Search Results

Search found 9467 results on 379 pages for 'tutor flowchart policy policy and procedure manual procedure'.

Page 133/379 | < Previous Page | 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140  | Next Page >

• Errors when deleting SQlite row

  - by SagiLow

  When i call my func for deleting a row from my DB : public void deleteRow(int rowId) { getWritableDatabase().delete(DatabaseHelper.orderTable, "id="+rowId,null); i get a lot of error messages in the logcat : 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): Activity com.Sagi.MyOrders.FindOrder has leaked window com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView@44f50540 that was originally added here 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): android.view.WindowLeaked: Activity com.Sagi.MyOrders.FindOrder has leaked window com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView@44f50540 that was originally added here 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.view.ViewRoot.<init>(ViewRoot.java:247) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.addView(WindowManagerImpl.java:148) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.addView(WindowManagerImpl.java:91) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.view.Window$LocalWindowManager.addView(Window.java:424) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.app.Dialog.show(Dialog.java:241) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at com.Sagi.MyOrders.FindOrder.alert_editlist(FindOrder.java:56) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at com.Sagi.MyOrders.FindOrder.onItemLongClick(FindOrder.java:138) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.widget.AbsListView.performLongPress(AbsListView.java:1753) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.widget.AbsListView.access$600(AbsListView.java:72) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.widget.AbsListView$CheckForLongPress.run(AbsListView.java:1711) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.os.Handler.handleCallback(Handler.java:587) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:92) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4627) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:868) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:626) 06-02 16:32:14.356: E/WindowManager(2770): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) I looked for a cursor left open or a DB but there is nothing i could find. right after the function returns, there is : finish(); Thanks you !!!

  Read the article

• question about MySQL transaction and trigger

  - by WilliamLou

  I quickly browsed MySQL manual but didn't find the exact information about my question. Here is my question: if I have a InnoDB table A with two triggers triggered by 'AFTER INSERT ON A' and 'AFTER UPDATE ON A'. More specifically, For example: one trigger is defined as: CREATE TRIGGER test_trigger AFTER INSERT ON A FOR EACH ROW BEGIN INSERT INTO B SELECT * FROM A WHERE A.col1 = NEW.col1 END; You can ignore the query between BEGIN AND END, basically I mean this trigger will insert several rows into table B which is also a InnoDB table. Now, if I started a transaction and then insert many rows, say: 10K rows, into table A. If there is no trigger associated with table A, all these inserts are atomic, that's for sure. Now, if table A is associated with several insert/update triggers which insert/update many rows to table B and/or table C etc.. will all these inserts and/or updates are still all atomic? I think it's still atomic, but it's kind of difficult to test and I can't find any explanations in the Manual. Anyone can confirm this? Thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• Makefile - Dependency generation

  - by Profetylen

  I am trying to create a makefile that automatically compiles and links my .cpp files into an executable via .o files. What I can't get working is automated (or even manual) dependency generation. When i uncomment the below commented code, nothing is recompiled when i run make build. All i get is make: Nothing to be done for 'build'., even if x.h (or any .h file) has changed. I've been trying to learn from this question: Makefile, header dependencies, dmckee's answer, especially. Why isn't this makefile working? Clarification: I can compile everything, but when I modify any header file, the .cpp files that depend on it aren't updated. So, if I for instance compile my entire source, then I change a #define in the header file, and then run make build, and I get Nothing to be done for 'build'. (when I have uncommented either commented chunks of the below code). CC=gcc CFLAGS=-O2 -Wall LDFLAGS=-lSDL -lstdc++ SOURCES=$(wildcard *.cpp) OBJECTS=$(patsubst %.cpp, obj/%.o,$(SOURCES)) TARGET=bin/test.bin # Nothing happens when i uncomment the following. (automated attempt) #depend: .depend # #.depend: $(SOURCES) # rm -f ./.depend # $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -MM $^ >> ./.depend; # #include .depend # And nothing happens when i uncomment the following. x.cpp and x.h are files in my project. (manual attempt) #x.o: x.cpp x.h clean: rm -f $(TARGET) rm -f $(OBJECTS) run: build ./$(TARGET) debug: build nm $(TARGET) gdb $(TARGET) build: $(TARGET) $(TARGET): $(OBJECTS) @mkdir -p $(@D) $(CC) $(LDFLAGS) $(OBJECTS) -o $@ obj/%.o: %.cpp @mkdir -p $(@D) $(CC) -c $(CFLAGS) $< -o $@ include $(DEPENDENCIES)

