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  • Correct way of using/testing event service in Eclipse E4 RCP

    - by Thorsten Beck
    Allow me to pose two coupled questions that might boil down to one about good application design ;-) What is the best practice for using event based communication in an e4 RCP application? How can I write simple unit tests (using JUnit) for classes that send/receive events using dependency injection and IEventBroker ? Let’s be more concrete: say I am developing an Eclipse e4 RCP application consisting of several plugins that need to communicate. For communication I want to use the event service provided by org.eclipse.e4.core.services.events.IEventBroker so my plugins stay loosely coupled. I use dependency injection to inject the event broker to a class that dispatches events: @Inject static IEventBroker broker; private void sendEvent() { broker.post(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT, payload) } On the receiver side, I have a method like: @Inject @Optional private void receiveEvent(@UIEventTopic(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT) Object payload) Now the questions: In order for IEventBroker to be successfully injected, my class needs access to the current IEclipseContext. Most of my classes using the event service are not referenced by the e4 application model, so I have to manually inject the context on instantiation using e.g. ContextInjectionFactory.inject(myEventSendingObject, context); This approach works but I find myself passing around a lot of context to wherever I use the event service. Is this really the correct approach to event based communication across an E4 application? how can I easily write JUnit tests for a class that uses the event service (either as a sender or receiver)? Obviously, none of the above annotations work in isolation since there is no context available. I understand everyone’s convinced that dependency injection simplifies testability. But does this also apply to injecting services like the IEventBroker? This article describes creation of your own IEclipseContext to include the process of DI in tests. Not sure if this could resolve my 2nd issue but I also hesitate running all my tests as JUnit Plug-in tests as it appears impractible to fire up the PDE for each unit test. Maybe I just misunderstand the approach. This article speaks about “simply mocking IEventBroker”. Yes, that would be great! Unfortunately, I couldn’t find any information on how this can be achieved. All this makes me wonder whether I am still on a "good path" or if this is already a case of bad design? And if so, how would you go about redesigning? Move all event related actions to dedicated event sender/receiver classes or a dedicated plugin?

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  • Written a resharper plugin that modifies the TextControl?

    - by Ajaxx
    Resharper claims to eat it's own dogfood, specifically, they claim that many of the features of Resharper are written ontop of R# (OpenAPI). I'm writing a simple plugin to fix up comments of the current document of a selection. When this plugin is run, it throws an exception as follows: Document can be modified inside a command scope only I've researched the error and can't find anything to help with this, so I'm hoping that possibly, you've written a plugin to accomplish this. If not, I hope the snippet is enough to help others get their own plugins underway. using System; using System.IO; using System.Windows.Forms; using JetBrains.ActionManagement; using JetBrains.DocumentModel; using JetBrains.IDE; using JetBrains.TextControl; using JetBrains.Util; namespace TinkerToys.Actions { [ActionHandler("TinkerToys.RewriteComment")] public class RewriteCommentAction : IActionHandler { #region Implementation of IActionHandler /// <summary> /// Updates action visual presentation. If presentation.Enabled is set to false, Execute /// will not be called. /// </summary> /// <param name="context">DataContext</param> /// <param name="presentation">presentation to update</param> /// <param name="nextUpdate">delegate to call</param> public bool Update(IDataContext context, ActionPresentation presentation, DelegateUpdate nextUpdate) { ITextControl textControl = context.GetData(DataConstants.TEXT_CONTROL); return textControl != null; } /// <summary> /// Executes action. Called after Update, that set ActionPresentation.Enabled to true. /// </summary> /// <param name="context">DataContext</param> /// <param name="nextExecute">delegate to call</param> public void Execute(IDataContext context, DelegateExecute nextExecute) { ITextControl textControl = context.GetData(DataConstants.TEXT_CONTROL); if (textControl != null) { TextRange textSelectRange; ISelectionModel textSelectionModel = textControl.SelectionModel; if ((textSelectionModel != null) && textSelectionModel.HasSelection()) { textSelectRange = textSelectionModel.Range; } else { textSelectRange = new TextRange(0, textControl.Document.GetTextLength()); } IDocument textDocument = textControl.Document; String textSelection = textDocument.GetText(textSelectRange); if (textSelection != null) { StringReader sReader = new StringReader(textSelection); StringWriter sWriter = new StringWriter(); Converter.Convert(sReader, sWriter); textSelection = sWriter.ToString(); textDocument.ReplaceText(textSelectRange, textSelection); } } } #endregion } } So what is this command scope it wants so badly? I had some additional logging in this prior to posting it so I'm absolutely certain that both the range and text are valid. In addition, the error seems to indicate that I'm missing some scope that I've been, as yet, unable to find.

