Search Results

Search found 9456 results on 379 pages for 'controller'.

Page 132/379 | < Previous Page | 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139  | Next Page >

  • Web API Getting Http 500 error : Issue Solved See Below

    - by Joe Grasso
    Here is my MVC Controller and everything is fine: private UnitOfWork UOW; public InventoryController() { UOW = new UnitOfWork(); } // GET: /Inventory/ public ActionResult Index() { var products = UOW.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return View(products); } Same method call in API Controller gives me an Http 500 Error: private UnitOfWork _unitOfWork; public TestController() { _unitOfWork = new UnitOfWork(); } public IEnumerable<Product> Get() { var products = _unitOfWork.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return products; } Debugging shows that indeed there is data being returned in both controllers' UOW calls. I then added a customer configuration in Global: public static void CustomizeConfig(HttpConfiguration config) { config.Formatters.Remove(config.Formatters.XmlFormatter); var json = config.Formatters.JsonFormatter; json.SerializerSettings.ContractResolver = new CamelCasePropertyNamesContractResolver(); } I am still receiving an Http 500 in API Controller ONLY and at a loss as to why. Any ideas? UPDATE: It appears using lazy loading caused the problem. When I set the associated properties to NON-VIRTUAL the Test API provided the necessary JSON string. However, whereas before I had the Vendor class included, I only have VendorId. I really wanted to included the associated classes. Any ideas? I know there are alot of smart people out there. Anyone?

    Read the article

  • need help with mvc & routes

    - by geoff
    I'm very new to MVC and I'm trying to get a new site set up using it. For SEO reasons we need to make the url of a page something like "Recruiter/4359/John_Smith" or basically {controller}/{id}/{name}. I have that working when I create the url in the code behind like so... //r is a recruiter object that is part of the results for the view r.Summary = searchResult.Summary + "... &lt;a href=\"/Recruiter/" + r.Id + "/" + r.FirstName + "_" + r.LastName + "\"&gt;Read More&lt;/a&gt;" But when I am using the collection of results from a search in my view and iterating through them I am trying to create another link to the same page doing something like <%=Html.ActionLink<RecruiterController>(x => x.Detail((int)r.Id), r.RecruiterName)%> but that doesn't work. When I use that code in the view it gives me a url in the form of /Recruiter/Detail/4359 I was told by a coworker that I should use the Html.ActionLink to create the link in both the view and the controller so that if the route changes in the future it will automatically work. Unfortunately he wasn't sure how to do that in this case. So, my problems are... How can I make the Html.ActionLink work in the view to create a url like I need (like r.Summary above)? How do I use the Html.ActionLink in a controller instead of hardcoding the link like I have above?

    Read the article

  • Rails ActionCaching with Memcached fragment hit but action gets called anyway

    - by baldtrol
    Hi stackoverflow. I'm running into something strange. I'm using memcached with a caches_action setup. I'm doing this in 4 different controllers. In two of them, it works flawlessly (so far), though admittedly those two controllers are less complicated than the two in which it doesn't seem to work. I'm doing something like this: caches_action :index, :expires_in => 6.hours, :cache_path => Proc.new {|controller| controller.send(:generate_cache_path) }, :layout => false, :if => Proc.new { |c| c.request.format.js? } The intention behind the above is to cache some results that are dependent on the params. my :generate_cache_path method just takes into account some params and session vars and creates a unique key for memcached. I can see in memcached -vv that this is working. What's weird is that I get my request from the rails app for a given key, and I see memcached (with -vv) get the request and send back the response. But then my action runs anyway, and a new value is then set for the same key, even when all the same params are given. I can watch it happen. In the controllers where everything is working, the request is made for the fragment, it gets it, and the action in the controller is halted, and the fragment is passed back. These lines come from the exact same request: Cached fragment hit: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js And then: Cached fragment miss: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js I don't know what to make of it, or if I'm doing something stupid. Any help or ideas where I could start looking for trouble would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