  Read the article

• Creating PHP strings using other variables...works manually, can't figure out how automatically

  - by Matt

  Hello, I'm trying to get a variable to be formed automatically using data pulled from a mysql database. I know the data is being pulled from the database in some form resembling its original form, but that data does not act the same as data that is manually typed and assigned to a string. For example, if a cell in a mysql table says... I said "goodbye" before I left. She also said "goodbye." ...and I manually copy/paste it and add the necessary escapes... $string1 = " I said \"goodbye\" before I left. She also said \"goodbye.\" "; ...that does not equal... $string1 = $mysqlResultArray['specificCellWithQuoteShownAbove'] Interestingly, if I echo both versions of $string1 and view the output, they appear to be exactly the same. But they do not function the same when put through various functions I've created. The functions only work if I do the manual copy/paste method--which is not what I want, obviously. I'm not sure if it has to do with the line breaks or the escapes--or some combination of the two. But while both strings are superficially the same, they are apparently functionally different and I don't know why. So how can I create $string1 without manually copy/pasting the contents from the mysql entry and instead querying for the data and assigning it to $string1 in such a way that it's exactly functionally equivalent as the manual copy/pasted string?

  Read the article

• How do you handle the tension between refactoring and the need for merging?

  - by Xavier Nodet

  Hi, Our policy when delivering a new version is to create a branch in our VCS and handle it to our QA team. When the latter gives the green light, we tag and release our product. The branch is kept to receive (only) bug fixes so that we can create technical releases. Those bug fixes are subsequently merged on the trunk. During this time, the trunk sees the main development work, and is potentially subject to refactoring changes. The issue is that there is a tension between the need to have a stable trunk (so that the merge of bug fixes succeed -- it usually can't if the code has been e.g. extracted to another method, or moved to another class) and the need to refactor it when introducing new features. The policy in our place is to not do any refactoring before enough time has passed and the branch is stable enough. When this is the case, one can start doing refactoring changes on the trunk, and bug-fixes are to be manually committed on both the trunk and the branch. But this means that developpers must wait quite some time before committing on the trunk any refactoring change, because this could break the subsequent merge from the branch to the trunk. And having to manually port bugs from the branch to the trunk is painful. It seems to me that this hampers development... How do you handle this tension? Thanks.

  Read the article

• What's the best Linux backup solution?

  - by Jon Bright

  We have a four Linux boxes (all running Debian or Ubuntu) on our office network. None of these boxes are especially critical and they're all using RAID. To date, I've therefore been doing backups of the boxes by having a cron job upload tarballs containing the contents of /etc, MySQL dumps and other such changing, non-packaged data to a box at our geographically separate hosting centre. I've realised, however that the tarballs are sufficient to rebuild from, but it's certainly not a painless process to do so (I recently tried this out as part of a hardware upgrade of one of the boxes) long-term, the process isn't sustainable. Each of the boxes is currently producing a tarball of a couple of hundred MB each day, 99% of which is the same as the previous day partly due to the size issue, the backup process requires more manual intervention than I want (to find whatever 5GB file is inflating the size of the tarball and kill it) again due to the size issue, I'm leaving stuff out which it would be nice to include - the contents of users' home directories, for example. There's almost nothing of value there that isn't in source control (and these aren't our main dev boxes), but it would be nice to keep them anyway. there must be a better way So, my question is, how should I be doing this properly? The requirements are: needs to be an offsite backup (one of the main things I'm doing here is protecting against fire/whatever) should require as little manual intervention as possible (I'm lazy, and box-herding isn't my main job) should continue to scale with a couple more boxes, slightly more data, etc. preferably free/open source (cost isn't the issue, but especially for backups, openness seems like a good thing) an option to produce some kind of DVD/Blu-Ray/whatever backup from time to time wouldn't be bad My first thought was that this kind of incremental backup was what tar was created for - create a tar file once each month, add incrementally to it. rsync results to remote box. But others probably have better suggestions.

