Search Results

Search found 3479 results on 140 pages for 'sequence diagram'.

Page 130/140 | < Previous Page | 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137  | Next Page >

  • asp.net Multiple Page_Load events for a user control when using URL Routing

    - by Paul Hutson
    Hello, I've recently set up an ASP.net site (not using MVC.net) to use URL Routing (more on the code below) - when using user controls on the site (i.e I've created a "menu" user control to hold menu information) the page_load event for that control will fire twice when URLs have more than one variable passed over. i.e. pageName/VAR1 : will only fire the page_load event once. while pageName/VAR1/VAR2 : will fire the page_load event twice. *Multiple extra VARs added on the end will still only fire the page_load event twice*. Below are the code snippits from the files, the first is the MapPageRoute, located in the Global.asax : // Register a route for the Example page, with the NodeID and also the Test123 variables allowed. // This demonstrates how to have several items linked with the page routes. routes.MapPageRoute( "Multiple Data Example", // Route name "Example/{NodeID}/{test123}/{variable}", // Route URL - note the NodeID bit "~/Example.aspx", // Web page to handle route true, // Check for physical access new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "1" }, // Default Node ID { "test123", "1" }, // Default addtional variable value { "variable", "hello"} // Default test variable value } ); Next is the way I've directed to the page in the menu item, this is a list item within a UL tag : <li class="TopMenu_ListItem"><a href="<%= Page.GetRouteUrl("Multiple Data Example", new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "4855" }, { "test123", "2" } }) %>">Example 2</a></li> And finally the control that gets hit multiple times on a page load : // For use when the page loads. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Handle the routing variables. // this handles the route data value for NodeID - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] != null) { nodeID = Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for Test123 - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] != null) { ExampleOutput2.Text = "I am the output of the third variable : " + Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for variable - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] != null) { ExampleOutput3.Text = "I say " + Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] as string; }; } Note, that when I'm just hitting the page and it uses the default values for items, the reloads do not happen. Any help or guidance that anyone can offer would be very much appreciated! EDIT : The User Control is only added to the page once. I've tested the load sequence by putting a breakpoint in the page_load event - it only hits twice when the extra routes are added. Thanks in Advance, Paul Hutson

    Read the article

  • can this code be broken?

    - by user105165
    Consider the below html string <p>This is a paragraph tag</p> <font>This is a font tag</font> <div>This is a div tag</div> <span>This is a span tag</span> This string is processed to tokanize the text found in it and we get 2 results as below 1) Token Array : $tokenArray == array( 'This is a paragraph tag', 'This is a div tag', '<font>This is a font tag</font>', '<span>This is a span tag</span>' ); 2) Tokenized template : $templateString == "<p>{0}</p>{2}<div>{1}</div>{3}"; If you observe, the sequence of the text strings segments from the original HTML strings is different from the tokenized template The PHP code below is used to order the tokenized template and accordingly the token array to match the original html string class CreateTemplates { public static $tokenArray = array(); public static $tokenArrayNew = array(); function foo($templateString,$tokenArray) { CreateTemplates::$tokenArray = $tokenArray; $ptn = "/{[0-9]*}*/"; // Search Pattern from the template string $templateString = preg_replace_callback($ptn,array(&$this, 'callbackhandler') ,$templateString); // function call return $templateString; } // Function defination private static function callbackhandler($matches) { static $newArr = array(); static $cnt; $tokenArray = CreateTemplates::$tokenArray; array_push($newArr, $matches[0]); CreateTemplates::$tokenArrayNew[count($newArr)] = $tokenArray[substr($matches[0],1,(strlen($matches[0])-2))]; $cnt = count($newArr)-1; return '{'.$cnt.'}'; } // function ends } // class ends Final output is (ordered template and token array) $tokenArray == array('This is a paragraph tag', '<font>This is a font tag</font>', 'This is a div tag', '<span>This is a span tag</span>' ); $templateString == "<p>{0}</p>{1}<div>{2}</div>{3}"; Which is the expected result. Now, I am not confident whether this is the right way to achieve this. I want to see how this code can be broken or not. Under what conditions will this code break? (important) Is there any other way to achieve this? (less important)

    Read the article

  • quick java question

    - by j-unit-122
    private static char[] quicksort (char[] array , int left , int right) { if (left < right) { int p = partition(array , left, right); quicksort(array, left, p - 1 ); quicksort(array, p + 1 , right); } for (char i : array) System.out.print(i + ” ”); System.out.println(); return array; } private static int partition(char[] a, int left, int right) { char p = a[left]; int l = left + 1, r = right; while (l < r) { while (l < right && a[l] < p) l++; while (r > left && a[r] >= p) r--; if (l < r) { char temp = a[l]; a[l] = a[r]; a[r] = temp; } } a[left] = a[r]; a[r] = p; return r; } } hi guys just a quick question regarding the above coding, i know that the above coding returns the following B I G C O M P U T E R B C E G I M P U T O R B C E G I M P U T O R B C E G I M P U T O R B C E G I M P U T O R B C E G I M O P T U R B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U when the sequence BIGCOMPUTER is used but my question is can someone explain to me what is happening in the code and how? i know abit about the quick-sort algorithm but it doesnt seem to be the same in the above example.

    Read the article

  • writing XML with Xerces 3.0.1 and C++ on windows

    - by Jon
    Hi, i have the following function i wrote to create an XML file using Xerces 3.0.1, if i call this function with a filePath of "foo.xml" or "../foo.xml" it works great, but if i pass in "c:/foo.xml" then i get an exception on this line XMLFormatTarget *formatTarget = new LocalFileFormatTarget(targetPath); can someone explain why my code works for relative paths, but not absolute paths please? many thanks. const int ABSOLUTE_PATH_FILENAME_PREFIX_SIZE = 9; void OutputXML(xercesc::DOMDocument* pmyDOMDocument, std::string filePath) { //Return the first registered implementation that has the desired features. In this case, we are after a DOM implementation that has the LS feature... or Load/Save. DOMImplementation *implementation = DOMImplementationRegistry::getDOMImplementation(L"LS"); // Create a DOMLSSerializer which is used to serialize a DOM tree into an XML document. DOMLSSerializer *serializer = ((DOMImplementationLS*)implementation)->createLSSerializer(); // Make the output more human readable by inserting line feeds. if (serializer->getDomConfig()->canSetParameter(XMLUni::fgDOMWRTFormatPrettyPrint, true)) serializer->getDomConfig()->setParameter(XMLUni::fgDOMWRTFormatPrettyPrint, true); // The end-of-line sequence of characters to be used in the XML being written out. serializer->setNewLine(XMLString::transcode("\r\n")); // Convert the path into Xerces compatible XMLCh*. XMLCh *tempFilePath = XMLString::transcode(filePath.c_str()); // Calculate the length of the string. const int pathLen = XMLString::stringLen(tempFilePath); // Allocate memory for a Xerces string sufficent to hold the path. XMLCh *targetPath = (XMLCh*)XMLPlatformUtils::fgMemoryManager->allocate((pathLen + ABSOLUTE_PATH_FILENAME_PREFIX_SIZE) * sizeof(XMLCh)); // Fixes a platform dependent absolute path filename to standard URI form. XMLString::fixURI(tempFilePath, targetPath); // Specify the target for the XML output. XMLFormatTarget *formatTarget = new LocalFileFormatTarget(targetPath); //XMLFormatTarget *myFormTarget = new StdOutFormatTarget(); // Create a new empty output destination object. DOMLSOutput *output = ((DOMImplementationLS*)implementation)->createLSOutput(); // Set the stream to our target. output->setByteStream(formatTarget); // Write the serialized output to the destination. serializer->write(pmyDOMDocument, output); // Cleanup. serializer->release(); XMLString::release(&tempFilePath); delete formatTarget; output->release(); }