    Read the article

  • callbacks via objective-c selectors

    - by codemonkey
    I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

    Read the article

  • Rails log shows unexpected data as to the time spent on a DB stuff

    - by Arhimed
    I'm running on WinXP + Ruby 1.8.6 + Rails 2.3.5 (frozen to the project) in development environment. Looking at development.log I observe inconsistent data as to the time spent on a database stuff. Example #1 (good): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 12:15:54) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (563.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (15.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 953ms (DB: 578) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #2 (unexpected): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 12:15:36) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (0.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (0.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 47ms (DB: 32) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #2 shows 32ms were spent on DB while there were just 2 sql querries and both of zero time spent. Example #3 (unexpected): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 11:21:24) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (63.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (62.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 1187ms (DB: 297) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #3 shows 297ms while there were querries of 63ms and 62ms (125ms in total). Can't understand it. Could someone explain? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • iOS: display modal view over the top of a UIWebView

    - by Sly
    Is it possible to display a modal view over the top of a UIWebView? I have a UIViewController that loads a WebView. I then want to push a Modal View Controller over the top so that a modal view covers up the WebView temporarily... The WebView is working fine; here's how it's loaded in the View Controller: - (void)loadView { // Initialize webview and add as a subview to LandscapeController's view myWebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]] autorelease]; myWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; myWebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; myWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); myWebView.delegate = self; self.view = myWebView; } If I attempt to load a Modal View controller from within viewDidLoad, however, no modal view appears: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Edit dcftable.html with updated figures NSMutableString *updated_html = [self _updateHTML:@"dcftable"]; // Load altered HTML file as an NSURL request [self.myWebView loadHTMLString:updated_html baseURL:nil]; // If user hasn't paid for dcftable, then invoke the covering modal view if (some_condition) { LandscapeCoverController *landscapeCoverController = [[[LandscapeCoverController alloc] init] autorelease ]; [self presentModalViewController:landscapeCoverController animated:YES]; } } I suspect that there's something that needs to be done with the UIWebView delegate to get it to receive the new modal view...but can't find any discussion or examples of this anywhere...again, the objective is to invoke a modal view that covers over the top of the WebView. Thanks for any thoughts in advance!

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't the spring @Autowire work with java generics

    - by testing123
    Inspired by spring data awesomeness I wanted to create a abstract RESTController that I could extend for a lot of my controllers. I created the following class: @Controller public abstract class RESTController<E, PK extends Serializable, R extends PagingAndSortingRepository<E, PK>> { @Autowired private R repository; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, params={"id"}) @ResponseBody public E getEntity(@RequestParam PK id) { return repository.findOne(id); } ... } I was hoping that the generics would allow me to @Autowire in the repository but I get the following error: SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet appServlet org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No unique bean of type [org.springframework.data.repository.PagingAndSortingRepository] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 3: [groupRepository, externalCourseRepository, managedCourseRepository] at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.doResolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:800) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.resolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:707) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor$AutowiredFieldElement.inject(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:478) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.InjectionMetadata.inject(InjectionMetadata.java:87) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.postProcessPropertyValues(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:284) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1106) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:294) I understand what the error is telling me, there is more than one match for the @Autowire. I am confused because I thought by creating the following controller it would work: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/managedCourse") public class ManagedCourseController extends RESTController<ManagedCourse, Long, ManagedCourseRepository> { ... } This is easy enough to work around by doing having a method like this in the RESTController: protected abstract R getRepository(); and then doing this in your implementing class: @Autowired private ManagedCourseRepository repository; @Override protected ManagedCourseRepository getRepository() { return repository; } I was just wondering if someone had any thoughts of how I could get this to work.

    Read the article

  • Is DOM not being loaded ?

    - by Daniel
    I went through episode 88 (Dynamic menus) of the railscasts and when I try to load my *js.erb file in the browser shows me that my fetched data from the controller is getting there Controller def dynamic_departments @departments = Department.all end localhost:3000/javascripts/dynamic_departments.js var departments = new Array(); departments.push(new Array(1,'????',1)); departments.push(new Array(2,'???-???',2)); function facultySelected(){ faculty_id = $('falculty_id').getValue(); options = $('department_id').options; options.length = 1; departments.each(function(department){ if(department[0] == faculty_id){ options[options.length] = new Option(department[1],department[2]) } }); if(options.length == 1){ $('department_field').hide(); } else { $('department_field').show(); } } document.observe('dom:loaded', function(){ alert("DOM loaded"); //$('department_field').hide(); //$('faculty_id').observe('change',facultySelected); }); My routes.rb has the match ':controller/:action.:format' Still...after the page's loaded and I change the value of my collection_select or select nothing happens.What am I missing? *I called the 'alert' and commented the rest to test it....still nothing.

