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• Understanding many to many relationships and Entity Framework

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying to understand the Entity Framework, and I have a table "Users" and a table "Pages". These are related in a many-to-many relationship with a junction table "UserPages". First of all I'd like to know if I'm designing this relationship correctly using many-to-many: One user can visit multiple pages, and each page can be visited by multiple users..., so am I right in using many2many? Secondly, and more importantly, as I have understood m2m relationships, the User and Page tables should not repeat information. I.e. there should be only one record for each user and each page. But then in the entity framework, how am I able to add new visits to the same page for the same user? That is, I was thinking I could simply use the Count() method on the IEnumerable returned by a LINQ query to get the number of times a user has visited a certain page. But I see no way of doing that. In Linq to Sql I could access the junction table and add records there to reflect added visits to a certain page by a certain user, as many times as necessary. But in the EF I can't access the junction table. I can only go from User to a Pages collection and vice versa. I'm sure I'm misunderstanding relationships or something, but I just can't figure out how to model this. I could always have a Count column in the Page table, but as far as I have understood you're not supposed to design database tables like that, those values should be collected by queries... Please help me understand what I'm doing wrong...

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• Problems finding classes in namespace and testing extend expected parent

  - by Matt

  So I am in the process of building a site in ASP.Net MVC, and in the process I am adding certain things to my Site.Master I want to make sure that all of my model classes extend a certain base class that contains all of the pieces the Site.Master needs to be operable. I want to test to make sure this assumption isn't broken (I believe this will save me time when I forget about it and can't figure out why a new combination isn't working.) I wrote a test that I thought would help with this, but I am running into two problems. First it isn't finding the one example model class I have so far in the LINQ call all of a sudden, I am admittedly still a bit new to LINQ. Second, I had it finding the class earlier, but I couldn't get it to verify that the class inherits from the base class. Here is the example test. [Test] public void AllModelClassesExtendAbstractViewModel() { var abstractViewModelType = typeof (AbstractViewModel); Assembly baseAssembly = Assembly.GetAssembly(abstractViewModelType); var modelTypes = baseAssembly.GetTypes() .Where(assemblyType => (assemblyType.Namespace.EndsWith("Models") && assemblyType.Name != "AbstractViewModel")) .Select(assemblyType => assemblyType); foreach (var modelType in modelTypes) { Assert.That(modelType.IsSubclassOf(abstractViewModelType), Is.True , modelType.Name + " does not extend AbstractViewModel"); } }

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• How can you pre-define a variable that will contain an anonymous type?

  - by HitLikeAHammer

  In the simplified example below I want to define result before it is assinged. The linq queries below return lists of anonymous types. result will come out of the linq queries as an IEnumerable<'a but I can't define it that way at the top of the method. Is what I am trying to do possible (in .NET 4)? bool large = true; var result = new IEnumerable(); //This is wrong List<int> numbers = new int[]{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}.ToList<int>(); if (large) { result = from n in numbers where n > 5 select new { value = n }; } else { result = from n in numbers where n < 5 select new { value = n }; } foreach (var num in result) { Console.WriteLine(num.value); } EDIT: To be clear I know that I do not need anonymous types in the example above. It is just to illustrate my question with a small, simple example.

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• Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

  - by Adrian Grigore

  Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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• How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

  - by KevinDeus

  I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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• Where do objects merge/join data in a 3-tier model?

  - by BerggreenDK

  Its probarbly a simple 3-tier problem. I just want to make sure we use the best practice for this and I am not that familiary with the structures yet. We have the 3 tiers: GUI: ASP.NET for Presentation-layer (first platform) BAL: Business-layer will be handling the logic on a webserver in C#, so we both can use it for webforms/MVC + webservices DAL: LINQ to SQL in the Data-layer, returning BusinessObjects not LINQ. DB: The SQL will be Microsoft SQL-server/Express (havent decided yet). Lets think of setup where we have a database of [Persons]. They can all have multiple [Address]es and we have a complete list of all [PostalCode] and corresponding citynames etc. The deal is that we have joined a lot of details from other tables. {Relations}/[tables] [Person]:1 --- N:{PersonAddress}:M --- 1:[Address] [Address]:N --- 1:[PostalCode] Now we want to build the DAL for Person. How should the PersonBO look and when does the joins occure? Is it a business-layer problem to fetch all citynames and possible addressses pr. Person? or should the DAL complete all this before returning the PersonBO to the BAL ? Class PersonBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public List<AddressBO> {get;set;} // Question #1 } // Q1: do we retrieve the objects before returning the PersonBO and should it be an Array instead? or is this totally wrong for n-tier/3-tier?? Class AddressBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string StreetName {get;set;} public int PostalCode {get;set;} // Question #2 } // Q2: do we make the lookup or just leave the PostalCode for later lookup? Can anyone explain in what order to pull which objects? Constructive criticism is very welcome. :o)