    Read the article

  • Finding the most frequent subtrees in a collection of (parse) trees

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I have a collection of trees whose nodes are labelled (but not uniquely). Specifically the trees are from a collection of parsed sentences (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treebank). I wish to extract the most common subtrees from the collection - performance is not (yet) an issue. I'd be grateful for algorithms (ideally Java) or pointers to tools which do this for treebanks. Note that order of child nodes is important. EDIT @mjv. We are working in a limited domain (chemistry) which has a stylised language so the varirty of the trees is not huge - probably similar to children's readers. Simple tree for "the cat sat on the mat". <sentence> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> <verbPhrase> <verb/> <prepositionPhrase> <preposition/> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> </prepositionPhrase> </verbPhrase> </sentence> Here the sentence contains two identical part-of-speech subtrees (the actual tokens "cat". "mat" are not important in matching). So the algorithm would need to detect this. Note that not all nounPhrases are identical - "the big black cat" could be: <nounPhrase> <article/> <adjective/> <adjective/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> The length of sentences will be longer - between 15 to 30 nodes. I would expect to get useful results from 1000 trees. If this does not take more than a day or so that's acceptable. Obviously the shorter the tree the more frequent, so nounPhrase will be very common. EDIT If this is to be solved by flattening the tree then I think it would be related to Longest Common Substring, not Longest Common Sequence. But note that I don't necessarily just want the longest - I want a list of all those long enough to be "interesting" (criterion yet to be decided).

    Read the article

  • How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

    - by valdo
    Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

    - by wakkaluba
    I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

    Read the article

  • Robust way to save/load objects with dependencies?

    - by mrteacup
    I'm writing an Android game in Java and I need a robust way to save and load application state quickly. The question seems to apply to most OO languages. To understand what I need to save: I'm using a Strategy pattern to control my game entities. The idea is I have a very general Entity class which e.g. stores the location of a bullet/player/enemy and I then attach a Behaviour class that tells the entity how to act: class Entiy { float x; float y; Behavior b; } abstract class Behavior { void update(Entity e); {} // Move about at a constant speed class MoveBehavior extends Behavior { float speed; void update ... } // Chase after another entity class ChaseBehavior extends Behavior { Entity target; void update ... } // Perform two behaviours in sequence class CombineBehavior extends Behavior { Behaviour a, b; void update ... } Essentially, Entity objects are easy to save but Behaviour objects can have a semi-complex graph of dependencies between other Entity objects and other Behaviour objects. I also have cases where a Behaviour object is shared between entities. I'm willing to change my design to make saving/loading state easier, but the above design works really well for structuring the game. Anyway, the options I've considered are: Use Java serialization. This is meant to be really slow in Android (I'll profile it sometime). I'm worried about robustness when changes are made between versions however. Use something like JSON or XML. I'm not sure how I would cope with storing the dependencies between objects however. Would I have to give each object a unique ID and then use these IDs on loading to link the right objects together? I thought I could e.g. change the ChaseBehaviour to store a ID to an entity, instead of a reference, that would be used to look up the Entity before performing the behaviour. I'd rather avoid having to write lots of loading/saving code myself as I find it really easy to make mistakes (e.g. forgetting to save something, reading things out in the wrong order). Can anyone give me any tips on good formats to save to or class designs that make saving state easier?

    Read the article

  • Can I make a LaTeX macro 'return' a filename?

    - by drfrogsplat
    I'm writing my thesis/dissertation and since its an on-going work I don't always have the actual images ready for the figures I put into my document, but for various reasons want to automatically have it substitute a dummy figure in place when the included graphics file doesn't exist. E.g. I can do something like \includegraphics[width=8cm]{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor} (where \chapdir is a macro for my 'current' chapter directory, e.g. \def\chapdir{./ch_timetravel} and if there's no ./ch_timetravel/figures/fluxcapacitor.jpg it'll insert ./commands/dummy.jpg instead. I've structured my macros (perhaps naïvely?) so that I have a macro (\figFileOrDummy) that determines the appropriate file to include by checking if the argument provided to it exists, so that I can call \includegraphics[properties]{\figFileOrDummy{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor}}. Except I'm getting various errors depending on how I try to call this, which seem to suggest that I'm approaching the problem in a fundamentally flawed way as far as 'good LaTeX programming' goes. Here's the macro to check if the file exists (and 'return' either filename or the dummy filename): \newcommand{\figFileOrDummy}[1]{% % Figure base name (no extension) to be used if the file exists \def\fodname{#1}% \def\dummyfig{commands/dummy}% % Check if output is PS (.EPS) or PDF (.JPG/.PDF/.PNG/...) figures \ifx\pdfoutput\undefined% % EPS figures only \IfFileExists{\fodname.eps}{}{\def\fodname{\dummyfig}}% \else% % Check existence of various extensions: PDF, TIF, TIFF, JPG, JPEG, PNG, MPS \def\figtest{0}% flag below compared to this value \IfFileExists{\fodname.pdf}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{\def\figfilenamefound{0}}% \IfFileExists{\fodname.jpg}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{}% \IfFileExists{\fodname.png}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{}% % and so on... % If no files found matching the filename (flag is 0) then use the dummy figure \ifx\figfilenamefound\figtest% \def\fodname{\dummyfig}% \fi% \fi% % 'return' the filename \fodname% }% Alternatively, here's a much simpler version which seems to have similar problems: \newcommand{\figFileOrDummy}[1]{% \def\dummyfig{commands/dummy}% \dummyfig% } The \def commands seems to be processed after the expansion of the macro they're trying to define, so it ends up being \def {commands/dummy}... (note the space after \def) and obviously complains. Also it seems to treat the literal contents of the macro as the filename for \includegraphics, rather than resolving/expanding it first, so complains that the file '\def {commands/dummy}... .png' doesn't exist.. I've tried also doing something like \edef\figfilename{\figFileOrDummy{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor}} to try to force it to make \figfilename hold just the value rather than the full macro, but I get an Undefined control sequence error complaining the variables I'm trying to \def in the \figFileOrDummy macro are undefined. So my question is either How do I make this macro expand properly?; or If this is the wrong way of structuring my macros, how should I actually structure such a macro, in order to be able to insert dummy/real figures automatically?; or Is there a package that already handles this type of thing nicely that I've overlooked? I feel like I'm missing something pretty fundamental here...