    Read the article

  • iPhone development - app design patterns

    - by occulus
    There are tons of resources concerning coding on the iPhone. Most of them concern "how do I do X", e.g. "setup a navigation controller", or "download text from a URL". All good and fine. What I'm more interested in now are the questions that follow the simpler stuff - how to best structure your complex UI, or your app, or the common problems that arise. To illustrate: a book like "Beginning iPhone 3 Development" tells you how to set up a multi viewcontroller app with an top 'switcher' viewcontroller that switches between views owned by other view controllers. Fine, but you're only told how to do that, and nothing about the problems that can follow: for example, if I use their paradigm to switch to a UINavigationViewController, the Navigation bar ends up too low on the screen, because UINavigationViewController expects to be the topmost UIViewController (apparently). Also, delegate methods (e.g. relating to orientation changes) go to the top switcher view controller, not the actual controller responsible for the current view. I have fixes for these things but they feel like hacks which makes me unhappy and makes me feel like I'm missing something. One productive thing might be to look at some open source iPhone projects (see this question). But aside from that?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC twitter/myspace style routing

    - by Astrofaes
    Hi guys, This is my first post after being a long-time lurker - so please be gentle :-) I have a website similar to twitter, in that people can sign up and choose a 'friendly url', so on my site they would have something like: mydomain.com/benjones I also have root level static pages such as: mydomain.com/about and of course my homepage: mydomain.com/ I'm new to ASP.NET MVC 2 (in fact I just started today) and I've set up the following routes to try and achieve the above. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("images/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute("About", "about", new { controller = "Common", action = "About" } ); // User profile sits at root level so check for this before displaying the homepage routes.MapRoute("UserProfile", "{url}", new { controller = "User", action = "Profile", url = "" } ); routes.MapRoute("Home", "", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } For the most part this works fine, however, my homepage is not being triggered! Essentially, when you browser to mydomain.com, it seems to trigger the User Profile route with an empty {url} parameter and so the homepage is never reached! Any ideas on how I can show the homepage?

    Read the article

  • rails 4 -- working with js format from ajax

    - by user101289
    I'm still working on learning Rails, and I have a page with team information that will get updated based on a team's icon click, which fires an ajax call to the controller to populate some tabs. I've read some good info about how to use format.js in the controller to render a partial from a js.coffee or js.erb file. The problem I'm running into is in the coffeescript I think. Right now, I'm getting some data called @schedules from the controller, and passing it to a schedule.js.coffee file that should populate a partial for each record returned and attach it to a table. // schedule.js.coffee $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> ($ '#schedule_data').append("<%= j render(partial: 'schedules/schedule', locals: { s: schedule }) %>") This throws an error `> undefined local variable or method `schedule' for #<#<Class:0x007fe535cd2900>:0x007fe535d32a30>` I tried simplifying the coffeescript to just log the output: $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> console.log(schedule) but this prints nothing. Am I missing something? I am very inexperienced with coffeescript, but it seems like I should be getting some data-- I verified that the schedule items do exist for this team item.

    Read the article

  • How to Inserting message into View that depends on session value. ASP.NET MVC. Best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    User have to populate multistep questionnaire web-forms and step messages depend on the option chosen by user at the very beginning. Messages are stored in web.config file. I use asp.net mvc project, strong typed views and keep business logic separated from controller in static class. I don't want to make business logic dependency on web.config. Well, I have to insert message into view that depends on session value. There are at least 2 options how to implement this: View model has property that is populated in controller/businessLogic and rendered in view like <%: Model.HelpMessage1 %>. I have to pass web.config values from controller to businessLogic that makes business logic methods signature too complex. I don't want to make configuration source abstract (in order to let business logic read configuration values from its methods directly) also. Create static helper class that is called from view like <%: ViewHelper.HelpMessage1(Model.Option1) %>. But in this case logic what to show seems to be separated into two classes: business logic & viewHelper. What will you suggest? Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • CakePHP Observe field for validation check(already exists)