  Read the article

• emacs: How to intelligently handle buffer-modified when setting text properties?

  - by Cheeso

  The documentation on Text Properties says: Since text properties are considered part of the contents of the buffer (or string), and can affect how a buffer looks on the screen, any change in buffer text properties marks the buffer as modified. First, I don't understand that policy. Can anyone explain? The text props are not actually saved in the file, when the buffer is saved. So why mark the buffer as modified? For me, buffer-modified indicates "some changes have not yet been saved." but understanding the policy is just for my own amusement. More importantly, is there an already-established way that, in code, I can change syntax text properties on the text in a buffer, while keeping the buffer-modified flag set to whatever it was, prior to those changes? I'm thinking of something like save-excursion. It would be pretty easy to write, but this seems like a common case and I'd like to use the standard function, if possible. For more on the scenario - I have a mode that does a full text scan and sets syntax-tabe properties on the text. After opening a buffer, the scan runs, but it results in a buffer with buffer-modified set to t . As always, thanks.

  Read the article

• Disabling browser print options (headers, footers, margins) from page?

  - by Anthony

  I have seen this question asked in a couple of different ways on SO and several other websites, but most of them are either too specific or out-of-date. I'm hoping someone can provide a definitive answer here without pandering to speculation. Is there a way, either with CSS or javascript, to change the default printer settings when someone prints within their browser? And of course by "prints from their browser" I mean some form of HTML, not PDF or some other plug-in reliant mime-type. Please note: If some browsers offer this and others don't (or if you only know how to do it for some browsers) I welcome browser-specific solutions. Similarly, if you know of a mainstream browser that has specific restrictions against EVER doing this, that is also helpful, but some fairly up-to-date documentation would be appreciated. (simply saying "that goes against XYZ's security policy" isn't very convincing when XYZ has made significant changes in said policy in the last three years). Finally, when I say "change default print settings" I don't mean forever, just for my page, and I am referring specifically to print margins, headers, and footers. I am very aware that CSS offers the option of changing the page orientation as well as the page margins. One of the many struggles is with Firefox. If I set the page margins to 1 inch, it ADDS this to the half inch it already puts into place. I very much want to reduce the usage of PDFs on my client's site, but the infringement on presentation (as well as the lack of reliability) are their main concern.

  Read the article

• PHP post programmatically

  - by Tural Teyyuboglu

  After user registration, website send activation code to email. something like that. www.domain.com/?activate=<code> I'm creating 2 variants of activation: 1.manual 2.auto Lets say we have index.php. 1.Manual method. When someone wants to activate user manually all things are obvious: User opens page www.domain.com/?activate Index.php checks with following script and includes div file (which contains activation form) if (isset($_GET['activate'])) { $page='activate'; $divfile = 'path to div.php'; } include $divfile; Then page sends form data via ajax to activation.php file. 2.Auto method. Lets say user clicked directly to www.domain.com/?activate=<code>. What I wanna do is, to check if(!empty($_GET['activate'])), if all right ... I can't figure out how to act?! Programmatically send something like POST to activation.php or what? Please help. Thx in advance