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  • WiX custom action with DTF... quite confused...

    - by Joshua
    Okay, I have decided the only way I can do what I want to do with WiX (thanks to an old installer I didn't write that I now have to upgrade) is with some CUSTOM ACTIONS. Basically, I need to back up a file before the RemoveExistingProducts and restore that file again after RemoveExistingProducts. I think this is what's called a "type 2 custom action." The sequencing I think I understand, however, what I don't understand is first of all how I pass data to my C# action (the directory the file is in from the WiX) and how to reference my C# (DTF?) action with the Binary and CustomAction tags. Also, does all this need to be in a tag? All the examples show it that way. Here is what I have so far in the .WXS file... <Binary Id="backupSettingsAction.dll" SourceFile="backupSettingsAction.CA.dll"/> <CustomAction Id="BackupSettingsAction" BinaryKey="backupSettingsAction.dll" DllEntry="CustomAction" Execute="immediate" /> <InstallExecuteSequence> <Custom Action="backupSettingsAction.dll" Before="InstallInitialize"/> <RemoveExistingProducts After="InstallFinalize" /> <Custom Action="restoreSettingsAction.dll" After="RemoveExistingFiles"/> </InstallExecuteSequence> The file I need to back up is a settings file from the previous install (which needs to remain intact), it is located in the directory: <Directory Id="CommonAppDataFolder" Name="CommonAppData"> <Directory Id="CommonAppDataPathways" Name="Pathways" /> </Directory> And even has a Component tag for it, though I need to back the file up that exists already: <Component Id="Settings" Guid="A3513208-4F12-4496-B609-197812B4A953" NeverOverwrite="yes" > <File Id="settingsXml" ShortName="SETTINGS.XML" Name="Settings.xml" DiskId="1" Source="\\fileserver\Release\Pathways\Dependencies\Settings\settings.xml" Vital="yes" /> </Component> And this is referencing the C# file that Visual Studio (2005) created for me: namespace backupSettingsAction { public class CustomActions { [CustomAction] public static ActionResult CustomAction1(Session session) { session.Log("backing up settings file"); //do I hardcode the directory and name of the file in here, or can I pass them in? return ActionResult.Success; } } } Any help is greatly apprecaited. Thank you!

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  • symfony/zend integration - blank screen

    - by user142176
    Hi, I need to use ZendAMF on a symfony project and I'm currently working on integrating the two. I have a frontend app with two modules, one of which is 'gateway' - the AMF gateway. In my frontend app config, I have the following in the configure function: // load symfony autoloading first parent::initialize(); // Integrate Zend Framework require_once('[MY PATH TO ZEND]\Loader.php'); spl_autoload_register(array('Zend_Loader', 'autoload')); The executeIndex function my the gateway actions.class.php looks like this // No Layout $this->setLayout(false); // Set MIME Type $this->getResponse()->setContentType('application/x-amf; charset='.sfConfig::get('sf_charset')); // Disable cause this is a non-html page sfConfig::set('sf_web_debug', false); // Create AMF Server $server = new Zend_Amf_Server(); $server->setClass('MYCLASS'); echo $server->handle(); return sfView::NONE; Now when I try to visit the url for the gateway module, or even the other module which was working perfectly fine until this attempt, I only see a blank screen, with not even the symfony dev bar loaded. Oddly enough, my symfony logs are not being updated as well, which suggests that Synfony is not even being 'reached'. So presumably the error has something to do with Zend, but I have no idea how to figure out what the error could be. One thing I do know for sure is that this is not a file path error, because if I change the path in the following line (a part of frontendConfiguration as shown above), I get a Zend_Amf_Server not found error. So the path must be correct. Also if I comment out this very same line, the second module resumes to normality, and my gateway broadcasts a blank x-amf stream. spl_autoload_register(array('Zend_Loader', 'autoload')); Does anyone have any tips on how I could attach this problem? Thanks P.S. I'm currently running an older version of Zend, which is why I am using Zend_Loader instead of Zend_autoLoader (I think). But I've tried switching to the new lib, but the error still remains. So it's not a version problem as well.