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• odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

  - by giddy

  This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

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• Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

  - by johncatfish

  Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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• Problem with inheritance and List<>

  - by Jagd

  I have an abstract class called Grouping. I have a subclass called GroupingNNA. public class GroupingNNA : Grouping { // blah blah blah } I have a List that contains items of type GroupingNNA, but is actually declared to contain items of type Grouping. List<Grouping> lstGroupings = new List<Grouping>(); lstGroupings.Add( new GroupingNNA { fName = "Joe" }); lstGroupings.Add( new GroupingNNA { fName = "Jane" }); The Problem: The following LINQ query blows up on me because of the fact that lstGroupings is declared as List< Grouping and fName is a property of GroupingNNA, not Grouping. var results = from g in lstGroupings where r.fName == "Jane" select r; Oh, and this is a compiler error, not a runtime error. Thanks in advance for any help on this one! More Info: Here is the actual method that won't compile. The OfType() fixed the LINQ query, but the compiler doesn't like the fact that I'm trying to return the anonymous type as a List< Grouping. private List<Grouping> ApplyFilterSens(List<Grouping> lstGroupings, string fSens) { // This works now! Thanks @Lasse var filtered = from r in lstGroupings.OfType<GroupingNNA>() where r.QASensitivity == fSens select r; if (filtered != null) { **// Compiler doesn't like this now** return filtered.ToList<Grouping>(); } else return new List<Grouping>(); }

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• Query total page count via SNMP HP Laserjet

  - by Tim

  I was asked to get hold of the total pages counts for the 100+ printers we have at work. All of them are HP Laser or Business Jets of some description and the vast majority are connected via some form of HP JetDirect network card/switch. After many hours of typing in IP addresses and copying and pasting the relevant figure in to Excel I have now been asked to do this on a weekly basis. This led me to think there must be an easier way, as an IT professional I can surely work out some time saving method to solve this issue. Suffice it to say I do not feel very professional now after a day or so of trying to make SNMP work for me! From what I understand the first thing is to enable SNMP on the printer. Done. Next I would need something to query the SNMP bit. I decided to go open source and free and someone here recommended net-snmp as a decent tool (I would like to have just added the printers as nodes in SolarWinds but we are somewhat tight on licences apparently). Next I need the name of the MIB. For this I believe the HP-LASERJET-COMMON-MIB has the correct information in it. Downloaded this and added to net-snmp. Now I need the OID which I believe after much scouring is printed-media-simplex-count (we have no duplex printers, that we are interested in at least). Running the following command yields the following demoralising output: snmpget -v 2c -c public 10.168.5.1 HP-LASERJET-COMMON-MIB:.1.3.6.1.2.1.1.16.1.1.1 (the OID was derived from running: snmptranslate -IR -On printed-media-simplex-count Unlinked OID in HP-LASERJET-COMMON-MIB: hp ::= { enterprises 11 } Undefined identifier: enterprises near line 3 of C:/usr/share/snmp/mibs/HP-LASER JET-COMMON-MIB..txt .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.16.1.1.1 ) Unlinked OID in HP-LASERJET-COMMON-MIB: hp ::= { enterprises 11 } Undefined identifier: enterprises near line 3 of C:/usr/share/snmp/mibs/HP-LASER JET-COMMON-MIB..txt HP-LASERJET-COMMON-MIB:.1.3.6.1.2.1.1.16.1.1.1: Am I barking up the wrong tree completely with this? My aim was to script it all to output to a file for all the IP addresses of the printers and then plonk that in Excel for my lords and masters to digest at their leisure. I have a feeling I am using either the wrong MIB or the wrong OID from said MIB (or both). Does anyone have any pointers on this for me? Or should I give up and go back to navigationg each printers web page individually (hoping not).

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• Sending text messages from Raspberry Pi via email fails

  - by vgm64

  I'm using mailx on my raspberry pi to try to send text messages updates for event monitoring. My phone number: 9876543210 My phone's email-to-text gateway address: [email protected] I can 1) Send emails from my raspberry pi to various email addresses. mail -r [email protected] -s "My Subject" [email protected] < body.txt and off it goes and is successfully delivered. 2) Send emails from various email address (not on RPi) using mailx to the above phone-email address and have them delivered as text messages. However, when sending emails to [email protected] from the Raspberry Pi using mailx the emails seem to spiral into the void and are never heard of again (no errors, no undeliverable messages, nothing). Does anyone know what could be causing this to go awry? Something about the basic deployment of the mail server on the pi? EDIT Based on @kobaltz's suggestion, I used sendmail instead. This led to a hang, then an error that stated that I lacked a fully qualified domain name (FQDN). I then used this website's instructions to add a domain name to the RPi. To paraphrase: I have set the FQDN in /etc/hostname: my-host-name.my-domain.com and /etc/hosts: 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost 192.168.0.5 my-host-name.my-domain.com my-host-name Then add to /etc/mail/sendmail.cf: MASQUERADE_AS(`my-domain.com') MASQUERADE_DOMAIN(`my-host-name.my-domain.com') FEATURE(`masquerade_entire_domain') FEATURE(`masquerade_envelope') I put this in /etc/mail/sendmail.cf, BEFORE the MAILER() lines, ran sendmailconfig, answered Yes to the questions about using the existing files, and restarted sendmail. Emails now have the proper domain name. Progress, however, I am now stuck at the following error: 354 Enter mail, end with "." on a line by itself >>> . 050 <[email protected]>... Connecting to mxx.cingularme.com. via esmtp... 050 421 Service not available 050 >>> QUIT 050 <[email protected]>... Deferred: 421 Service not available 250 2.0.0 q9U3ZESt021150 Message accepted for delivery [email protected]... Sent (q9U3ZESt021150 Message accepted for delivery) Closing connection to [127.0.0.1] >>> QUIT