    - by deck john
    i have already user observe field in cakephp 1.3 Now i want to do the same thing in cakephp 2.0 I have one form.there is a one field named email. When user insert email. onblur there is a popup one message that displays "email already exists" or "right" for that i have write below code in my projects. the below code is my add file code <?php $options = array('url' => array( 'controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'is_exist'), 'update' => 'email_exist'); echo $this->ajax->observeField('UserEmailId',array('url' => array( 'controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'is_exist'), 'update' => 'email_exists')); ?> In my controller i have created one function like public function is_exist($id = null) { $result = "yes"; $this->set('existdata',$result); } i have also created is_exists.ctp fiel in view/uers. i dont know why its not working. i did the same thing in Cakephp 1.3 and its working file but not in cakephp 2.0 can anyone tell me how i implement this ? thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Tomcat does not pick up the class file - the JSP file is not displayed

    - by blueSky
    I have a Java code which is a controller for a jsp page, called: HomeController.java. Code is as follows: @Controller public class HomeController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/mypage") public String home() { System.out.println("HomeController: Passing through..."); return "home"; } } There is nothing especial in the jsp page: home.jsp. If I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/mypage I can view mypage and everything works fine. Also in the tomcat Dos page I can see the comment: HomeController: Passing through... As expected. Now under the same directory that I have HomeController.java, I've created another file called: LoginController.java. Following is the code: @Controller public class LoginController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/loginpage") public String login() { System.out.println("LoginController: Passing through..."); return "login"; } } And under the same place which I have home.jsp, I've created login.jsp. Also under tomcat folders, LoginController.class exists under the same folder that HomeController.class exists and login.jsp exists under the same folder which home.jsp exists. But when I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/loginpage Nothing is displayed! I think tomcat does not pick up LoginController.class b/c on the tomcat Dos window, I do NOT see this comment: LoginController: Passing through... Instead I see following which I do not know what do they mean? [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:34) got manifest [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:36) manifest entrie s 8 The structure and the code for HomeController.java and LoginController.java plus the jsp files match. I have no idea why tomcat sees one of the files and not the other? Clean build did not help. Does anybody have any idea? Any help is greatly appraciated.

