true); pm.makePersistent(prod); Card card = pm.getObjectById(Card.class, "user123"); /// <--- will thorw an exception as card and prod aren't on the same entity group card.setProd(prod); pm.makePersistent(card); try { tx.commit(); break; }

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• Is there a difference SMO ServerConnection transaction methods versus using the SqlConnectionObject

  - by YWE

  I am using SMO to create databases and tables on a SQL Server. I want to do so in a transaction. Are both of these methods of doing so valid and equivalent: First method: Server server; //... server.ConnectionContext.BeginTransaction(); //... server.ConnectionContext.CommitTransaction(); Second method: Server server; // ... SqlConnection conn = server.ConnectionContext.SqlConnectionObject; SqlTransaction trans = conn.BeginTransaction(); // ... trans.Commit();

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• SQLBulkCopy used in conjunction with Transaction and firing an event each time a batch is copied

  - by Hans Rudel

  Im currently uploading data to MS SQL server via SQLBulkCopy and Transactions. I would like to be able to raise an event after each batch has been uploaded (I have already tried SQLRowsCopied event and it doesnt work, see quote below) MSDN quote: No action, such as transaction activity, is supported in the connection during the execution of the bulk copy operation, and it is recommended that you not use the same connection used during the SqlRowsCopied event. However, you can open a different connection. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.sqlclient.sqlbulkcopy.sqlrowscopied(v=vs.80).aspx So i basically cant have my cake and eat it :( Does anyone know a solution around this as i would like to fire an event after each batch has been uploaded. Thanks for your help.

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• PayPal $0 Dollar Transaction?

  - by Alex

  Hi. I have a client who wants a paypal shopping cart. All of the services have "Buy Now" buttons, all with different prices. However, there is one service, which is a FREE 0 dollar service. The client wants the "Buy Now" button to remain there, to be consistent with the rest of the site. Does anyone know how I can do a $0 dollar transaction with paypal? I can't find any insight on this being possible. Thanks.

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• Best Tomcat6 JNDI + Hibernate configuration for session/transaction support

  - by EugeneP

  I use tomcat6 as a servlet container, and need to integrate Hibernate 3.2 into the project. I found a document how to configure SessionFactory lookup through JNDI, though it does not work as expected. Quote: Hibernate works in any environment that uses JTA, in fact, we recommend to use JTA whenever possible as it is the standard Java transaction interface. End of quote. In hibernate config I indicate current_session_context_class = jta and now I get an error "No TransactionManagerLookup specified". The problem is that Tomcat does not support JTA, and to get it worked, if I understand it correctly, you need to add JOTM or other library to Tomcat. But according to quote it is recommended to use JTA. What can you recommend in this situation?

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• MSDTC Distributed Transaction Coordinator Enabling

  - by Curtis White

  I've a web server and a separate SQL server. I'm trying to use transaction scope to ensure that SQL queries are completed with my linq queries. I wrap everything with this using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) I want to know where I need to install DTC. Do I need to install it on the IIS 7.5 box AND the SQL server? Do I need to unblock some ports? Are there any security risk in doing so? I've setup this up once before but don't remember how. If I can't get access to DTC then is there any other way to ensure a lINQ and sql query is atomic?

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• Cannot save model due to bad transaction? Django

  - by Kenneth Love

  Trying to save a model in Django admin and I keep getting the error: Transaction managed block ended with pending COMMIT/ROLLBACK I tried restarting both the Django (1.2) and PostgreSQL (8.4) processes but nothing changed. I added "autocommit": True to my database settings but that didn't change anything either. Everything that Google has turned up has either not been answered or the answer involved not having records in the users table, which I definitely have. The model does not have a custom save method and there are no pre/post save signals tied to it. Any ideas or anything else I can provide to make answering this easier?