  Read the article

• PHP arrays. There must be a simpler method to do this

  - by RisingSun

  I have this array in php returned from db Array ( [inv_templates] = Array ( [0] = Array ( [inven_subgroup_template_id] = 1 [inven_group] = Wires [inven_subgroup] = CopperWires [inven_template_id] = 1 [inven_template_name] = CopperWires6G [constrained] = 0 [value_constraints] = [accept_range] = 2 - 16 [information] = Measured Manual ) [1] = Array ( [inven_subgroup_template_id] = 1 [inven_group] = Wires [inven_subgroup] = CopperWires [inven_template_id] = 2 [inven_template_name] = CopperWires2G [constrained] = 0 [value_constraints] = [accept_range] = 1 - 7 [information] = Measured by Automated Calipers ) ) ) I need to output this kind of multidimensional stuff Array ( [Wires] = Array ( [inv_group_name] = Wires [inv_subgroups] = Array ( [CopperWires] = Array ( [inv_subgroup_id] = 1 [inv_subgroup_name] = CopperWires [inv_templates] = Array ( [CopperWires6G] = Array ( [inv_name] = CopperWires6G [inv_id] = 1 ) [CopperWires2G] = Array ( [inv_name] = CopperWires2G [inv_id] = 2 ) ) ) ) ) ) I currently do this stuff foreach ($data['inv_templates'] as $key = $value) { $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_group_name'] = $value['inven_group']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_subgroup_id'] = $value['inven_subgroup_template_id']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_subgroup_name'] = $value['inven_subgroup']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_templates'][$value['inven_template_name']]['inv_name'] = $value['inven_template_name']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_templates'][$value['inven_template_name']]['inv_id'] = $value['inven_template_id']; } return $processeddata; EDIT : A var_export array ( 'inv_templates' = array ( 0 = array ( 'inven_subgroup_template_id' = '1', 'inven_group' = 'Wires', 'inven_subgroup' = 'CopperWires', 'inven_template_id' = '1', 'inven_template_name' = 'CopperWires6G', 'constrained' = '0', 'value_constraints' = '', 'accept_range' = '2 - 16', 'information' = 'Measured Manual', ), 1 = array ( 'inven_subgroup_template_id' = '1', 'inven_group' = 'Wires', 'inven_subgroup' = 'CopperWires', 'inven_template_id' = '2', 'inven_template_name' = 'CopperWires6G', 'constrained' = '0', 'value_constraints' = '', 'accept_range' = '1 - 7', 'information' = 'Measured by Automated Calipers', ), ), ) The foreach is almost unreadable. There must be a simpler way

  Read the article

• do not allow integrated windows authentication *for one of the domains*

  - by MK

  We have an ASP.NET web application which uses integrated windows authentication. It is accessed by users from two domains, A and B. A is the primary domain and B is an older domain which is going away. Web application is authenticating users using a group policy which only exists in domain A. Every user in domain B has an account in domain A. The application lives in domain A. There was no trust between the domains. So users from domain A would get silently authenticated and logged into the site. Users from domain B didn't get authenticated automatically and were prompted with the IE popup, to which they authenticated using their domain A credentials and everything worked. Now somebody has set up a trust between the domains and users from domain B get authenticated silently to IIS, and then their login fails (no group policy). So the question is: can I either programmatically or in IIS configuration make it so that users from domain B still get prompted even though there is trust between the domains? Is there a way to tell the server where IIS is running to ignore the trust relationship maybe?

  Read the article

• Can I pass a non-generic type where a generic type is expected?

  - by Water Cooler v2

  I want to define a set of classes that collect and persist data. I want to call them either on-demand basis, or in a chain-of-responsibility fashion, as the caller pleases. To support the chaining, I have declared my interface like so: interface IDataManager<T, K> { T GetData(K args); void WriteData(Stream stream); void WriteData(T data, Stream stream); IDataCollectionPolicy Policy; IDataManager<T, K> NextDataManager; } But the T's and K's for each concrete types will be different. If I give it like this: IDataManager<T, K> NextDataManager; I assume that the calling code will only be able to chain types that have the same T's and K's. Is there a way I can have it chain any type of IDataManager? One thing that occurs to me is to have IDataManager inherit from a non-generic IDataManager like so: interface IDataManager { } interface IDataManager<T, K>: IDataManager { T GetData(K args); void WriteData(Stream stream); void WriteData(T data, Stream stream); IDataCollectionPolicy Policy; IDataManager NextDataManager; } Is this going to work?

