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  • SQL server partitioning

    - by durilai
    I have a table that has millions of records and we are looking at implementing table partitioning. Looking at it we have a foreign key "GroupID" that we would like to partition on. Is this possible? The Group will have more entries added to it, so as new GroupID's are added can the partition's be made dynamically?

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  • FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

    - by goober
    I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Will creating index help in this case

    - by The King
    I'm still a learning user of SQL-SERVER2005. Here is my table structure CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Trn_PostingGroups]( [ControlGroup] [char](5) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NOT NULL, [PracticeCode] [char](5) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NOT NULL, [ScanDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [DepositDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [NameOfFile] [varchar](50) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL, [DepositValue] [decimal](11, 2) NULL, [RecordStatus] [char](1) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Trn_PostingGroups_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ControlGroup] ASC, [PracticeCode] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] Scenario 1 : Suppose I have a query like this... Select * from Trn_PostingGroups where PracticeCode = 'ABC' Will indexing on Practice Code seperately help me in making my query faster?? Scenario 2 : Select * from Trn_PostingGroups where ControlGroup = 12701 and PracticeCode = 'ABC' and NameOfFile = 'FileName1' Will indexing on NameOfFile seperately help me in making my query faster ??

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  • Update table using SSIS

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to update a field in a table with data from another table, based on a common key. If it were in straight SQL, it would be something like: Update EHSIT set e.IDMSObjID = s.IDMSObjID from EHSIT e, EHSIDMS s where e.SITENUM = s.SITE_CODE However, the two tables are not in the same database, so I'm trying to use SSIS to do the update. Oh, and the sitenum/site_code are varchar in one and nvarchar in the other, so I'll have to do a data conversion so they'll match. How do I do it? I have a data flow object, with the source as EHSIDMS and the destination as EHSIT. I have a data conversion to convert the unicode to non-unicode. But how do I update based on the match? I've tried with the destination, using a SQL Command as the Data Access mode, but it doesn't appear to have the source table. If I just map the field to be updated, how does it limit it based on fields matching? I'm about to export my source table to Excel or something, and then try inputting from there, although it seems that all that would get me would be to remove the data conversion step. Shouldn't there be an update data task or something? Is it one of those Data Flow transformation tasks, and I'm just not figuring out which it is?

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  • Random select is not always returning a single row.

    - by Lieven
    The intention of following (simplified) code fragment is to return one random row. Unfortunatly, when we run this fragment in the query analyzer, it returns between zero and three results. As our input table consists of exactly 5 rows with unique ID's and as we perform a select on this table where ID equals a random number, we are stumped that there would ever be more than one row returned. Note: among other things, we already tried casting the checksum result to an integer with no avail. DECLARE @Table TABLE ( ID INTEGER IDENTITY (1, 1) , FK1 INTEGER ) INSERT INTO @Table SELECT 1 UNION ALL SELECT 2 UNION ALL SELECT 3 UNION ALL SELECT 4 UNION ALL SELECT 5 SELECT * FROM @Table WHERE ID = ABS(CHECKSUM(NEWID())) % 5 + 1

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  • how can i substitute a NULL value for a 0 in an SQL Query result

    - by Name.IsNullOrEmpty
    SELECT EmployeeMaster.EmpNo, Sum(LeaveApplications.LeaveDaysTaken) AS LeaveDays FROM EmployeeMaster FULL OUTER JOIN LeaveApplications ON EmployeeMaster.id = LeaveApplications.EmployeeRecordID INNER JOIN LeaveMaster ON EmployeeMaster.id = LeaveMaster.EmpRecordID GRoup BY EmployeeMaster.EmpNo order by LeaveDays Desc with the above query, if an employee has no leave application record in table LeaveApplications, then their Sum(LeaveApplications.LeaveDaysTaken) AS LeaveDays column returns NULL. What i would like to do is place a value of 0 (Zero) instead of NULL. I want to do this because i have a calculated column in the same query whose formular depends on the LeaveDays returned and when LeaveDays is NULL, the formular some how fails. Is there away i can put 0 for NULL such that that i can get my desired result.