    Read the article

  • Converting application to MVC architecture

    - by terence6
    I'm practicing writing MVC applications. I have a Mastermind game, that I would like to rewrite as MVC app. I have divided my code to parts, but instead of working game I'm getting empty Frame and an error in "public void paint( Graphics g )". Error comes from calling this method in my view with null argument. But how to overcome this ? MVC was quite simple with swing but awt and it's paint methods are much more complicated. Code of working app : http://paste.pocoo.org/show/224982/ App divided to MVC : Main : public class Main { public static void main(String[] args){ Model model = new Model(); View view = new View("Mastermind", 400, 590, model); Controller controller = new Controller(model, view); view.setVisible(true); } } Controller : import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.*; public class Controller implements MouseListener, ActionListener { private Model model; private View view; public Controller(Model m, View v){ model = m; view = v; view.addWindowListener( new WindowAdapter(){ public void windowClosing(WindowEvent e){ System.exit(0); } }); view.addMouseListener(this); } public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ) { if(e.getSource() == view.checkAnswer){ if(model.isRowFull){ model.check(); } } } public void mousePressed(MouseEvent e) { Point mouse = new Point(); mouse = e.getPoint(); if (model.isPlaying){ if (mouse.x > 350) { int button = 1 + (int)((mouse.y - 32) / 50); if ((button >= 1) && (button <= 5)){ model.fillHole(button); } } } } public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent e) {} public void mouseReleased(MouseEvent e){} public void mouseEntered(MouseEvent e) {} public void mouseExited(MouseEvent e) {} } View : import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; public class View extends Frame implements ActionListener { Model model; JButton checkAnswer; private JPanel button; static final int HIT_X[] = {270,290,310,290,310}, HIT_Y[] = {506,496,496,516,516}; public View(String name, int w, int h, Model m){ model = m; setTitle( name ); setSize( w,h ); setResizable( false ); this.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); button = new JPanel(); button.setSize( new Dimension(400, 100)); button.setVisible(true); checkAnswer = new JButton("Check"); checkAnswer.addActionListener(this); checkAnswer.setSize( new Dimension(200, 30)); button.add( checkAnswer ); this.add( button, BorderLayout.SOUTH); button.setVisible(true); for ( int i=0; i < model.SCORE; i++ ){ for ( int j = 0; j < model.LINE; j++ ){ model.pins[i][j] = new Pin(20,0); model.pins[i][j].setPosition(j*50+30,510-i*50); model.pins[i+model.SCORE][j] = new Pin(8,0); model.pins[i+model.SCORE][j].setPosition(HIT_X[j],HIT_Y[j]-i*50); } } for ( int i=0; i < model.LINE; i++ ){ model.pins[model.OPTIONS][i] = new Pin( 20, i+2 ); model.pins[model.OPTIONS][i].setPosition( 370,i * 50 + 56); } model.combination(); model.paint(null); } public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ) { } } Model: import java.awt.*; public class Model extends Frame{ static final int LINE = 5, SCORE = 10, OPTIONS = 20; Pin pins[][] = new Pin[21][LINE]; int combination[] = new int[LINE]; int curPin = 0; int turn = 1; int repaintPin; boolean isUpdate = true, isPlaying = true, isRowFull = false; public Model(){ } void fillHole(int color) { pins[turn-1][curPin].setColor(color+1); repaintPins( turn ); curPin = (curPin+1) % LINE; if (curPin == 0){ isRowFull = true; } } public void paint( Graphics g ) { g.setColor( new Color(238, 238, 238)); g.fillRect( 0,0,400,590); for ( int i=0; i < pins.length; i++ ) { pins[i][0].paint(g); pins[i][1].paint(g); pins[i][2].paint(g); pins[i][3].paint(g); pins[i][4].paint(g); } } public void update( Graphics g ) { if ( isUpdate ) { paint(g); } else { isUpdate = true; pins[repaintPin-1][0].paint(g); pins[repaintPin-1][1].paint(g); pins[repaintPin-1][2].paint(g); pins[repaintPin-1][3].paint(g); pins[repaintPin-1][4].paint(g); } } void repaintPins( int pin ) { repaintPin = pin; isUpdate = false; repaint(); } void check() { int junkPegs[] = new int[LINE], junkCode[] = new int[LINE]; int pegCount = 0, pico = 0; for ( int i = 0; i < LINE; i++ ) { junkPegs[i] = pins[turn-1][i].getColor(); junkCode[i] = combination[i]; } for ( int i = 0; i < LINE; i++ ){ if (junkPegs[i]==junkCode[i]) { pins[turn+SCORE][pegCount].setColor(1); pegCount++; pico++; junkPegs[i] = 98; junkCode[i] = 99; } } for ( int i = 0; i < LINE; i++ ){ for ( int j = 0; j < LINE; j++ ) if (junkPegs[i]==junkCode[j]) { pins[turn+SCORE][pegCount].setColor(2); pegCount++; junkPegs[i] = 98; junkCode[j] = 99; j = LINE; } } repaintPins( turn+SCORE ); if ( pico == LINE ){ isPlaying = false; } else if ( turn >= 10 ){ isPlaying = false; } else{ curPin = 0; isRowFull = false; turn++; } } void combination() { for ( int i = 0; i < LINE; i++ ){ combination[i] = 1 + (int)(Math.random()*5); System.out.print(i+","); } } } class Pin{ private int color, X, Y, radius; private static final Color COLORS[] = { Color.black, Color.white, Color.red, Color.yellow, Color.green, Color.blue, new Color(7, 254, 250)}; public Pin(){ X = 0; Y = 0; radius = 0; color = 0; } public Pin( int r,int c ){ X = 0; Y = 0; radius = r; color = c; } public void paint( Graphics g ){ int x = X-radius; int y = Y-radius; if (color > 0){ g.setColor( COLORS[color]); g.fillOval( x,y,2*radius,2*radius ); } else{ g.setColor( new Color(238, 238, 238) ); g.drawOval( x,y,2*radius-1,2*radius-1 ); } g.setColor( Color.black ); g.drawOval( x,y,2*radius,2*radius ); } public void setPosition( int x,int y ){ this.X = x ; this.Y = y ; } public void setColor( int c ){ color = c; } public int getColor() { return color; } } Any clues on how to overcome this would be great. Have I divided my code improperly ?