  Read the article

• Safe json parsing with jquery?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I am using jquery with json. My client pages generate json, which I store on my server. The clients can then fetch the json back out later, parse, and show it. Since my clients are generating the json, it may not be safe. I think jquery uses eval() internally. Is that true? Is there a way to use the native json parsers from the browsers where available, otherwise fall back to manual parsing if not? I'm new to jquery so I don't know where I'd insert my own parsing code. I'm doing something like: $.ajax({ url: 'myservlet', type: 'GET', dataType: 'json', timeout: 1000, error: function(){ alert('Error loading JSON'); }, success: function(json){ alert("It worked!: " + json.name + ", " + json.grade); } }); so in the success() method, the json object is already parsed for me. Is there a way to catch it as a raw string first? Then I can decide whether to use the native parsers or manual parsing (hoping there's a jquery plugin for that..). The articles I'm reading are all from different years, so I don't know if jquery has already abandoned eval() already for json, Thank you

  Read the article

• retrieving variables with jquery ajax

  - by vick

  <div class="lead_detail_box_routing"> <div class="lead_detail_box_left">location 1</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_right">Route</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_left">location 2</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_right">Route</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_left">location 3</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_right">Route</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_left">location 4</div> <div class="lead_detail_box_right">Route</div> <div id="results" style="text-align:center;"></div> </div> <!-- end lead_detail and routing--> e.g. when user clicks on "route" I want my jquery-manual-routing.php to get the "3" .. so far I have: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a#route").click(function() { $("#results").load( "jquery-manual-routing.php", { route_to: ???? } ); return false; }); }); </script> so in my php script, when the user clicks on route next to location 3 I want to be able to grab $_GET['route_to'] =3; Also note that my table already has the class assigned since I am using css to style it The answer will be pure php echo

  Read the article

• Update all but one result?

  - by Jack M.

  I'm trying to update a table to remove all but the first instance of a group. Basically, I have a table with vehicle data related to an insurance policy. Each policy should only have one power_unit. Everything else should be a towed unit. Unfortunately, a bug has been duplicating power units, and now I need to clean this up. There are ~10k records in the database, and ~4k of them have doubled up power units. The important bits of my table (call it test1 for now) are: +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(10) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | policy_id | int(10) | NO | | NULL | | | power_unit | int(1) | NO | | 0 | | +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ And some sample data: +----+-----------+------------+ | id | policy_id | power_unit | +----+-----------+------------+ | 1 | 1 | 1 | | 2 | 1 | 1 | | 3 | 1 | 1 | | 4 | 2 | 1 | | 5 | 2 | 1 | | 6 | 2 | 1 | | 7 | 4 | 1 | | 8 | 4 | 1 | | 9 | 4 | 1 | | 10 | 5 | 1 | | 11 | 5 | 1 | | 12 | 6 | 1 | +----+-----------+------------+ Basically I'd like to end up where policy_id 1 has only one power_unit=1. Same for policy_id 2, 3, 4, etc. For policy_id 6, nothing should change (there is only one entry, and it is a power_unit already). I don't know if this is possible, but it was an intriguing problem for me, so I thought you guys might find it the same.

  Read the article

• linux process scheduling delayed for long time

  - by Medicine

  I have done strace on my multi-threaded c++ application running on linux after couple hours of running, none of the threads got run, for about 12 seconds. I have seen that the unfinished select system call which is called with a timeout was unfinished before the thread was suspended, reported after it resumed that, it took 11.x seconds for the operation to finish. This is clear indication that the process got starved for a long time. All threads in the process are created with default scheduling policy(SCHED_OTHER) of linux and default priority. There are another 5 similar apps running on the same box which are also heavy I/O bound like this app due to heavy data received on the socket. But most of the time, this app is getting scheduled delay. The other apps are created with same sched policy and priority as this i.e. the defaults. why is only this process gets blocked almost all of the time? Could it be because this process is more I/O intensive as in more busy due to may be higher rates of data? So, the linux dynamic priority adjusting in play here which pushed this process down?