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  • Move SELECT to SQL Server side

    - by noober
    Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

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  • Null Value Statement

    - by Sam
    Hi All, I have created a table called table1 and it has 4 columns named Name,ID,Description and Date. I have created them like Name varchar(50) null, ID int null,Description varchar(50) null, Date datetime null I have inserted a record into the table1 having ID and Description values. So Now my table1 looks like this: Name ID Description Date Null 1 First Null One of them asked me to modify the table such a way that The columns Name and Date should have Null values instead of Text Null. I don't know what is the difference between those I mean can anyone explain me the difference between these select statements: SELECT * FROM TABLE1 WHERE NAME IS NULL SELECT * FROM TABLE1 WHERE NAME = 'NULL' SELECT * FROM TABLE1 WHERE NAME = ' ' Can anyone explain me?

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  • how to optimize sql server table for faster response?

    - by Thomas
    i found a in a table there are 50 thousands records and it takes one minute when we fetch data from sql server table just by issuing a sql. there are one primary key that means a already a cluster index is there. i just do not understand why it takes one minute. beside index what are the ways out there to optimize a table to get the data faster. in this situation what i need to do for faster response. also tell me how we can write always a optimize sql. please tell me all the steps in detail for optimization. thanks.

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  • How can I improve my select query for storing large versioned data sets?

    - by Jason Francis
    At work, we build large multi-page web applications, consisting mostly of radio and check boxes. The primary purpose of each application is to gather data, but as users return to a page they have previously visited, we report back to them their previous responses. Worst-case scenario, we might have up to 900 distinct variables and around 1.5 million users. For several reasons, it makes sense to use an insert-only approach to storing the data (as opposed to update-in-place) so that we can capture historical data about repeated interactions with variables. The net result is that we might have several responses per user per variable. Our table to collect the responses looks something like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[results]( [id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NULL, [variable] [varchar](8) NULL, [value] [tinyint] NULL, [submitted] [smalldatetime] NULL) Where id serves as the primary key. Virtually every request results in a series of insert statements (one per variable submitted), and then we run a select to produce previous responses for the next page (something like this): SELECT t.id, t.variable, t.value FROM results t WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE t.userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') AND t.id IN (SELECT MAX(id) AS id FROM results WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') GROUP BY variable) Which, in this case, would return the most recent responses for the variables "internat", "veteran", and "athlete" for user 2111846. We have followed the advice of the database tuning tools in indexing the tables, and against our data, this is the best-performing version of the select query that we have been able to come up with. Even so, there seems to be significant performance degradation as the table approaches 1 million records (and we might have about 150x that). We have a fairly-elegant solution in place for sharding the data across multiple tables which has been working quite well, but I am open for any advice about how I might construct a better version of the select query. We use this structure frequently for storing lots of independent data points, and we like the benefits it provides. So the question is, how can I improve the performance of the select query? I assume the nested select statement is a bad idea, but I have yet to find an alternative that performs as well. Thanks in advance. NB: Since we emphasize creating over reading in this case, and since we never update in place, there doesn't seem to be any penalty (and some advantage) for using the NOLOCK directive in this case.

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  • Select rows in random order and then reverse it

    - by Faruz
    I need to select rows in random order and return a query which holds the rows in both regular order and in reverse order. This is done to simulate a fantasy draft for a basketball game I'm working on. For example, I need a result set as followed: team1 1 team2 2 team6 3 team9 4 team9 5 team6 6 team2 7 team1 8 As you can see, the first four teams are random then then following four are in reverse order. Hope I managed to explain the problem, if not - please comment and I'll explain further.

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  • Different versions in manifest on different machines

    - by Terry777
    Hi guys, Have two machines, both with VS2005 SP1 installed and with the WinSXS showing the same things installed. When one machine builds a particular C++ .dll .vcproj it ends up with <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.MFC' version='8.0.50727.762' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> in its manifest file. But on the other machine it ends up with <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.MFC' version='8.0.50608.0 processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> even though this machine does not have '8.0.50608.0' libraries listed in its WinSXS. The .dll built on this machine with the older version referenced has some problems. I have ensured both machines have the same latest source code and references etc.. What could be causing it to build with the different reference? Thanks! Terry

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  • Not able to add column value

    - by peter
    I have project which contain 4 tables among these shedule table Session column i am not able to add vaue,,this table contain three foriegn key from two tables(in which single table has two foreign keys here) i added values here..Any one has any idea about this..Actually my intention is to remove the error "the insert statement conflicted with the foreign key constraint sql server"

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  • What are the repercussions of not checking existing data when adding a foreign key?