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  • Grouping php array items based on user and created time

    - by Jim
    This is an array of objects showing a user uploading photos: Array ( [12] => stdClass Object ( [type] => photo [created] => 2010-05-14 23:36:41 [user] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 760 [username] => mrsmith ) [photo] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 4181 ) ) [44] => stdClass Object ( [type] => photo [created] => 2010-05-14 23:37:15 [user] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 760 [username] => mrsmith ) [photo] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 4180 ) ) ) However instead of showing: mr smith uploaded one photo mr smith uploaded one photo I'd like to display: mr smith uploaded two photos by grouping similar items, grouping by user ID and them having added them within, let's say 15 minutes of each other. So I'd like to get the array in this sort of shape: Array ( [12] => stdClass Object ( [type] => photo [created] => 2010-05-14 23:36:41 [user] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 760 [username] => mrsmith ) [photos] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 4181 ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 4180 ) ) ) ) preserving the first item of the group and it's created time, and supplementing it with any other groupable photos and then unsetting any items that were grouped (so the final array doesn't have key 44 anymore as it was grouped in with 12). The array contains other actions than just photos, hence the original keys of 12 and 44. I just can't figure out a way to do this efficiently. I used to use MySQL and PHP to do this but am trying to just use pure PHP for caching reasons. Can anyone shed any insights? I thought about going through each item and seeing if I can group it with the previous one in the array but the previous one might not necessarily be relevant or even a photo. I've got total brain freeze :(

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  • Possible bug with tabified QDockWidget and setFloating()

    - by krunk
    I've run into some odd behavior with tabified QDockWidgets, below is an example program with comments that demonstrates the behavior. Is this a bug or is it expected behavior and I'm missing some nuance in QDockWidget that causes this? Directly, since this does not work, how would one properly "undock" a hidden QDockWidget then display it? #include <QApplication> #include <QMainWindow> #include <QAction> #include <QDockWidget> #include <QMenu> #include <QSize> #include <QMenuBar> using namespace std; int main (int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication app(argc, argv); QMainWindow window; QDockWidget dock1(&window); QDockWidget dock2(&window); QMenu menu("View"); dock1.setAllowedAreas(Qt::LeftDockWidgetArea | Qt::RightDockWidgetArea); dock2.setAllowedAreas(Qt::LeftDockWidgetArea | Qt::RightDockWidgetArea); dock1.setWindowTitle("Dock One"); dock2.setWindowTitle("Dock Two"); window.addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, &dock1); window.addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, &dock2); window.menuBar()->addMenu(&menu); window.setMinimumSize(QSize(800, 600)); window.tabifyDockWidget(&dock1, &dock2); dock1.hide(); dock2.hide(); menu.addAction(dock1.toggleViewAction()); menu.addAction(dock2.toggleViewAction()); window.show(); // Below is where the oddness starts. It seems to only exhibit the // behavior if the dock widgets are tabified. // Odd behavior here // This does not work. the window never shows, though its menu action shows // checked. Not only does this window not show up, but all toggle actions // for all dock windows (e.g. dock1 and dock2) are broken for the duration // of the application loop. // dock1.setFloating(true); // dock1.show(); // This does work. . . of course only if you do _not_ run the above first. // however, you can often get a little lag or "blip" in the rendering as // the dock is shown docked before setFloating is set to true. dock1.show(); dock1.setFloating(true); return app.exec(); }

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  • Consolidating coding styles: Funcs, private method, single method classes