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• Tridion Core Service - Transaction roll back isnt working

  - by Tamir Lahav

  We are using the core service in ASP.NET custom page in order to create pages and components and sevenral updates (checkout,save and chekin). we want those operations to work in transaction, we tried to implement it acording to some examples over the net. However we didn't succeded operating the rollback. It seems that the operation are immediately performed without waiting for the comit . The code we used for simple check out - roll back operation for example is TransactionOptions txOptions = new TransactionOptions { IsolationLevel = IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted }; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope( TransactionScopeOption.Required, txOptions)) { using (CoreService2010Client m_client = new CoreService2010Client()) { PageData pp = m_client.CheckOut("tcm:309-36311-64", false, new ReadOptions()) as PageData; } scope.Dispose(); } We also added this recomended configuration to the web config bindings section What are we missing ?

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• JTA Transaction: What happens if an exception happens but rollback is not called on the transaction?

  - by kellyfj

  We have some third party code wherein they do the following 1) Create a User Transaction e.g. txn = (UserTransaction)ctx.lookup( "UserTransaction" ); txn.begin( ); 2) Do some work persisting to the database (via JPA) to a MySQL database 3) txn.commit() They have Exception blocks but NONE of them call txn.rollback. Good coding practice says they NEED to call rollback if an exception occurs but my question is If the txn is not commited, and an exception occurs what is the negative effect of them NOT calling rollback?

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• Using ActiveRecord::Base.transaction in a rake task?

  - by Brian Jordan

  I am writing a rake task which, at one point, uses a custom YAML file import method to seed the database. At one point in the import code, I have: ActiveRecord::Base.transaction do Trying to run the rake task throws: You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of ActiveRecord::Base. The error occurred while evaluating nil.[] The stack trace points to the aforementioned line in the code. Is there a way to instantiate ActiveRecord::Base during a rake task? Thanks!

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• What about the Sql transaction log

  - by Michel

  Hi, i always thought that the sql transaction log keeps track of all the transactions done in the database so it could help recovering the database file in case of a unexpected power down or something like that So then, in normal usage, when the data is committed and written to disk, it is cleared because all the data is nice and safe in the mdf file. Seeing the ldf file grow and reading some i understand that that is not the case, and it will keep growing, until: you shrink the log. Only at that point all the commited transactions are cleared and the log file is shrinked. I found some sp's who should do this, but also found the theory that you first have to backup the database? That last step doesn't make sense to me, so can anyone tell me of that is correct and if so, why that is?

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• Linq grouping question

  - by Mike C.

  I have the following objects in a collection: Transaction: Type = "Widget" Date = "3/1/2011" Name = "Foo" Transaction: Type = "Widget" Date = "3/4/2011" Name = "Bar" Transaction: Type = "Gadget" Date = "3/2/2011" Name = "Baz" Transaction: Type = "Gizmo" Date = "3/1/2011" Name = "Who" Transaction: Type = "Gizmo" Date = "3/2/2011" Name = "What" Transaction: Type = "Gizmo" Date = "3/6/2011" Name = "When" I want to end up with the following, grouped by Type. If there are multiple, return only the first one chronologically by date. Transaction: Type = "Widget" Date = "3/1/2011" Name = "Foo" Transaction: Type = "Gadget" Date = "3/2/2011" Name = "Baz" Transaction: Type = "Gizmo" Date = "3/1/2011" Name = "Who"

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• ADO.NET zombie transaction bug? How to ensure that commands will not be executed on implicit transac

  - by TN

  e.g. When deadlock occurs, following SQL commands are successfully executed, even if they have assigned SQL transaction that is after rollback. It seems, it is caused by a new implicit transaction that is created on SQL Server. Someone could expect that ADO.NET would throw an exception that the commands are being executed on a zombie transaction. However, such exception is not thrown. (I think this is a bug in ASP.NET.) Moreover, because of zombie transaction the final Dispose() silently ignores the rollback. Any ideas, how can I ensure that nobody can execute commands on implicit transaction? Or, how to check that transaction is zombie? I found that Commit() and Rollback() check for zombie transaction, however I can call them for a test:) I also found that also reading IsolationLevel will do the check, but I am not sure whether simple calling transaction.IsolationLevel.ToString(); will not be removed by a future optimizer. Or do you know any other safe way invoke a getter (without using reflection or IL emitting)?