    - by scottm
    I've inherited a database that doesn't exactly strive for data integrity. I am trying to add some foreign keys to change that, but there is data in some tables that doesn't fit the constraints. Most likely, the data won't be used again so I want to know what problems I might face by leaving it there. The other option I see is to move it into some kind of table without referential constraints, just for historical purposes. So, what are the repercussions of not checking existing data? If I create a foreign key constraint on a table and don't check existing data, will all new data inserted into the table be enforced?

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  • How can I pivot these key+values rows into a table of complete entries?

    - by CodexArcanum
    Maybe I demand too much from SQL but I feel like this should be possible. I start with a list of key-value pairs, like this: '0:First, 1:Second, 2:Third, 3:Fourth' etc. I can split this up pretty easily with a two-step parse that gets me a table like: EntryNumber PairNumber Item 0 0 0 1 0 First 2 1 1 3 1 Second etc. Now, in the simple case of splitting the pairs into a pair of columns, it's fairly easy. I'm interested in the more advanced case where I might have multiple values per entry, like: '0:First:Fishing, 1:Second:Camping, 2:Third:Hiking' and such. In that generic case, I'd like to find a way to take my 3-column result table and somehow pivot it to have one row per entry and one column per value-part. So I want to turn this: EntryNumber PairNumber Item 0 0 0 1 0 First 2 0 Fishing 3 1 1 4 1 Second 5 1 Camping Into this: Entry [1] [2] [3] 0 0 First Fishing 1 1 Second Camping Is that just too much for SQL to handle, or is there a way? Pivots (even tricky dynamic pivots) seem like an answer, but I can't figure how to get that to work.

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  • Assign the results of a stored procedure into a variable in another stored procedure

    - by RHPT
    The title of this question is a bit misleading, but I couldn't summarize this very well. I have two stored procedures. The first stored procedure (s_proc1) calls a second stored procedure (s_proc2). I want to assign the value returned from s_proc2 to a variable in s_proc1. Currently, I'm calling s_proc2 (inside s_proc1) in this manner: EXEC s_proc2 @SiteID, @count = @PagingCount OUTPUT s_proc2 contains a dynamic query statement (for reasons I will not outline here). CREATE dbo.s_proc2 ( @siteID int, @count int OUTPUT ) AS DECLARE @sSQL nvarchar(100) DECLARE @xCount int SELECT @sSQL = 'SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM Authors' EXEC sp_ExecuteSQL @sSQL, N'@xCount int output', @xCount output SET @count = @xCount RETURN @count Will this result in @PagingCount having the value of @count? I ask because the result I am getting from s_proc1 is wonky. In fact, what I do get is two results. The first being @count, then the result of s_proc1 (which is incorrect). So, it makes me wonder if @PagingCount isn't being set properly. Thank you.

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  • how to get the comma seperated values of the column stored in the Sql server

    - by Innova
    how to get the comma separated values stored in the Sql Db into a individual values e.g in sql DB the column is stored with comma values as shown below, EligiblGroup A11,A12,A13 B11,B12,B13 I need to get EligibleGroup A11 A12 A13 B11 B12 ... I have written a query that will fetch me some list of employees with employee name and elibigle group XXX A11 YYY B11 ZZZ C11 I need to check that the employees(XXX,YYY,ZZZ) eligiblegroup falls within this EligiblGroup A11,A12,A13 B11,B12,B13 and retrun me only that rows.

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  • Overloading methods in C#

    - by Craig Johnston
    Is there a way to simplify the process of adding an overloaded method in C# using VS2005? In VB6, I would have just added an Optional parameter the function, but in C# do I have to have to type out a whole new method with this new parameter?

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