    Read the article

  • Combining FileStream and MemoryStream to avoid disk accesses/paging while receiving gigabytes of data?

    - by w128
    I'm receiving a file as a stream of byte[] data packets (total size isn't known in advance) that I need to store somewhere before processing it immediately after it's been received (I can't do the processing on the fly). Total received file size can vary from as small as 10 KB to over 4 GB. One option for storing the received data is to use a MemoryStream, i.e. a sequence of MemoryStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count) calls to store the received packets. This is very simple, but obviously will result in out of memory exception for large files. An alternative option is to use a FileStream, i.e. FileStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count). This way, no out of memory exceptions will occur, but what I'm unsure about is bad performance due to disk writes (which I don't want to occur as long as plenty of memory is still available) - I'd like to avoid disk access as much as possible, but I don't know of a way to control this. I did some testing and most of the time, there seems to be little performance difference between say 10 000 consecutive calls of MemoryStream.Write() vs FileStream.Write(), but a lot seems to depend on buffer size and the total amount of data in question (i.e the number of writes). Obviously, MemoryStream size reallocation is also a factor. Does it make sense to use a combination of MemoryStream and FileStream, i.e. write to memory stream by default, but once the total amount of data received is over e.g. 500 MB, write it to FileStream; then, read in chunks from both streams for processing the received data (first process 500 MB from the MemoryStream, dispose it, then read from FileStream)? Another solution is to use a custom memory stream implementation that doesn't require continuous address space for internal array allocation (i.e. a linked list of memory streams); this way, at least on 64-bit environments, out of memory exceptions should no longer be an issue. Con: extra work, more room for mistakes. So how do FileStream vs MemoryStream read/writes behave in terms of disk access and memory caching, i.e. data size/performance balance. I would expect that as long as enough RAM is available, FileStream would internally read/write from memory (cache) anyway, and virtual memory would take care of the rest. But I don't know how often FileStream will explicitly access a disk when being written to. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • MVC | Linq Update Query | Help!

    - by 109221793
    Hi guys, I'm making modifications to a C# MVC application that I've inherited. I have a database, and for simplicity I'll just focus on the two tables I'm working with for this linq query. Item ItemID Int PK ItemName RepairSelection (Yes or No) RepairID Int FK Repair RepairID Int PK RepairCategory SubmissionDate DateSentForRepair Ok, so ItemID is pretty much the identifier, and the View to display the Repair details goes like this (snippet): <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.ItemID)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.ItemID)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory, "FormTextShort")%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%><br /> <%= Html.ActionLink("Edit Repair Details", "Edit", new { ItemID= Model.ItemID})%> Here is the GET Edit action: public ActionResult Edit(Int64? itemId) { ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); var item = from i in ctn.Items where i.ItemID == itemId select i; return View(item.First()); } This is also fine, the GET Edit view displays the right details. Where I'm stuck is the linq query to update the Repair table. I have tried it so many ways today that my head is just fried (new to Linq as you may have guessed). My latest try is here (which I know is way off so go easy ;-) ): [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Int64 itemId, Repair repair, Item item, FormCollection formValues) { if (formValues["cancelButton"] != null) { return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); Repair existingData = ctn.Repair.First(a => a.RepairId == item.RepairID && item.ItemID == itemId); existingData.SentForConversion = DateTime.Parse(formValues["SentForConversion"]); ctn.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } For the above attempt I get a Sequence Contains No Elements error. Any help or pointers would be appreciated. Thanks guys.

    Read the article

  • Code Golf: Countdown Number Game

    - by Noldorin
    Challenge Here is the task, inspired by the well-known British TV game show Countdown. The challenge should be pretty clear even without any knowledge of the game, but feel free to ask for clarifications. And if you fancy seeing a clip of this game in action, check out this YouTube clip. It features the wonderful late Richard Whitely in 1997. You are given 6 numbers, chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100}, and a random target number between 100 and 999. The aim is to make use the six given numbers and the four common arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division; all over the rational numbers) to generate the target - or as close as possible either side. Each number may only be used once at most, while each arithmetic operator may be used any number of times (including zero.) Note that it does not matter how many numbers are used. Write a function that takes the target number and set of 6 numbers (can be represented as list/collection/array/sequence) and returns the solution in any standard numerical notation (e.g. infix, prefix, postfix). The function must always return the closest-possible result to the target, and must run in at most 1 minute on a standard PC. Note that in the case where more than one solution exists, any single solution is sufficient. Examples: {50, 100, 4, 2, 2, 4}, target 203 e.g. 100 * 2 + 2 + (4 / 4) e.g. (100 + 50) * 4 * 2 / (4 + 2) {25, 4, 9, 2, 3, 10}, target 465 e.g. (25 + 10 - 4) * (9 * 2 - 3) {9, 8, 10, 5, 9, 7), target 241 e.g. ((10 + 9) * 9 * 7) + 8) / 5 Rules Other than mentioned in the problem statement, there are no further restrictions. You may write the function in any standard language (standard I/O is not necessary). The aim as always is to solve the task with the smallest number of characters of code. Saying that, I may not simply accept the answer with the shortest code. I'll also be looking at elegance of the code and time complexity of the algorithm! My Solution I'm attempting an F# solution when I find the free time - will post it here when I have something! Format Please post all answers in the following format for the purpose of easy comparison: Language Number of characters: ??? Fully obfuscated function: (code here) Clear (ideally commented) function: (code here) Any notes on the algorithm/clever shortcuts it takes.

    Read the article

  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

    Read the article

  • Marionette js itemview not defined: then on browser refresh it is defined and all works well - race condition?