    - by jdoig
    Hi all, We currently have 3 devs with, some, conflicting styles and I'm looking for a way to bring peace to the kingdom... The Coders: Foo 1: Likes to use Func's & Action's inside public methods. He uses actions to alias off lengthy method calls and Func's to perform simple tasks that can be expressed in 1 or 2 lines and will be used frequently through out the code Pros: The main body of his code is succinct and very readable, often with only one or 2 public methods per class and rarely any private methods. Cons: The start of methods contain blocks of lambda rich code that other developers don't enjoy reading; and, on occasion, can contain higher order functions that other dev's REALLY don't like reading. Foo 2: Likes to create a private method for (almost) everything the public method will have to do . Pros: Public methods remain small and readable (to all developers). Cons: Private methods are numerous. With private methods that call into other private methods, that call into... etc, etc. Making code hard to navigate. Foo 3: Likes to create a public class with a, single, public method for every, non-trivial, task that needs performing, then dependency inject them into other objects. Pros: Easily testable, easy to understand (one object, one responsibility). Cons: project gets littered by classes, opening multiple class files to understand what code does makes navigation awkward. It would be great to take the best of all these techniques... Foo-1 Has really nice, readable (almost dsl-like) code... for the most part, except for all the Action and Func lambda shenanigans bulked together at the start of a method. Foo-3 Has highly testable and extensible code that just feels a bit "belt-&-braces" for some solutions and has some code-navigation niggles (constantly hitting F12 in VS and opening 5 other .cs files to find out what a single method does). And Foo-2... Well I'm not sure I like anything about the one-huge .cs file with 2 public methods and 12 private ones, except for the fact it's easier for juniors to dig into. I admit I grossly over-simplified the explanations of those coding styles; but if any one knows of any patterns, practices or diplomatic-manoeuvres that can help unite our three developers (without just telling any of them to just "stop it!") that would be great. From a feasibility standpoint : Foo-1's style meets with the most resistance due to some developers finding lambda and/or Func's hard to read. Foo-2's style meets with a less resistance as it's just so easy to fall into. Foo-3's style requires the most forward thinking and is difficult to enforce when time is short. Any ideas on some coding styles or conventions that can make this work?

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  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

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  • Startup in Windows 7

    - by iira
    Hi, I am trying to add my program run in Windows 7 startup, but it does'nt works. My program has embedded uac manifest. My current way is by adding String Value at HKCU..\Run I found a manual solution for Vista from http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/w7itprosecurity/thread/81c3c1f2-0169-493a-8f87-d300ea708ecf 1. Click Start, right click on Computer and choose “Manage”. 2. Click “Task Scheduler” on the left panel. 3. Click “Create Task” on the right panel. 4. Type a name for the task. 5. Check “Run with highest privileges”. 6. Click Actions tab. 7. Click “New…”. 8. Browse to the program in the “Program/script” box. Click OK. 9. On desktop, right click, choose New and click “Shortcut”. 10. In the box type: schtasks.exe /run /tn TaskName where TaskName is the name of task you put in on the basics tab and click next. 11. Type a name for the shortcut and click Finish. Additionally, you need to run the saved scheduled task shortcut to run the program instead of running the application shortcut to ignore the IAC prompt. When startup the system will run the program via the original shortcut. Therefore you need to change the location to run the saved task. Please: 1. Open Regedit. 2. Find the entry of the startup item in Registry. It will be stored in one of the following branches. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_USERS\.DEFAULT\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run 3. Double-click on the correct key, change the path to the saved scheduled task you created. Is there any free code to add item with privileges option in scheduled task? I havent found the free one in torry.net Thanks a lot.

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  • Nested partial output caching in asp.net mvc 3

    - by Anwar Chandra
    Hi All, I am using Razor view engine in ASP.Net MVC 3 RC 2 this is part of my view city.cshtml (drastically simplified for the sake of simple example) <!-- in city.cshtml --> <div class="list"> @foreach(var product in SQL.GetProducts(Model.City) ) { <div class="product"> <div>@product.Name</div> <div class="category"> @foreach(var category in SQL.GetCategories(product.ID) ) { <a href="@category.Url">@category.Name</a> » } </div> </div> } </div> I want to cache this part of my output using OutputCache attribute. so I created an action ProductList with OutputCache attribute enabled <!-- in city.cshtml --> <div class="list"> @Html.Action("ProductList", new { City = Model.City }) </div> and I created the view in ProductList.cshtml as below <!-- in ProductList.cshtml --> @foreach(var product in Model.Products ) { <div class="product"> <div>@product.Name</div> <div class="category"> @foreach(var category in SQL.GetCategories(product.ID) ) { <a href="@category.Url">@category.Name</a> » } </div> </div> } but I still need to cache the category path output on each product. so I created an action CategoryPath with OutputCache attribute enabled <!-- in ProductList.cshtml --> @foreach(var product in Model.Products ){ <div class="product"> <div>@product.Name</div> <div class="category"> @Html.Action("CategoryPath", new { ProductID = product.ID }) </div> </div> } but apparently this is not allowed. I got this error.. OutputCacheAttribute is not allowed on child actions which are children of an already cached child action. I believe they have a good reason why they need to disallow this. but I really want this kind of nested Output Caching Please, any idea for a workaround?