    Read the article

  • Should frontend and backend be handled by different controllers?

    - by DR
    In my previous learning projects I always used a single controller, but now I wonder if that is good practice or even always possible. In all RESTful Rails tutorials the controllers have a show, an edit and an index view. If an authorized user is logged on, the edit view becomes available and the index view shows additional data manipulation controls, like a delete button or a link to the edit view. Now I have a Rails application which falls exactly into this pattern, but the index view is not reusable: The normal user sees a flashy index page with lots of pictures, complex layout, no Javascript requirement, ... The Admin user index has a completly different minimalistic design, jQuery table and lots of additional data, ... Now I'm not sure how to handle this case. I can think of the following: Single controller, single view: The view is split into two large blocks/partials using an if statement. Single controller, two views: index and index_admin. Two different controllers: BookController and BookAdminController None of these solutions seems perfect, but for now I'm inclined to use the 3rd option. What's the preferred way to do this?

    Read the article

  • IPhone - Memory Management problems.

    - by user321721
    i am going over my code and trying to get a handle on proper memory management. This code: imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:myImage] autorelease]; causes my application to crash. I am using multiple view controllers within a nav bar controller. The app works fine, i cant select a person from the first view controller (tableview) and it puts me to a list of that persons photos, i can then select a photo from that view controller (tableview) and move to a final view with a scrollview for viewing the photo. Once i hit back on the navbar the previous view loads (list of photos in a tableview) however the app crashes right before the row is deselected using this code: (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; if(RowSelected != nil) { [MainTableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:RowSelected animated:YES]; } } Row selected is stored when a the user clicks a row. If i leave the code as : imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:myImage]; The app runs fine. Am i doing something wrong? do i not need to autorelease this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Zend, slow load, "waiting for response" for 20-80 seconds on local site

    - by Tony C.
    So I have several sites running under the same zend setup. All of the sites run pretty normally except one. Upon loading or reloading this one site, reguardless of which page your on (excluding the 404 page explanation later...) you get a serious pause before any content begins to download. Using firebugs net panel you can see that the first request which is www.(siteaddress).com.local you see a "waiting for response" bar (purple) that is going for anywhere from 20 to sometimes 80+ seconds and this isn't on a dev site, this is on a local site under localhost. What I've managed to figure out so far is that all the pages do this except my 404 page. The reason the 404 page doesn't succumb to this is because it uses a seperate controller (the error controller) and therefore bypasses much of the controller and functions the other parts of the site use. Using exit statements I've manged to figure out that the problem happens somewhere between my post dispatch and my main (top most) controllers Init function. If i exit in the main controllers init the page loads (then exits instantly, no wait). If i do the same in the pre or post dispatch the page waits the 20-80 seconds then exits. Is there a diagram or explanation somewhere or a way for me to find out what events fire inbetween the post dispatch and the main controllers init function? Or does anyone have any clue what might cause this? Any help would be greatly appreciated...

    Read the article

  • Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

    - by Venu
    Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Post complex types to WebApi Client

    - by BumbleBee
    I am new to WebAPI. I have a MVC project and webApi project both reside under the **same solution**. Also, BLL Class library and DAL class library reside under the same solution. Earlier, my MVC project will talk to the BLL now I am trying to create a WebAPi project which stands in between MVC and BLL. Here is what I have come up with so far : I'm using the HTTPClient to post to a WebApi project. My post method on my controller accepts a single parameter (a model). StatsCriteria criteria = new StatsCriteria(); ...... var client = new HttpClient(); var response = client.PostAsJsonAsync("http://localhost:52765/api/reports", criteria).Result; ....... Here's the signature for my controller in Webapi [HttpPost] public CMAReportVM Reports([FromBody] StatsCriteria criteria) { var cmaReport = Service3.GetCMAReport(criteria.Mlsnums); //Create Map to enable mapping business object to View Model Mapper.CreateMap<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(); // Maps model to VM model class var cmaVM = Mapper.Map<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(cmaReport); reutn cmaVM; } // and here's my routing: config.Routes.MapHttpRoute( name: "DefaultApi", routeTemplate: "api/{controller}/{id}", defaults: new { id = RouteParameter.Optional } I am getting the following 405 : Method not allowed. As the WebAPI and MVC project both reside under same sloution I am not sure where/how to host my webapi.