    - by Robert
    Yeah it's just the initial browser load or two after a cache clear. Subsequent refreshes clear the problem up. I'm thinking the item views just aren't fully constructed in time to be used in the collection views on the first load. But then they are on a refresh? Don't know. There must be something about the code sequence or loading or the load time itself. Not sure. I'm loading via require.js. Have two collections - users and messages. Each renders in its own list view. Each works, just not the first time or two the browser loads. The first time you load after clearing browser cache the console reports, for instance: "Uncaught ReferenceError: MessageItemView is not defined" A simple browser refresh clears it up. Same goes for the user collection. It's collection view says it doesn't know anything about its item view. But a simple browser refresh and all is well. My views (item and collection) are in separate files. Is that the problem? For instance, here is my message collection view in its own file: messagelistview.js var MessageListView = Marionette.CollectionView.extend({ itemView: MessageItemView, el: $("#messages") }); And the message item view is in a separate file: messageview.js var MessageItemView = Marionette.ItemView.extend({ tagName: "div", template: Handlebars.compile( '<div>{{fromUserName}}:</div>' + '<div>{{message}}</div>' + ) }); Then in my main module file, which references each of those files, the collection view is constructed and displayed: main.js //Define a model MessageModel = Backbone.Model.extend(); //Make an instance of MessageItemView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js MessageView = new MessageItemView(); //Define a message collection var MessageCollection = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: MessageModel }); //Make an instance of MessageCollection var collMessages = new MessageCollection(); //Make an instance of a MessageListView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js var messageListView = new MessageListView({ collection: collMessages }); App.messageListRegion.show(messageListView); Do I just have things sequenced wrong? I'm thinking it's some kind of race condition only because over 3G to an iPad the item views are always undefined. They never seem to get constructed in time. PC on a hard wired connection does see success after a browser refresh or two.

    Read the article

  • How can I represent a line of music notes in a way that allows fast insertion at any index?

    - by chairbender
    For "fun", and to learn functional programming, I'm developing a program in Clojure that does algorithmic composition using ideas from this theory of music called "Westergaardian Theory". It generates lines of music (where a line is just a single staff consisting of a sequence of notes, each with pitches and durations). It basically works like this: Start with a line consisting of three notes (the specifics of how these are chosen are not important). Randomly perform one of several "operations" on this line. The operation picks randomly from all pairs of adjacent notes that meet a certain criteria (for each pair, the criteria only depends on the pair and is independent of the other notes in the line). It inserts 1 or several notes (depending on the operation) between the chosen pair. Each operation has its own unique criteria. Continue randomly performing these operations on the line until the line is the desired length. The issue I've run into is that my implementation of this is quite slow, and I suspect it could be made faster. I'm new to Clojure and functional programming in general (though I'm experienced with OO), so I'm hoping someone with more experience can point out if I'm not thinking in a functional paradigm or missing out on some FP technique. My current implementation is that each line is a vector containing maps. Each map has a :note and a :dur. :note's value is a keyword representing a musical note like :A4 or :C#3. :dur's value is a fraction, representing the duration of the note (1 is a whole note, 1/4 is a quarter note, etc...). So, for example, a line representing the C major scale starting on C3 would look like this: [ {:note :C3 :dur 1} {:note :D3 :dur 1} {:note :E3 :dur 1} {:note :F3 :dur 1} {:note :G3 :dur 1} {:note :A4 :dur 1} {:note :B4 :dur 1} ] This is a problematic representation because there's not really a quick way to insert into an arbitrary index of a vector. But insertion is the most frequently performed operation on these lines. My current terrible function for inserting notes into a line basically splits the vector using subvec at the point of insertion, uses conj to join the first part + notes + last part, then uses flatten and vec to make them all be in a one-dimensional vector. For example if I want to insert C3 and D3 into the the C major scale at index 3 (where the F3 is), it would do this (I'll use the note name in place of the :note and :dur maps): (conj [C3 D3 E3] [C3 D3] [F3 G3 A4 B4]), which creates [C3 D3 E3 [C3 D3] [F3 G3 A4 B4]] (vec (flatten previous-vector)) which gives [C3 D3 E3 C3 D3 F3 G3 A4 B4] The run time of that is O(n), AFAIK. I'm looking for a way to make this insertion faster. I've searched for information on Clojure data structures that have fast insertion but haven't found anything that would work. I found "finger trees" but they only allow fast insertion at the start or end of the list. Edit: I split this into two questions. The other part is here.

    Read the article

  • JQuery performance issue (Or just bad CODING!)

    - by ferronrsmith
    function getItemDialogContent(planItemType) { var oDialogContent = $('<div/>').append($('#cardDialogHelper').html()).addClass("card"); if (planItemType) { oDialogContent.find('#cardDialogHeader').addClass(planItemType).find('#dialogTitle').html(planItemType); oDialogContent.find('#cardDialogCustomFields').html($('#' + planItemType + 'DialogFields').html()); if (planItemType == 'announcement' || planItemType == 'question') { oDialogContent.find("#dialogPin").remove(); } } return oDialogContent; } I am doing some code cleanup for a web application I am working on. The above method lags in IE and most of our user base use IE. Can someone help me. I figure the find() method is very expensive because of the DOM traversal and I am thinking of optimizing. Any ideas anyone? Thanks in advance :D Been doing some profiling on the application and the following line seems to be causing alot of problems. help me please. is there any way I can optimize ? $('').append($('#cardDialogHelper').html()).addClass("card"); This is the ajax call that does the work. Is there a way to do some of this after the call. Please help me. (Added some functions I thought would be helpful in the diagnosis) GetAllPlansTemp = function() { $.getJSON("/SAMPLE/GetAllPlanItems",processData); } processData = function(data) { _throbber = showThrobber(); var sortedPlanItems = $(data.d).sort("Sequence", "asc"); // hideThrobber(_throbber); $(sortedPlanItems).each(createCardSkipTimelime); doCardStacks(); doTimelineFormat(); if (boolViewAblePlans == 'false') { $("p").show(); } hideThrobber(_throbber); } function createCardSkipTimelime() { boolViewAblePlans = 'false'; if (this.__Deleted == 'true' || IsPastPlanItem(this)) { return; } boolViewAblePlans = 'true'; fixer += "\n" + this.TempKey; // fixes what looks like a js threading issue. var value = CreatePlanCard2(this, GetPlanCardStackContainer(this.__type)); UpdatePlanCardNoTimeLine(value, this); } function CreatePlanCard2(carddata, sContainer) { var sCardclass = GetPlanCardClass(carddata.__type); var editdialog = getItemDialogContent(sCardclass); return $('<div/>').attr('id', carddata.TempKey).card({ 'container': $(sContainer), 'cardclass': sCardclass, 'editdialog': editdialog, 'readonly': GetCardMode(carddata) }); }