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  • If statement within If statement's else

    - by maebe
    Still new to Java/android so trying to figure out the best way to code a multilevel if statement. What I'm trying to do is for a combat system that needs to check if player/npc is alive. If they are alive it then will check to see if they scored a critical hit. If they didn't critical hit then will see if they hit or missed. combat = mydbhelper.getCombat(); startManagingCursor(combat); if(playerCurHp == 0){ combat.moveToPosition(11); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(playerCritFlag.equals("Critical")){ combat.moveToPosition(2); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(playerHitFlag.equals("Hit")){ combat.moveToPosition(1); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} if(playerHitFlag.equals("Miss")){ combat.moveToPosition(3); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} }} if (npcCurHp == 0){ combat.moveToPosition(10); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(npcCritFlag.equals("Critical")){ combat.moveToPosition(5); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(npcHitFlag.equals("Hit")){ combat.moveToPosition(4); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} if(npcHitFlag.equals("Miss")){ combat.moveToPosition(6); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} }} } Is what I'm using. Was working when I had the if statements all separate. But it would check each one and do actions I don't need (If they hit, pull String, if crit pull another, then if dead pull again). Trying to make it stop when it finds the "Flag" that matches. When doing my rolls if the player hits it sets the flag to "Hit" like below code. Random attackRandom = new Random(); int attackRoll = attackRandom.nextInt(100); totalAtt = attackRoll + bonusAttack + weaponAtt + stanceAtt; Random defensiveRandom = new Random(); int defenseRoll = defensiveRandom.nextInt(100); npcDef = defenseRoll + npcDodge + npcBonusDodge; if (totalAtt > npcDef){ playerHitFlag = "Hit"; playerDamage();} else{playerHitFlag = "Miss"; npcAttack();} At the end it takes these playerCombatStory and npcCombatStory strings and uses them to setText to show the player what happened on that turn of combat.

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  • asp.net menu control css for child items

    - by Andres
    I have an asp.net menu control which the child items(submenu) width is tied to its parent's width, I was wondering is there a work around? because some of the titles for the submenu are longer than the title of the parent so it looks all smooshed together and just horrible on the eyes. Any help is much appreciated. :) .net control: <asp:Menu ID="navigation" runat="server" Orientation="Horizontal" CssClass="topmenu" MaximumDynamicDisplayLevels="20" IncludeStyleBlock="false"> <DynamicSelectedStyle /> <DynamicMenuItemStyle /> <DynamicHoverStyle /> <DynamicMenuStyle /> <StaticMenuItemStyle /> <StaticSelectedStyle /> <StaticHoverStyle /> </asp:Menu> html rendered: <div class="topmenu" id="navigation"> <ul class="level1"> <li><a class="popout level1" href="dashboard.aspx?option=1">Seguridad</a> <ul class="level2"> <li><a class="level2" href="security/users.aspx?option=15">Usuarios</a></li> <li><a class="level2" href="security/profiles.aspx?option=16">Perfiles</a></li> <li><a class="level2" href="security/options.aspx?option=17">Opciones</a></li> <li><a class="level2" href="security/actions.aspx?option=18">Acciones</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> css: div.topmenu{} div.topmenu ul { list-style:none; padding:5px 0; margin:0; background: #0b2e56; } div.topmenu ul li { float:left; padding:10px; color: #fff; height:16px; z-index:9999; margin:0; } div.topmenu ul li a, div.menu ul li a:visited{ color: #fff; } div.topmenu ul li a:hover{ color:#fff; } div.topmenu ul li a:active{color:#fff; } thats what I have and the styling works i just need help in getting submenus to expand if they are bigger than main title. Thanks in advance!

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • How do I debug a difficult-to-reproduce crash with no useful call stack?