    Read the article

  • Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

    - by franko75
    I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

    Read the article

  • How do I convert a simple ruby flashcard program into a ROR app?

    - by Mark Wilbur
    What I'm trying to do is make a basic flashcard app on rails. At this point, all I'm looking for is the functionality to iterate through a list of flashcards, quiz the user and let the user know if they were right or not. In ruby, it didn't take me long to write: class Card attr_accessor :answer, :question def initialize(answer = "", question="") @answer = answer @question = question end def quiz puts "What does #@question mean?" answer = gets.chomp if answer == @answer puts "Right" return true else puts "Wrong" return answer end end end class Cardlist attr_accessor :Cards def initialize(Cards = []) @Cards = Cards end def quiz Cards.each do |w| w.quiz end end end The problem I'm having with rails is figuring out where to put the logic to loop through all the cards in the list. I've made models specifying that Card belongs_to cardlist and that Cardlist has_many cards. I know application logic should go in the controller, but if I were to make a "quiz" action for my Cardlist controller, how would I make it iterate through all the cards? After each "quiz" page generated, I'd need to get an answer back from the user, respond (maybe flash) whether it was right or not and then continue onto the next question. Would any of that logic have to go into the view in order to make sure it's sending back the user inputted answers to the controller?

    Read the article

  • How can I make an prototype ajax request with an array of values as a parameter?

    - by andresbravog
    i'm trying to make a ajax update in prototype with some values from a multirecordselect that sends a requests like. Parameters: {"action"=>"use_campaign", "campaigns"=> ["27929","27932"] , "advertiser_id"=>"", "controller"=>"admin/reporting", "ad_id"=>""} as you can see the request sends the "campaigns" elements as an array of values, i'm trying to do the same with this js code over prototype 7. // get the campaigns var campaign_ids = {}; var campaigns = $('filter_form').getInputs("hidden","report[campaigns][]"); campaigns.each( function(field) { campaign_ids.push(field.value); }); new Ajax.Updater('ad_filter', '/admin/reporting/use_campaign', { method : 'get', asynchronous : true, evalScripts : true, parameters : { 'advertiser_id' : $('filter_form')['report[advertiser_id]'].value, 'ad_id' : $('filter_form')['report[ad_id]'].value, 'campaigns' : campaign_ids } }); the campaigns_ids is getting the correct info as an array like: [ "27929", "27932" ] but seems that prototype ajax update is sending a request like: http://my_domain/admin/reporting/use_campaign?ad_id=&advertiser_id=&campaigns=27929&campaigns=27932 what sends parameters like: Parameters: {"action"=>"use_campaign", "campaigns"=> "27929" , "advertiser_id"=>"", "controller"=>"admin/reporting", "ad_id"=>""} I also tryed with Object.toJSON(campaign_ids) but i only get an escaped string like Parameters: {"action"=>"use_campaign", "campaigns"=>"[\"27929\",\"27932\"]" , "advertiser_id"=>"", "controller"=>"admin/reporting", "ad_id"=>""} There is anyway to do this as I wish? Thanks for all.

    Read the article

  • A little confused about MVC and where to put a database query

    - by jax
    OK, so my Joomla app is in MVC format. I am still a little confused about where to put certain operations, in the Controller or in the Model. This function below is in the controller, it gets called when &task=remove. Should the database stuff be in the Model? It does not seem to fit there because I have two models editapp (display a single application) and allapps (display all the applications), now which one would I put the delete operation in? /** * Delete an application */ function remove() { global $mainframe; $cid = JRequest::getVar( 'cid', array(), '', 'array' ); $db =& JFactory::getDBO(); //if there are items to delete if(count($cid)){ $cids = implode( ',', $cid ); $query = "DELETE FROM #__myapp_apps WHERE id IN ( $cids )"; $db->setQuery( $query ); if (!$db->query()){ echo "<script> alert('".$db->getErrorMsg()."');window.history.go(-1); </script>\n"; } } $mainframe->redirect( 'index.php?option=' . $option . '&c=apps'); } I am also confused about how the flow works. For example, there is a display() function in the controller that gets called by default. If I pass a task, does the display() function still run or does it go directly to the function name passed by $task?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139  | Next Page >