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• Status of Data in Rollback of Large Transaction in SQL Server

  - by Lloyd Banks

  I have a data warehousing procedure that downloads and replaces dozens of tables from a linked server to a local database. Every once in a while, the code will get stuck on one of the tables on the linked server because the table on the linked server is in a state of transition. I am under the assumption that since the entire procedure is considered one transaction commit, when the procedure gets stuck, none of the changes made by the procudure so far would have committed. But the opposite seems to be true, tables that were "downloaded" before the procedure got stuck would have been updated with today's versions on the local server. Shouldn't SQL Server wait for the entire procedure to finish before the changes are durable? CREATE PROCEDURE MYIMPORT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION.SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE1') DROP TABLE TABLE1 SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 INTO TABLE1 FROM OPENQUERY(MYLINK, 'SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 FROM TABLE1') IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION.SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE2') DROP TABLE TABLE2 SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 INTO TABLE2 FROM OPENQUERY(MYLINK, 'SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 FROM TABLE2') --IF THE PROCEDURE GETS STUCK HERE, THEN CHANGES TO TABLE1 WOULD HAVE BEEN MADE ON THE LOCAL SERVER WHILE NO CHANGES WOULD HAVE BEEN MADE TO TABLE3 ON THE LOCAL SERVER IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION.SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE3') DROP TABLE TABLE3 SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 INTO TABLE3 FROM OPENQUERY(MYLINK, 'SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 FROM TABLE3') END

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• Delivery of JMS message before the transaction is committed

  - by ewernli

  Hi, I have a very simple scenario involving a database and a JMS in an application server (Glassfish). The scenario is dead simple: 1. an EJB inserts a row in the database and sends a message. 2. when the message is delivered with an MDB, the row is read and updated. The problem is that sometimes the message is delivered before the insert has been committed in the database. This is actually understandable if we consider the 2 phase commit protocol: 1. prepare JMS 2. prepare database 3. commit JMS 4. ( tiny little gap where message can be delivered before insert has been committed) 5. commit database I've discussed this problem with others, but the answer was always: "Strange, it should work out of the box". My questions are then: How could it work out-of-the box? My scenario sounds fairly simple, why isn't there more people with similar troubles? Am I doing something wrong? Is there a way to solve this issue correctly? Here are a bit more details about my understanding of the problem: This timing issue exist only if the participant are treated in this order. If the 2PC treats the participants in the reverse order (database first then message broker) that should be fine. The problem was randomly happening but completely reproducible. I found no way to control the order of the participants in the distributed transactions in the JTA, JCA and JPA specifications neither in the Glassfish documentation. We could assume they will be enlisted in the distributed transaction according to the order when they are used, but with an ORM such as JPA, it's difficult to know when the data are flushed and when the database connection is really used. Any idea?

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• What is the scope of TRANSACTION in Sql server

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I was creating a stored procedure and i got stuck in the writing methodology of me and my collegue. I am using SQL Server 2005 I was writing Stored procedure like this BEGIN TRAN BEGIN TRY INSERT INTO Tags.tblTopic (Topic, TopicCode, Description) VALUES(@Topic, @TopicCode, @Description) INSERT INTO Tags.tblSubjectTopic (SubjectId, TopicId) VALUES(@SubjectId, @@IDENTITY) COMMIT TRAN END TRY BEGIN CATCH DECLARE @Error VARCHAR(1000) SET @Error= 'ERROR NO : '+ERROR_NUMBER() + ', LINE NO : '+ ERROR_LINE() + ', ERROR MESSAGE : '+ERROR_MESSAGE() PRINT @Error ROLLBACK TRAN END CATCH And my collegue was writing it like the below one BEGIN TRY BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Tags.tblTopic (Topic, TopicCode, Description) VALUES(@Topic, @TopicCode, @Description) INSERT INTO Tags.tblSubjectTopic (SubjectId, TopicId) VALUES(@SubjectId, @@IDENTITY) COMMIT TRAN END TRY BEGIN CATCH DECLARE @Error VARCHAR(1000) SET @Error= 'ERROR NO : '+ERROR_NUMBER() + ', LINE NO : '+ ERROR_LINE() + ', ERROR MESSAGE : '+ERROR_MESSAGE() PRINT @Error ROLLBACK TRAN END CATCH Here the only difference that you will find is the position of writing Begin TRAN. According to me the methodology of my collegue should not work when an exception occurs i.e. Rollback should not get executed because TRAN does'nt have scope. But when i tried to run both the code, both was working in the same way. I am confused to know how does TRANSACTION works. Is it scope free or what ?