    Read the article

  • Adding different data to different jquery tabs

    - by Sarah
    i have 2 functions 1- addMessage(): save data into database and is called only on click . 2-updateMessage():get data with ajax from database, called when document is ready ,called every 3 seconds for new data, and called on success of addMessage(). function updateMessage() { $.ajax({ url:"db.php", type:"post", dataType:"text/xml", success:function(data) { $(data).find("message").each(function() { var msg_id = $(this).find("msg_id").text(); var date_time = $(this).find("date_time").text(); var from_user = $(this).find("from_user").text(); var from_group = $(this).find("from_group").text(); var to_user = $(this).find("to_user").text(); var to_group = $(this).find("to_group").text(); var msg_type = $(this).find("msg_type").text(); var msg = $(this).find("msg").text(); var grp_abr = $(this).find("grp_abr").text(); var html = "<tr class='blue'>"; html += "<td><a href='#' class='bullet' onclick='changeStatus(\""+msg_id+"\")'><\/a><\/td>"; html += "<td><a href='#' class='reply' onclick='reply(\""+from_user+"\");'><\/a><\/td>"; html += "<td>"+date_time+"<\/td>"; html += "<td>"+from_user+"["+from_group+"]"+"<\/td>"; html += "<td>"+to_user+"["+to_group+"]"+"<\/td>"; html += "<td><a href='#' class="+msg_type+"><\/a><\/td>"; html += "<td><a href='#' class='flag_msg' onclick='flagMsg("+msg_id+")'><\/a><\/td>"; html += "<td>"+msg_id+msg+"<\/td>"; html += "<td>"+grp_abr+"<\/td><\/tr>"; }); } }); setTimeout('updateMessage()',3000); } Now the data retrieved i want to add to different tabs with different names and different containers, how would i do that. My question isn't a matter of code, it is more about logic or sequence of steps. Any help please.

    Read the article

  • wxWidgets: Show a window that was marked hidden in the XRC

    - by jdwieber
    I'm new to wxWidgets and DialogBlocks. I have a form that is created using DialogBlocks and saved as an XRC file. Part of the form has a vertical wxStaticBoxSizer into which is placed two wxScrolledWindow elements. I want to only show one at a time based on what data is to be shown to the user, so I have one marked hidden and left the other one visible. In code (C++), when I try to switch the display and show the widget that was hidden in the XRC and hide the one that was not, the one that I hide goes away fine, but the one that I want to show is not visible. If I resize the window however, it appears. Once it has appeard then I can switch back and forth with no issues. I tried many combinations of showing, enabling, invalidating, getting the sizer and calling RecalcSizes, refresh, layout, and some others. I tried them in different combinations too. Simply calling Show will allow me to toggle between the two, but only after I switch to the one that does not show initially and resize the window. From what I see in the docs. the issue is that wxSizer doesn't allocate space for hidden windows, but there is a flag that can be set to override that behavor. My problem is that DialogBlocks does not expose that feature, so if I manually edit the XRC file the modifation will be lost when I, or one of the other devs. saves some changes. Is ther a sequence of calls that I can make to tell the sizer to allocate space? The default OnResize handler does something to cause the sizer to allocate space, but I don't know what that is, or how to do it. This is the flag I found in the docs: wxRESERVE_SPACE_EVEN_IF_HIDDEN Normally wxSizers don't allocate space for hidden windows or other items. This flag overrides this behavior so that sufficient space is allocated for the window even if it isn't visible. This makes it possible to dynamically show and hide controls without resizing parent dialog, for example. This function is new since wxWidgets version 2.8.8 Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Parameter pack argument consumption

    - by yuri kilochek
    It is possible to get the first element of the parameter pack like this template <typename... Elements> struct type_list { }; template <typename TypeList> struct type_list_first_element { }; template <typename FirstElement, typename... OtherElements> struct type_list_first_element<type_list<FirstElement, OtherElements...>> { typedef FirstElement type; }; int main() { typedef type_list<int, float, char> list; typedef type_list_first_element<list>::type element; return 0; } but not possible to similary get the last element like this template <typename... Elements> struct type_list { }; template <typename TypeList> struct type_list_last_element { }; template <typename LastElement, typename... OtherElements> struct type_list_last_element<type_list<OtherElements..., LastElement>> { typedef LastElement type; }; int main() { typedef type_list<int, float, char> list; typedef type_list_last_element<list>::type element; return 0; } with gcc 4.7.1 complaining: error: 'type' in 'struct type_list_last_element<type_list<int, float, char>>' does not name a type What paragraps from the standard describe this behaviour? It seems to me that template parameter packs are greedy in a sense that they consume all matching arguments, which in this case means that OtherElements consumes all three arguments (int, float and char) and then there is nothing left for LastElement so the compilation fails. Am i correct in the assumption? EDIT: To clarify: I am not asking how to extract the last element from the parameter pack, i know how to do that. What i actually want is to pick the pack apart from the back as opposed to the front, and as such recursing all the way to the back for each element would be ineffective. Apparentely reversing the sequence beforehand is the most sensible choice.

    Read the article

  • Error when installing Lync Server, "Installing OcsCore.msi(Feature_LocalMgmtStore)...failure code 1603"