    - by David M
    I am encountering an odd crash in our software and I'm having a lot of trouble debugging it, and so I am seeking SO's advice on how to tackle it. The crash is an access violation reading a NULL pointer: First chance exception at $00CF0041. Exception class $C0000005 with message 'access violation at 0x00cf0041: read of address 0x00000000'. It only happens 'sometimes' - I haven't managed to figure out any rhyme or reason, yet, for when - and only in the main thread. When it occurs, the call stack contains one incorrect entry: For the main thread, which this is, it should show a large stack full of other items. At this point, all other threads are inactive (mostly sitting in WaitForSingleObject or a similar function.) I have only seen this crash occur in the main thread. It always has the same call stack of one entry, in the same method at the same address. This method may or may not be related - we do use the VCL in our application. My bet, though, is that something (possibly quite a while ago) is corrupting the stack, and the address where it's crashing is effectively random. Note it has been the same address across several builds, though - it's probably not truly random. Here is what I've tried: Trying to reproduce it reliably at a certain point. I have found nothing that reproduces it every time, and a couple of things that occasionally do, or do not, for no apparent reason. These are not 'narrow' enough actions to narrow it down to a particular section of code. It may be timing related, but at the point the IDE breaks in, other threads are usually doing nothing. I can't rule out a threading problem, but think it's unlikely. Building with extra debugging statements (extra debug info, extra asserts, etc.) After doing so, the crash never occurs. Building with Codeguard enabled. After doing so, the crash never occurs and Codeguard shows no errors. My questions: 1. How do I find what code caused the crash? How do I do the equivalent of walking back up the stack? 2. What general advice do you have for how to trace the cause of this crash? I am using Embarcadero RAD Studio 2010 (the project mostly contains C++ Builder code and small amounts of Delphi.)

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  • Symfony : ajax call cause server to queue next queries

    - by Remiz
    Hello, I've a problem with my application when an ajax call on the server takes too much time : it queue all the others queries from the user until it's done server side (I realized that canceling the call client side has no effect and the user still have to wait). Here is my test case : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="another-page.php">Go to another page on the same server</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = 'http://localserver/some-very-long-complex-query'; $.get(url); </script> So when the get is fired and then after I click on the link, the server finish serving the first call before bringing me to the other page. My problem is that I want to avoid this behavior. I'm on a LAMP server and I'm looking in a way to inform the server that the user aborted the query with function like connection_aborted(), do you think that's the way to go ? Also, I know that the longest part of this PHP script is a MySQL query, so even if I know that connection_aborted() can detect that the user cancel the call, I still need to check this during the MySQL query... I'm not really sure that PHP can handle this kind of "event". So if you have any better idea, I can't wait to hear it. Thank you. Update : After further investigation, I found that the problem happen only with the Symfony framework (that I omitted to precise, my bad). It seems that an Ajax call lock any other future call. It maybe related to the controller or the routing system, I'm looking into it. Also for those interested by the problem here is my new test case : -new project with Symfony 1.4.3, default configuration, I just created an app and a default module. -jquery 1.4 for the ajax query. Here is my actions.class.php (in my unique module) : class defaultActions extends sfActions { public function executeIndex(sfWebRequest $request) { //Do nothing } public function executeNewpage() { //Do also nothing } public function executeWaitingaction(){ // Wait sleep(30); return false; } } Here is my indexSuccess.php template file : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="<?php echo url_for('default/newpage');?>">Go to another symfony action</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = '<?php echo url_for('default/waitingaction');?>'; $.get(url); </script> For the new page template, it's not very relevant... But with this, I'm able to reproduce the lock problem I've on my real application. Is somebody else having the same issue ? Thanks.

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  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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  • Runtime.exec causes duplicate JVM to hang indefinitely until killed (Solaris 10)