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• wrapping user controls in a transaction

  - by Hans Gruber

  I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

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• wrapping aspx user controls commands in a transaction

  - by Hans Gruber

  I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

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• How do I identify and fix the cause of transaction log growth on SIMPLE recovery model databases?

  - by Stuart B

  I recently upgraded our SQL Server 2008 installations to service pack 2. One of our databases is on the simple recovery model, but its transaction log is growing extremely fast. The path I'm currently investigating is that we have a transaction somewhere out there stuck in active state. Here is why: select name, recovery_model_desc, log_reuse_wait_desc from sys.databases where name in ('SimpleDB') name recovery_model_desc log_reuse_wait_desc SimpleDB SIMPLE ACTIVE_TRANSACTION When I check my active transactions, I get the following. Note that I installed SP2 and restarted our server on 12/25 at around noonish. select transaction_id, name, transaction_begin_time, transaction_type from sys.dm_tran_active_transactions transaction_id name transaction_begin_time transaction_type 233 worktable 2010-12-25 12:44:29.283 2 236 worktable 2010-12-25 12:44:29.283 2 238 worktable 2010-12-25 12:44:29.283 2 240 worktable 2010-12-25 12:44:29.283 2 243 worktable 2010-12-25 12:44:29.283 2 245 worktable 2010-12-25 12:44:29.283 2 62210 tran_sp_MScreate_peer_tables 2010-12-25 12:45:00.880 1 55422856 user_transaction 2010-12-28 16:41:56.703 1 55422889 SELECT 2010-12-28 16:41:57.303 2 470 LobStorageProviderSession 2010-12-25 12:44:30.510 2 Note that according to the documentation a transaction_type of 1 means read/write, and 2 means read-only. So, my line of thinking is that the trans_sp_MScreate_peer_tables transaction is stuck for some reason and holding up transaction log truncation. Is this a plausible scenario? Correct me if my line of thinking is off, as I'm not a SQL Server expert. If this is correct, how do I erase that transaction so that my transaction log is truncated as usual?

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• Hibernate deletion issue

  - by muffytyrone

  I'm trying to write a Java app that imports a data file. The process is as follows Create Transaction Delete all rows from datatable Load data file into datatable Commit OR Rollback if any errors were encountered. The data loaded in step 3 is mostly the same as the data deleted in step3. The deletion is performed using the following DetachedCriteria criteria = DetachedCriteria.forClass(myObject.class); List<myObject> myObjects = hibernateTemplate.findByCriteria(criteria); hibernateTemplate.deleteAll(myObjects); When I then load the datafile, i get the following exception nested exception is org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: The whole process needs to take place in transaction. And I don't really want to have to compare the import file / data table and then perform an insert/update/delete to get them into sync. Any help would be appreciated.

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• Remote Seam Persistence

  Hi. I have a button in a .xhtml file which calls a javascript function which calls a java function remotely (in jboss seam environment). That java function has an entityManager.persist(object). Do you know why this line of code doesn't commit to the DB? It says something that a transaction hasn't started. I supose in a remote context i don't have a transaction began because if i put an action on that button which calls the same java function instead of using javascript is above, it works fine; entityManager persists the object and i can see it in the DB. Does anyone has any ideas how could i make to actually persist the object using javascript to call the java function? (i have to use javascript because i need the callback function )

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