    - by Trikks
    Im battling to install Lync Server in a test environment and are at the "Install Local Configuration Store" step. The prerequisites seems alright but bombs when installing the OcsCore.msi ... Checking prerequisite SqlNativeClient...prerequisite satisfied. Checking prerequisite SqlBackcompat...prerequisite satisfied. Checking prerequisite UcmaRedist...prerequisite satisfied. Installing OcsCore.msi(Feature_LocalMgmtStore)...failure code 1603 Error returned while installing OcsCore.msi(Feature_LocalMgmtStore), code 1603. Please consult log at C:\Users\Administrator.HAWC\AppData\Local\Temp\1\Add-OcsCore.msi-Feature_LocalMgmtStore-[2012_07_08][12_00_27].log The logfile doesn't really help me either, this is the end of it Property(S): Privileged = 1 Property(S): USERNAME = Windows User Property(S): DATABASE = C:\Windows\Installer\9525f.msi Property(S): OriginalDatabase = C:\ProgramData\Microsoft\Lync Server\Deployment\cache\4.0.7577.0\setup\OcsCore.msi Property(S): UILevel = 2 Property(S): Preselected = 1 Property(S): ACTION = INSTALL Property(S): WIX_ACCOUNT_LOCALSYSTEM = NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM Property(S): WIX_ACCOUNT_LOCALSERVICE = NT AUTHORITY\LOCAL SERVICE Property(S): WIX_ACCOUNT_NETWORKSERVICE = NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Property(S): WIX_ACCOUNT_ADMINISTRATORS = BUILTIN\Administrators Property(S): WIX_ACCOUNT_USERS = BUILTIN\Users Property(S): WIX_ACCOUNT_GUESTS = BUILTIN\Guests Property(S): ROOTDRIVE = C:\ Property(S): CostingComplete = 1 Property(S): OutOfDiskSpace = 0 Property(S): OutOfNoRbDiskSpace = 0 Property(S): PrimaryVolumeSpaceAvailable = 0 Property(S): PrimaryVolumeSpaceRequired = 0 Property(S): PrimaryVolumeSpaceRemaining = 0 Property(S): INSTALLLEVEL = 1 Property(S): SOURCEDIR = C:\ProgramData\Microsoft\Lync Server\Deployment\cache\4.0.7577.0\setup\ Property(S): SourcedirProduct = {9521B708-9D80-46A3-9E58-A74ACF4E343E} === Logging stopped: 2012-07-08 12:01:46 === MSI (s) (98:F8) [12:01:46:354]: Note: 1: 1729 MSI (s) (98:F8) [12:01:46:354]: Product: Microsoft Lync Server 2010, Core Components -- Configuration failed. MSI (s) (98:F8) [12:01:46:354]: Windows Installer reconfigured the product. Product Name: Microsoft Lync Server 2010, Core Components. Product Version: 4.0.7577.0. Product Language: 1033. Manufacturer: Microsoft Corporation. Reconfiguration success or error status: 1603. MSI (s) (98:F8) [12:01:46:356]: Deferring clean up of packages/files, if any exist MSI (s) (98:F8) [12:01:46:356]: MainEngineThread is returning 1603 MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:362]: RESTART MANAGER: Session closed. MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:362]: No System Restore sequence number for this installation. MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:363]: User policy value 'DisableRollback' is 0 MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:363]: Machine policy value 'DisableRollback' is 0 MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:363]: Incrementing counter to disable shutdown. Counter after increment: 0 MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:364]: Note: 1: 1402 2: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Installer\Rollback\Scripts 3: 2 MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:364]: Note: 1: 1402 2: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Installer\Rollback\Scripts 3: 2 MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:364]: Decrementing counter to disable shutdown. If counter >= 0, shutdown will be denied. Counter after decrement: -1 MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:364]: Restoring environment variables MSI (s) (98:84) [12:01:46:373]: Destroying RemoteAPI object. MSI (s) (98:D4) [12:01:46:373]: Custom Action Manager thread ending. MSI (c) (20:64) [12:01:46:379]: Decrementing counter to disable shutdown. If counter >= 0, shutdown will be denied. Counter after decrement: -1 MSI (c) (20:64) [12:01:46:380]: MainEngineThread is returning 1603 === Verbose logging stopped: 2012-07-08 12:01:46 === Any advice where to start in this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Rsync: how to mount truecrypt on-the-fly on the receiving side?

    - by deepc
    The short version: how can I keep an rsync backup on a truecrypt volume? The hard part is to mount/unmount this volume on the fly when it is needed for rsync. Details This is my current backup configuration (which works fairly well for the most part): backup source is on Win7 64 bit, destination is a remote Linux box (Debian) actual data transfer is done by rsync via ssh (cwRsync with cygwin) rsync daemon is started on demand via ssh On the Linux box the backup is protected by file permissions only. I want to increase security here and put the backup into a truecrypt volume. I can fuse-mount that volume manually in the shell. The question is now how can I make rsync not only open an ssh connection and starting the rsync daemon, but also to mount the truecrypt volume before (and unmount it after)? My money is on option --rsync-path which can be used to pass a command line to ssh - provided that stdin and stdout still work the same. I guess that command would have to be a shell script. Is this possible, and what would the script look like? For reference, here's a quote of that option: --rsync-path=PROGRAM Use this to specify what program is to be run on the remote machine to start-up rsync. Often used when rsync is not in the default remote-shell's path (e.g. --rsync-path=/usr/local/bin/rsync). Note that PROGRAM is run with the help of a shell, so it can be any program, script, or command sequence you'd care to run, so long as it does not corrupt the standard-in & standard-out that rsync is using to communicate. One tricky example is to set a different default directory on the remote machine for use with the --relative option. For instance: rsync -avR --rsync-path="cd /a/b && rsync" host:c/d /e/ This is the full rsync man page. Truecrypt volume auto-mount Solved! Turns out this option is actually key to auto-mounting the truecrypt volume on the remote side. The following command line does the trick (one line!): rsync $options -e "ssh -p $port -i ../.ssh/id_dsa" --rsync-path="/usr/local/bin/truecrypt -d && /usr/local/bin/truecrypt --fs-options=rw,sync,utf8,uid=$UID,umask=0007 --non-interactive -p $password $pathToVolume $remoteMountDir && rsync" $localSourceDir $user:$remoteMountMountDir Truecrypt volume auto-dismount Still open: how can I unmount the volume when rsync is done? Not sure if the following makes sense to anyone but I give it a try... Right now I am unmounting (truecrypt -d), then mounting again, then continuing with rsync. At this time rsync needs to do its thing but I dont know when its done. Adding ... rsync && truecrypt -d to the command line does not work because then the rsync daemon does not start. This is because rsync starts the daemon with parameter --server on the remote side and that parameter would go to the final truecrypt -d.