    - by John
    All, We are running a J2EE application on WebLogic server 9.2 MP2 with a jrockit 64-bit JVM (27.3.1) on Solaris 10. We call use runtime.exec to call an executable called jfmerge to create PDF documents. We have found that in Solaris, when runtime.exec is called, a duplicate JVM is temporarily spawned to kick off the jfmerge process. While this is inefficient (our JVM is 5 GB, thus the duplicated shell JVM is also 5 GB), the major problem lies in the fact that when there is heavy load on this functionality (PDF generation) in our application, sometimes the duplicated JVM never exits. When the JVM hangs, the servers create large issues (extreme application slowness and terminated user sessions) as the entire duplicate JVM get's all of its 5 GB of process size written to disk swap. We have noted the following hung thread correlated with a hung JVM process until the process is manually killed: "[STUCK] ExecuteThread: '17' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" id=3463 idx=0x158 tid=3460 prio=1 alive, in native, daemon at jrockit/io/FileNativeIO.readBytesPinned(Ljava/io/FileDescriptor;[BII)I(Native Method) at jrockit/io/FileNativeIO.readBytes(FileNativeIO.java:30) at java/io/FileInputStream.readBytes([BII)I(FileInputStream.java) at java/io/FileInputStream.read(FileInputStream.java:194) at java/lang/UNIXProcess$DeferredCloseInputStream.read(UNIXProcess.java:227) at java/io/BufferedInputStream.fill(BufferedInputStream.java:218) at java/io/BufferedInputStream.read(BufferedInputStream.java:235) ^-- Holding lock: java/io/BufferedInputStream@0xfffffffec6510470[thin lock] at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.getProcessStatus(FormsBean.java:809) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.createPDF(FormsBean.java:750) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.getTemplateDetails(FormsBean.java:450) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.generateSinglePDF(FormsBean.java:1371) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.generatePDF(FormsBean.java:263) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.endorseDocument(FormsBean.java:2377) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/Forms_qaco28_EOImpl.endorseDocument(Forms_qaco28_EOImpl.java:214) at gov/v3/delegates/common/FormsAndNoticesDelegate.endorseDocument(FormsAndNoticesDelegate.java:128) at gov/v3/actions/common/EndorseDocumentAction.executeRequest(EndorseDocumentAction.java:68) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/action/V3CommonDispatchAction.dispatchToExecuteMethod(V3CommonDispatchAction.java:532) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/action/V3CommonDispatchAction.executeBaseAction(V3CommonDispatchAction.java:336) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/action/V3BaseDispatchAction.execute(V3BaseDispatchAction.java:69) at org/apache/struts/action/RequestProcessor.processActionPerform(RequestProcessor.java:484) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/requestprocessor/V3TilesRequestProcessor.processActionPerform(V3TilesRequestProcessor.java:384) at org/apache/struts/action/RequestProcessor.process(RequestProcessor.java:274) at org/apache/struts/action/ActionServlet.process(ActionServlet.java:1482) at org/apache/struts/action/ActionServlet.doGet(ActionServlet.java:507) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/servlet/V3ControllerServlet.doGet(V3ControllerServlet.java:110) at javax/servlet/http/HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:743) at javax/servlet/http/HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:856) at weblogic/servlet/internal/StubSecurityHelper$ServletServiceAction.run(StubSecurityHelper.java:227) at weblogic/servlet/internal/StubSecurityHelper.invokeServlet(StubSecurityHelper.java:125) at weblogic/servlet/internal/ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:283) at weblogic/servlet/internal/ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:175) at weblogic/servlet/internal/WebAppServletContext$ServletInvocationAction.run(WebAppServletContext.java:3231) at weblogic/security/acl/internal/AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:321) at weblogic/security/service/SecurityManager.runAs(SecurityManager.java:121) at weblogic/servlet/internal/WebAppServletContext.securedExecute(WebAppServletContext.java:2002) at weblogic/servlet/internal/WebAppServletContext.execute(WebAppServletContext.java:1908) at weblogic/servlet/internal/ServletRequestImpl.run(ServletRequestImpl.java:1362) at weblogic/work/ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:209) at weblogic/work/ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:181) at jrockit/vm/RNI.c2java(JJJJJ)V(Native Method) -- end of trace We would like to do a couple of things: 1.) Prevent the spawning of a duplicate JVM, as we do not need any of it's functions when executing the simple jfmerge executable, and it creates massive overhead. 2.) In the short term at least prevent this duplicate JVM from handing indefinitely.

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  • How to stream semi-live audio over internet

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

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  • Multiple checkbox values search javascript

    - by JV10
    I have a list of keywords, and I've created a checkbox for each. My template has a form wrapping the content, so I can't have a nested form around the checkbox list. How can I send the selected checkbox values to my search results page? The form that wraps the content doesn't have any actions or methods applied: <form id="BoostMasterForm" runat="server"> This the HTML markup of my checkbox list: <div class="checkboxes"> <ul> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="one"> <label>one</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="two"> <label>two</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="three"> <label>three</label> </li> </ul> <input type="submit" value="Submit"/> </div> How can I use javascript or jQuery to submit the values of the multiple checkbox selections and on submit action them to the following URL: '/imagery/image-search.aspx' The resulting URL for a search where option 1 and 3 are submitted should be: '/imagery/image-search.aspx?search=one%20three' I'm using this javascript that I found on another post, however I need it to append the form an the action and the method. My website is ASP, where this post is for a PHP site: Sending multiple checkbox options $('.options').click(function() { var selectedItems = new Array(); $(".checkboxes input:checkbox[name=search]:checked").each(function() {selectedItems.push($(this).val());}); var data = selectedItems.join('|'); $("#opts").val(data); }); If anyone can help, it'd be greatly appreciated. Cheers, JV