  Read the article

• PrgressDialog when load a WebView crash issue

  - by AndreaF

  I have an Activity with a WeView that load an url, and I want to display a little waiting dialog during the load of the site, so I have tried this: private ProgressDialog dialog = new ProgressDialog(MyNameActivity.this); @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); StrictMode.ThreadPolicy policy = new StrictMode.ThreadPolicy.Builder() .permitAll().build(); StrictMode.setThreadPolicy(policy); setContentView(R.layout.web_view_activity); WebView wv; wv = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.areaWebSolver); wv.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient() { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } @Override public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { if (dialog.isShowing()) { dialog.dismiss(); } } }); dialog.setMessage("Loading..Please wait."); dialog.setCanceledOnTouchOutside(false); dialog.show(); wv.loadUrl(url); WebSettings webSettings = wv.getSettings(); webSettings.setJavaScriptEnabled(true); } Unfortunately doesn't works and the app crashes with a source not found... If I try to remove the Progress dialog code the activity works. What's wrong? How could I fix this?

  Read the article

• How do I grant a database role execute permissions on a schema? What am I doing wrong?

  - by Lewray

  I am using SQL Server 2008 Express edition. I have created a Login , User, Role and Schema. I have mapped the user to the login, and assigned the role to the user. The schema contains a number of tables and stored procedures. I would like the Role to have execute permissions on the entire schema. I have tried granting execute permission through management studio and through entering the command in a query window. GRANT EXEC ON SCHEMA::schema_name TO role_name But When I connect to the database using SQL management studio (as the login I have created) firstly I cannot see the stored procedures, but more importantly I get a permission denied error when attempting to run them. The stored procedure in question does nothing except select data from a table within the same schema. I have tried creating the stored procedure with and without the line: WITH EXECUTE AS OWNER This doesn't make any difference. I suspect that I have made an error when creating my schema, or there is an ownership issue somewhere, but I am really struggling to get something working. The only way I have successfully managed to execute the stored procedures is by granting control permissions to the role as well as execute, but I don't believe this is the correct, secure way to proceed. Any suggestions/comments would be really appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Red Hat 5.3 on HP Proliant DL380 G5 and failed drive on RAID controller

  - by thinkdreams

  I have a development ERP server here in my office that I assist with support on, and originally the DBA requested a single drive setup for some of the drives on the server. Thus the hardware RAID controller (an HP embedded controller) looks like: c0d0 (2 drive) RAID-1 c0d1 (2 drive) RAID-1 c0d2 (1 drive) No RAID <-- Failed c0d3 (1 drive) No RAID c0d4 (1 drive) No RAID c0d5 (1 drive) No RAID c0d2 has failed. I replaced the drive immediately with a spare using the hot-swap, but the c0d2 continues to mark itself as failed, even when I umount the partition. I'm loathe to reboot the server since I'm concerned about the server coming back up in rescue mode but I'm afraid that's the only way to get the system to re-read the drive. I assumed there was some sort of auto-detection routine for this, but I haven't been able to figure out the proper procedure. I have installed the HP ACU CLI utilties, so I can see the hardware RAID setup. I'd really like to find out what the proper procedure should have been, where I went wrong, and how to correct it now. Obviously this goes without saying I should NOT have listened to the DBA and set the drives up as RAID-1 throughout as was my first instinct. He wasn't worried about data loss, but it sure would have been easier to replace the failed drive. :)

  Read the article

• How to disable mod_security2 rule (false positive) for one domain on centos 5

  - by nicholas.alipaz

  Hi I have mod_security enabled on a centos5 server and one of the rules is keeping a user from posting some text on a form. The text is legitimate but it has the words 'create' and an html <table> tag later in it so it is causing a false positive. The error I am receiving is below: [Sun Apr 25 20:36:53 2010] [error] [client 76.171.171.xxx] ModSecurity: Access denied with code 500 (phase 2). Pattern match "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" at ARGS:body. [file "/usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf"] [line "352"] [id "300015"] [rev "1"] [msg "Generic SQL injection protection"] [severity "CRITICAL"] [hostname "www.mysite.com"] [uri "/node/181/edit"] [unique_id "@TaVDEWnlusAABQv9@oAAAAD"] and here is /usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf (line 352) #Generic SQL sigs SecRule ARGS "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" "id:1,rev:1,severity:2,msg:'Generic SQL injection protection'" The questions I have are: What should I do to "whitelist" or allow this rule to get through? What file do I create and where? How should I alter this rule? Can I set it to only be allowed for the one domain, since it is the only one having the issue on this dedicated server or is there a better way to exclude table tags perhaps? Thanks guys