    Read the article

  • DCOM Authentication Fails to use Kerberos, Falls back to NTLM

    - by Asa Yeamans
    I have a webservice that is written in Classic ASP. In this web service it attempts to create a VirtualServer.Application object on another server via DCOM. This fails with Permission Denied. However I have another component instantiated in this same webservice on the same remote server, that is created without problems. This component is a custom-in house component. The webservice is called from a standalone EXE program that calls it via WinHTTP. It has been verified that WinHTTP is authenticating with Kerberos to the webservice successfully. The user authenticated to the webservice is the Administrator user. The EXE to webservice authentication step is successful and with kerberos. I have verified the DCOM permissions on the remote computer with DCOMCNFG. The default limits allow administrators both local and remote activation, both local and remote access, and both local and remote launch. The default component permissions allow the same. This has been verified. The individual component permissions for the working component are set to defaults. The individual component permissions for the VirtualServer.Application component are also set to defaults. Based upon these settings, the webservice should be able to instantiate and access the components on the remote computer. Setting up a Wireshark trace while running both tests, one with the working component and one with the VirtualServer.Application component reveals an intresting behavior. When the webservice is instantiating the working, custom, component, I can see the request on the wire to the RPCSS endpoint mapper first perform the TCP connect sequence. Then I see it perform the bind request with the appropriate security package, in this case kerberos. After it obtains the endpoint for the working DCOM component, it connects to the DCOM endpoint authenticating again via Kerberos, and it successfully is able to instantiate and communicate. On the failing VirtualServer.Application component, I again see the bind request with kerberos go to the RPCC endpoing mapper successfully. However, when it then attempts to connect to the endpoint in the Virtual Server process, it fails to connect because it only attempts to authenticate with NTLM, which ultimately fails, because the webservice does not have access to the credentials to perform the NTLM hash. Why is it attempting to authenticate via NTLM? Additional Information: Both components run on the same server via DCOM Both components run as Local System on the server Both components are Win32 Service components Both components have the exact same launch/access/activation DCOM permissions Both Win32 Services are set to run as Local System The permission denied is not a permissions issue as far as I can tell, it is an authentication issue. Permission is denied because NTLM authentication is used with a NULL username instead of Kerberos Delegation Constrained delegation is setup on the server hosting the webservice. The server hosting the webservice is allowed to delegate to rpcss/dcom-server-name The server hosting the webservice is allowed to delegate to vssvc/dcom-server-name The dcom server is allowed to delegate to rpcss/webservice-server The SPN's registered on the dcom server include rpcss/dcom-server-name and vssvc/dcom-server-name as well as the HOST/dcom-server-name related SPNs The SPN's registered on the webservice-server include rpcss/webservice-server and the HOST/webservice-server related SPNs Anybody have any Ideas why the attempt to create a VirtualServer.Application object on a remote server is falling back to NTLM authentication causing it to fail and get permission denied? Additional information: When the following code is run in the context of the webservice, directly via a testing-only, just-developed COM component, it fails on the specified line with Access Denied. COSERVERINFO csi; csi.dwReserved1=0; csi.pwszName=L"terahnee.rivin.net"; csi.pAuthInfo=NULL; csi.dwReserved2=NULL; hr=CoGetClassObject(CLSID_VirtualServer, CLSCTX_ALL, &csi, IID_IClassFactory, (void **) &pClsFact); if(FAILED( hr )) goto error1; // Fails here with HRESULT_FROM_WIN32(ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED) hr=pClsFact->CreateInstance(NULL, IID_IUnknown, (void **) &pUnk); if(FAILED( hr )) goto error2; Ive also noticed that in the Wireshark Traces, i see the attempt to connect to the service process component only requests NTLMSSP authentication, it doesnt even attmept to use kerberos. This suggests that for some reason the webservice thinks it cant use kerberos...

    Read the article

  • Poor home office network performance and cannot figure out where the issue is

    - by Jeff Willener
    This is the most bizarre issue. I have worked with small to mid size networks for quite a long time and can say I'm comfortable connecting hardware. Where you will start to lose me is with managed switches and firewalls. To start, let me describe my network (sigh, shouldn't but I MUST solve this). 1) Comcast Cable Internet 2) Motorola SURFboard eXtreme Cable Modem. a) Model: SB6120 b) DOCSIS 3.0 and 2.0 support c) IPv4 and IPv6 support 3-A) Cisco Small Business RV220W Wireless N Firewall a) Latest firmware b) Model: RV220W-A-K9-NA c) WAN Port to Modem (2) d) vlan 1: work e) vlan 2: everything else. 3-B) D-Link DIR-615 Draft 802.11 N Wireless Router a) Latest firmware b) WAN Port to Modem (2) 4) Servers connected directly to firewall a) If firewall 3-A, then vlan 1 b) CAT5e patch cables c) Dell PowerEdge 1400SC w/ 10/100 integrated NIC (Domain Controller, DNS, former DHCP) d) Dell PowerEdge 400SC w/ 10/100/1000 integrated NIC (VMWare Server) 4) Linksys EZXS88W unmanaged Workgroup 10/100 Switch a) If firewall 3-A, then vlan 2 b) 25' CAT5e patch cable to firewall (3-A or 3-B) c) Connects xBox 360, Blu-Ray player, PC at TV 5) Office equipment connected directly to firewall a) If firewall 3-A, then vlan 1 b) ~80' CAT6 or CAT5e patch cable to firewall (3-A or 3-B) c) Connects 1) Dell Latitude laptop 10/100/1000 2) Dell Inspiron laptop 10/100 3) Dell Workstation 10/100/1000 (Pristine host, VMWare Workstation 7.x with many bridged VM's) 4) Brother Laser Printer 10/100 5) Epson All-In-One Workforce 310 10/100 5-A) NetGear FS116 unmanaged 10/100 switch a) I've had this switch for a long time and never had issues. 5-B) NetGear GS108 unmanaged 10/100/1000 switch a) Bought new for this issue and returned. 5-C) Linksys SE2500 unmanaged 10/100/1000 switch a) Bought new for this issue and returned. 5-D) TP-Link TL-SG10008D unmanaged 10/100/1000 a) Bought new for this issue and still have. 6) VLan 1 Wireless Connections (on same subnet if 3-B) a) Any of those at 5c b) HP Laptop 7) VLan 2 Wireless Connection (on same subnet if 3-B) a) IPad, IPod b) Compaq Laptop c) Epson Wireless Printer Shew, without hosting a diagram I hope that paints a good picture. The Issue The breakdown here is at item 5. No matter what I do I cannot have a switch at 5 and have to run everything wireless regardless of router. Issues related to using a switch (point 5 above) SpeedTest is good. Poor throughput to other devices if can communicate at all. Usually cannot ping other devices even on the same switch although, when able, ping times are good. Eventual lose of connectivity and can "sometimes" be restored by unplugging everything for several days, not minutes or hours but we're talking a week if at all. Directly connect to computer gives good internet connection however throughput to other devices connected to firewall is at best horrible. Yet printing doesn't seem to be an issue as long as they are connected via wireless. I have to force the RV220W to 1000Mb on the respective port if using a Gig Switch Issues related to using wireless in place of a switch (point 5 above) Poor throughput to other devices if can communicate. SpeedTest is good. Bottom line Internet speeds are awesome. By the way, Comcast went WAY above and beyond to make sure it was not them. They rewired EVERYTHING which did solve internet drops. Computer to computer connections are garbage Cannot get switch at 5 to work, yet other at 4 has never had an issue. Direct connection, bypass switch, is good for DHCP and internet. DNS must be on server, not firewall. Cisco insists its my switches but as you can see I have used four and two different cables with the same result. My gut feeling is something is happening with routing. But I'm not smart enough to know that answer. I run a lot of VM's at 5-c-3, could that cause it? What's different compared to my previous house is I have introduced Gigabit hardware (firewall/switches/computers). Some of my computers might have IPv6 turned on if I haven't turned it off already. I'm truly at a loss and hope anyone has some crazy idea how to solve this. Bottom line, I need a switch in my office behind the firewall. I've changed everything. The real crux is I will find a working solution and, again, after days it will stop working. So this means I cannot isolate if its a computer since I have to use them. Oh and a solution is not throwing more money at this. I'm well into $1k already. Yah, lame.