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • how to design this relation in a DB schema

    - by raticulin
    I have a table Car in my db, one of the columns is purchaseDate. I want to be able to tag every car with a number of Policies (limited to 10 policies). Each policy has a time to life (ttl, a duration of time, like '5 years', '10 months' etc), that is, for how long since the car's purchaseDate the policy can be applied. I need to perform the following actions: when inserting a Car, it will be set with a number of Policies (at least one is set) sometimes a Car will be updated to add/remove a Policy searches must be done taking into account date/policies, for example: 'select all cars that are not covered by any policy as of today' My current design is (pol0..pol9 are the policies): CREATE TABLE Car ( id int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1), purchaseDate datetime NOT NULL, //more stuff... pol0 smallint default NULL, pol1 smallint default NULL, pol2 smallint default NULL, pol3 smallint default NULL, pol4 smallint default NULL, pol5 smallint default NULL, pol6 smallint default NULL, pol7 smallint default NULL, pol8 smallint default NULL, pol9 smallint default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) CREATE TABLE Policy ( id smallint NOT NULL, name varchar(50) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, ttl varchar(100) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) The problem I am facing is that the sql to perform the query above is a nightmare to write. As I don't know in which column each policy can be, so I have to check all columns for every policy etc etc. So I am wondering wether it is worth changing this. My questions are: The smallint as Policy id was chosen instead of an 'int IDENTITY' in order to save some space as there are going to be millions of Car records. It just adds complexity when creating a Policy as we must handle the id etc. Was it worth doing this? I am thinking that maybe there is a much better design? Obviously we could move the policy/car relation to its own table CarPolicy, benefits would be: no limit on 10 policies per car adding/removing etc much easier when only the default policy is applied (when no others are applied one called Default policy is applied), we could signal that by not having any entry in CarPolicy, now this is just done inserting the Default policy id in one of the columns. The cons are that we would need to change the DB, ORM classes etc. What would you recommend? Maybe there is another smart way to implement this that we are not aware without using the CarPolicy table?

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  • Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

    - by Joey Adams
    One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

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  • ActionResult - Service

    - by cem
    I bored, writing same code for service and ui. Then i tried to write a converter for simple actions. This converter, converting Service Results to MVC result, seems like good solution for me but anyway i think this gonna opposite MVC pattern. So here, I need help, what you think about algorithm - is this good or not? Thanks ServiceResult - Base: public abstract class ServiceResult { public static NoPermissionResult Permission() { return new NoPermissionResult(); } public static SuccessResult Success() { return new SuccessResult(); } public static SuccessResult<T> Success<T>(T result) { return new SuccessResult<T>(result); } protected ServiceResult(ServiceResultType serviceResultType) { _resultType = serviceResultType; } private readonly ServiceResultType _resultType; public ServiceResultType ResultType { get { return _resultType; } } } public class SuccessResult<T> : ServiceResult { public SuccessResult(T result) : base(ServiceResultType.Success) { _result = result; } private readonly T _result; public T Result { get { return _result; } } } public class SuccessResult : SuccessResult<object> { public SuccessResult() : this(null) { } public SuccessResult(object o) : base(o) { } } Service - eg. ForumService: public ServiceResult Delete(IVUser user, int id) { Forum forum = Repository.GetDelete(id); if (!Permission.CanDelete(user, forum)) { return ServiceResult.Permission(); } Repository.Delete(forum); return ServiceResult.Success(); } Controller: public class BaseController { public ActionResult GetResult(ServiceResult result) { switch (result.ResultType) { case ServiceResultType.Success: var successResult = (SuccessResult)result; return View(successResult.Result); break; case ServiceResultType.NoPermission: return View("Error"); break; default: return View(); break; } } } [HandleError] public class ForumsController : BaseController { [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] [Transaction] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Delete(int id) { ServiceResult result = ForumService.Delete(WebUser.Current, id); /* Custom result */ if (result.ResultType == ServiceResultType.Success) { TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "The forum was successfully deleted."; return this.RedirectToAction(ec => Index()); } /* Custom result */ /* Execute Permission result etc. */ TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "A problem was encountered preventing the forum from being deleted. " + "Another item likely depends on this forum."; return GetResult(result); } }

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  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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