  Read the article

• Cannot install git-core using macports

  - by robUK

  Hello, Snow Leopard 10.6.4 mac ports 1.9.1 I have just installed macports and I want to install git-core. However, I get the following errors: ---> Computing dependencies for git-core ---> Dependencies to be installed: python26 db46 gdbm readline sqlite3 rsync popt ---> Building db46 Error: Target org.macports.build returned: shell command failed Log for db46 is at: /opt/local/var/macports/logs/_opt_local_var_macports_sources_rsync.macports.org_release_ports_databases_db46/main.log Error: The following dependencies failed to build: python26 db46 gdbm readline sqlite3 rsync popt Error: Status 1 encountered during processing. To report a bug, see <http://guide.macports.org/#project.tickets> I have tried doing a port selfupdate and a port clean all and then trying to install again. But still get the same problem. I have also tried install the dependent db46 on its own. Here is the log message: :error:build Target org.macports.build returned: shell command failed :debug:build Backtrace: shell command failed while executing "command_exec build" (procedure "portbuild::build_main" line 8) invoked from within "$procedure $targetname" :info:build Warning: the following items did not execute (for db46): org.macports.activate org.macports.build org.macports.destroot org.macports.install This is my first time using mac ports. Many thanks for any suggestions.

  Read the article

• Is execution of sync(8) still required before shutting down linux?

  - by Amos Shapira

  I still see people recommend use of "sync; sync; sync; sleep 30; halt" incantations when talking about shutting down or rebooting Linux. I've been running Linux since its inception and although this was the recommended procedure in the BSD 4.2/4.3 and SunOS 4 days, I can't recall that I had to do that for at least the last ten years, during which I probably went through shutdown/reboot of Linux maybe thousands of times. I suspect that this is an anachronism since the days that the kernel couldn't unmount and sync the root filesystem and other critical filesystems required even during single-user mode (e.g. /tmp), and therefore it was necessary to tell it explicitly to flush as much data as it can to disk. These days, without finding the relevant code in the kernel source yet (digging through http://lxr.linux.no and google), I suspect that the kernel is smart enough to cleanly unmount even the root filesystem and the filesystem is smart enough to effectively do a sync(2) before unmounting itself during a normal "shutdown"/"reboot"/"poweorff". The "sync; sync; sync" is only necessary in extreme cases where the filesystem won't unmount cleanly (e.g. physical disk failure) or the system is in a state that only forcing a direct reboot(8) will get it out of its freeze (e.g. the load is too high to let it schedule the shutdown command). I also never do the "sync" procedure before unmounting removable devices, and never hit a problem. Another example - Xen allows the DomU to be sent a "shutdown" command from the Dom0, this is considered a "clean shutdown" without anyone having to login and type the magical "sync; sync; sync" first. Am I right or was I lucky for a few thousands of system shutdowns?

  Read the article

• What is the best way to recover from a mysql replication fail?