    Read the article

  • Tunnel is up but cannot ping directly connected network

    - by drmanalo
    We configured a site-to-site VPN and here is the topology. I control the network on the left but not the one on the right. All devices in our network has public IPs. Server---ASA5505---Cisco887======Internet=====ASA5510---devices I can see the tunnel is up and can do extended ping using a loopback interface. From the 10.175 and 10.165 networks, they can also ping my loopback address. I can also dial in using a Cisco VPN client, and can connect to the devices on the right. #show crypto session Crypto session current status Interface: Vlan3 Profile: xxx-profile Session status: UP-ACTIVE Peer: 213.121.x.x port 500 IKEv1 SA: local 77.245.x.x/500 remote 213.121.x.x/500 Active IPSEC FLOW: permit ip 10.0.20.0/255.255.255.240 10.175.0.0/255.255.128.0 Active SAs: 0, origin: crypto map IPSEC FLOW: permit ip 10.0.20.0/255.255.255.240 10.165.0.0/255.255.192.0 Active SAs: 2, origin: crypto map #ping 10.165.29.39 source loopback 2 Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.165.29.39, timeout is 2 seconds: Packet sent with a source address of 10.0.20.1 !!!!! Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 16/17/20 ms My problem is the devices on the right cannot reach my server. They could only ping the loopback address and nothing else. I'm pasting some diagnostics related to routing thinking perhaps routing is my issue. I can paste all the running-config on my side of network if needed. #show ip int brief Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status Protocol ATM0 unassigned YES NVRAM administratively down down Ethernet0 unassigned YES NVRAM administratively down down FastEthernet0 unassigned YES unset up up connected to ASA FastEthernet1 unassigned YES unset administratively down down FastEthernet2 unassigned YES unset administratively down down FastEthernet3 unassigned YES unset up up Loopback1 10.0.20.65 YES NVRAM up up Loopback2 10.0.20.1 YES NVRAM up up Virtual-Template1 77.245.x.x YES unset up down Virtual-Template2 77.245.x.x YES unset up down Vlan1 unassigned YES unset down down Vlan3 77.245.x.x YES NVRAM up up connected to the Internet #show run | section ip route ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 77.245.x.x ip route 213.121.240.36 255.255.255.255 Vlan3 #show access-list Extended IP access list 102 10 permit ip 10.0.20.0 0.0.0.15 10.175.0.0 0.0.127.255 (3332 matches) 20 permit ip 10.0.20.0 0.0.0.15 10.165.0.0 0.0.63.255 (3498 matches) #show vlan-switch VLAN Name Status Ports ---- -------------------------------- --------- ------------------------------- 1 default active 3 VLAN0003 active Fa0, Fa1, Fa2, Fa3 1002 fddi-default act/unsup 1003 token-ring-default act/unsup 1004 fddinet-default act/unsup 1005 trnet-default act/unsup #show ip route Codes: L - local, C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2 i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2 ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route, H - NHRP, l - LISP + - replicated route, % - next hop override Gateway of last resort is 77.245.x.x to network 0.0.0.0 S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 77.245.x.x 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 3 masks C 10.0.20.0/28 is directly connected, Loopback2 L 10.0.20.1/32 is directly connected, Loopback2 C 10.0.20.64/28 is directly connected, Loopback1 L 10.0.20.65/32 is directly connected, Loopback1 S 10.165.0.0/18 [1/0] via 213.121.x.x 77.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 3 masks S 77.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 77.245.x.x C 77.245.x.x/29 is directly connected, Vlan3 L 77.245.x.x/32 is directly connected, Vlan3 213.121.x.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets S 213.121.x.x is directly connected, Vlan3 I read some of the posts here which lead to NATing issue but I'not sure of my next step. Should I translate my public address to private and route it to the loopback address? (only guessing) CISCO VPN site to site Site-to-Site VPN between two ASA 5505s only working in one direction Hope someone could help. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Why do GPUs overheat?

    - by JAD
    About a year ago, I added a 9800GT (1 GB version) and a Corsair CX500 PSU to an HP M8000N computer. A few weeks ago, the HDD overheated and I decided to transfer the GPU & PSU to a new build, which consists of: i3 @ 3.3Ghz Gigabyte H61 Micro ATX Mobo 4GB RAM 500GB WD HDD DVD RW Drive Cooler Master Elite 430 Tower Once I had Win7 up and running, I installed all the essential drivers that came with the Gigabyte Mobo CD. However, whenever I tried installing the Graphics Media Accelerator driver, the computer would crash and enter an endless boot sequence on the next startup. I skipped installing this driver and installed the CD driver for the 9800GT, which by now is a year old. Everything was working fine, WEI rated my GPU at 6.6 graphics & aero performance. However, after updating my Nvidia drivers to the latest, the WEI dropped my rating to 3.3 for Aero, and 4.7 for graphics performance. Just to make sure that everything was ok, I ran Bad Company 2 on medium settings. The first few minutes ran just fine at a smooth framerate, so I dismissed this as Windows being Windows. About 6 hours later, I ran BC2 again. This time I averaged anywhere from 2-5 FPS. I checked the GPU temperature through GPU-Z, and it came back as 120C. The problem with this, is that the computer was on for six hours up to that point. Wouldn't the card have experienced a reactor core meltdown a lot sooner than that? Granted, the computer was "sleeping" some of the time, but still... The next day I took out a temperature gun and ran some tests. I would point the laser at a very specific area on the reverse side of the card (not the fan or "front"), and compare the temp reading with GPU-Z. After leaving the system on idle on idle for a few minutes, I ran BC2 twice. Here are the results: GPU-Z Reading / Temp Gun Reading / Time Null / 22.3°C / Comp is Off 53°C / 33.5°C / 1:49 78°C / 46°C / 1:53 - (First BC2 run; good framerate) 102°C / 64.6°C / 2:01 - (System is again on idle) 113°C / 64.8°C / 2:10 119°C / 71.8°C / 2:17 - (Second BC2 run; poor framerate) I should also mention that I also took a temp recording of another part of the GPU from 2:01-2:17. The temp in this area jumped from 75°C to 82.9°C in that time frame. This pretty much confirms that GPU-Z is reporting the temperature accurately, and the card is overheating. But I'd like to know why; the cars is doing nothing and still the temperature climbs at a steady rate. I thoroughly cleaned the GPU and PSU when I salvaged them from the old HP M8000N computer with a can of compressed air, dust cant be the issue. Similarly, the rest of the computer is brand new. I installed various Nvidia drivers, but no luck. It seems strange to me that a year-old card is suddenly failing on me; aren't they supposed to last at least two years? Could this be a driver issue? Is the motherboard faulty? Could the PSU be overfeeding the card on voltage? Neither case seems likely, as the CPU, RAM and otherwise the rest of the comp has worked flawlessly and has stayed well within respectable temp ranges (the i3 lingers around 50C, the HDD stays at 30C, so does the PSU). How can I pinpoint the issue?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137  | Next Page >