  - by Itai Ganot

  Today, the replication between our master mysql db server and the two replication servers dropped. I have a procedure here which was written a long time ago and i'm not sure it's the fastest method to recover for this issue. I'd like to share with you the procedure and I'd appreciate if you could give your thoughts about it and maybe even tell me how it can be done quicker. At the master: RESET MASTER; FLUSH TABLES WITH READ LOCK; SHOW MASTER STATUS; And copy the values of the result of the last command somewhere. Wihtout closing the connection to the client (because it would release the read lock) issue the command to get a dump of the master: mysqldump mysq Now you can release the lock, even if the dump hasn't end. To do it perform the following command in the mysql client: UNLOCK TABLES; Now copy the dump file to the slave using scp or your preferred tool. At the slave: Open a connection to mysql and type: STOP SLAVE; Load master's data dump with this console command: mysql -uroot -p < mysqldump.sql Sync slave and master logs: RESET SLAVE; CHANGE MASTER TO MASTER_LOG_FILE='mysql-bin.000001', MASTER_LOG_POS=98; Where the values of the above fields are the ones you copied before. Finally type START SLAVE; And to check that everything is working again, if you type SHOW SLAVE STATUS; you should see: Slave_IO_Running: Yes Slave_SQL_Running: Yes That's it! At the moment i'm in the stage of copying the db from the master to the other two replication servers and it takes more than 6 hours to that point, isn't it too slow? The servers are connected through a 1gb switch.

  Read the article

• server 2008 r2 stuck on installing updates

  - by volody

  I have 2008 r2 64bit server that is stuck on installing updates. It shows message "Please do not power off or unplug your machine. Installing 57 of 61.." This message is shown for 3 hours now. I was trying to connect to this server using mmc. runas /user:AdministratorAccountName@ComputerName "mmc %windir%\system32\compmgmt.msc" RUNAS ERROR: Unable to run - mmc C:\Windows\system32\compmgmt.msc 1311: There are currently no logon servers available to service the logon request. What else can I do? Update: Remote Desktop does not work. It just disappear after entering username and password from Win7-64 computer Update: I have disconected server. Now Server Manager in Roles Summary shows message "Unexpected error refreshing Server Manager: The remote procedure call failed." Event log shows Could not discover the state of the system. An unexpected exception was found: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800706BE) at System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ThrowExceptionForHRInternal(Int32 errorCode, IntPtr errorInfo) at Microsoft.Windows.ServerManager.ComponentInstaller.ThrowHResult(Int32 hr) at Microsoft.Windows.ServerManager.ComponentInstaller.CreateSessionAndPackage(IntPtr& session, IntPtr& package) at Microsoft.Windows.ServerManager.ComponentInstaller.InitializeUpdateInfo() at Microsoft.Windows.ServerManager.ComponentInstaller.Initialize() at Microsoft.Windows.ServerManager.Common.Provider.RefreshDiscovery() at Microsoft.Windows.ServerManager.LocalResult.PerformDiscovery() at Microsoft.Windows.ServerManager.ServerManagerModel.CreateLocalResult(RefreshType refreshType) at Microsoft.Windows.ServerManager.ServerManagerModel.InternalRefreshModelResult(Object state) Update: Manual update hangs on (Installing update 58 of 62...) Seurity Update for Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 Edition (KB979309) Update: It could be an issue with that admin user was renamed

  Read the article

• Is it possible to record a screen-video from a VNC server?

  - by nikie

  I have a computer that's running VNC server. I would like to record a video of what's going on on this computer, if possible without installing additional software on that computer. Is there a program that can connect to the VNC server port and instead of displaying the screen save it to an (e.g. AVI) video file? Background: One of our customers sometimes has problems with the software he bought from us when he's performing a complex procedure. To help him, we offered that someone (a service technician or programmer) watches what he's doing during that procedure to find out if he's doing something wrong or if there's a bug in the software. Currently, this is done live via VNC. That has a few disadvantages: The service technician has to be in the office at the time. As the customers are in different time zones, that can be in the middle of the night. If the service technician forgets something or doesn't notice something, it's lost. There's no way to see what happened again. Only a single computer can be watched by one service technician at a time. I know I could install normal screen-grab software on the computer, but we're talking about an embedded system with limited RAM, CPU, HDD space, so installing something new is not an easy decision. And VNC is already there. I could of course open a VNC client on some office PC and capture that PC's screen, but I can only record one remote computer that way. I often have to watch up to 8 screens in parallel. (And I don't think that screen-grabbing VNC would improve image quality, either.)

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140  | Next Page >