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• uploading via http post (multipart/form-data) silently fails with big files

  - by matteo

  When uploading multipart/form-data forms via a http post request to my apache web server, very big files (i.e. 30MB) are silently discarded. On the server side all looks as if the attached file was received with 0 bytes size. On the client side all looks like it had been uploaded succesfully (it takes the expected long time to upload and the browser gives no error message). On the server, nothing is logged into the error log. An entry is logged into the access log as if everything was ok (a post request and a 200 ok response). These uploads are being posted to a php script. In the php script, If I print_r $_FILES, I see the following information for the relevant file: [file5] => Array ( [name] => MOV023.3gp [type] => video/3gpp [tmp_name] => /tmp/phpgOdvYQ [error] => 0 [size] => 0 ) Note both [error] = 0 (which should mean no error) and [size] = 0 (as if the file was empty). My php script runs fine and receives all the rest of the data except these files. move_uploaded_file succeeds on these files and actually copies them as 0byte files. I've already changed the php directives max_upload_size to 50M and post_max_size to 200M, so neither the single file nor the request exceed any size limit. max_execution_time is not relevant, because the time to transfer the data does not count; and I've increased max_input_time to 1000 seconds, though this shouldn't be necessary since this is the time taken to parse the input data, not the time taken to upload it. Is there any apache configuration, prior to php, that could be causing these files to be discarded even prior to php execution? Some limit in size or in upload time? I've read about a default 300 seconds timeout limit, but this should apply to the time the connection is idle, not the time it takes while actually transferring data, right? Needless to say, uploads with all exactly identical conditions (including file format, client and everything) except smaller file size, work seamlessly, so the issue is clearly related to the file or request size, or to the time it takes to send it.

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• Problem with authentication of users via IE when using "host header value"

  - by Richard

  Hi, I'm trying to set multiple web sites up in an IIS 6. I've got a working virtual site residing under the default web site, but if I create a new web site in the IIS and asign it a host header value, let it point to the very same file structure as in the prevoiusly mentioned site and finally asign windows integrated security only to the site - I still cannot log in to the new site using MSIE 6 or 8 but FF 3.5 works fine. In the web log I get these entries if I access the localhost site 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1 127.0.0.1 GET /client/ - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 2 2148074254 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1 127.0.0.1 GET /client/ - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 0 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1 127.0.0.1 GET /client/Default.asp - 80 xxx\Administrator 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 200 0 0 If I however access via the host headre value site I get prompted to login but the login fail and I also get an error "401 1 2148074252" which not present when it succeeds. Can this be the issue? Pre login screen 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 2 2148074254 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 2148074252 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 0 post login screen (note that win credentials have not been submitted) 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 0 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 2148074252 Firefox will try to access using anonymous access and will prompt for login, after submitting win credentials it all works fine. For what reasoon is the IE so stubornly refusing to submit credentials to the "host header value" site? The site is in the Local intranet Zone and login is ticked for that zone. No teaming NIC's no FW, no nothing, I'm cluless :( /Richard

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• WinXP - Having trouble sharing internet with 3G USB modem via ICS

  - by Carlos Nunez

  all! I've been banging my head against a wall with this issue for a few days now and am hoping someone can help out. I recently signed up for T-Mobile's webConnect 3G/4G service to replace the faltering (and slow) DSL connection in my apartment. The goal was to put the SIM in one of my old phones and use its built-in WLAN tethering feature to share Internet out to rest of my computers. I quickly found out that webConnect-provisioned SIMs do not work with regular smartphones, so I was forced to either buy a 4G-compatible router or tether one of my old laptops to my wireless router and share out that way. I chose the latter, and it's sharpening my inner masochistic self by the day. Here's the setup: GSM USB modem (via hub), ICS host - 10/100 Mbps Ethernet NIC, ICS "guest" - WAN port of my SMC WGBR14N wireless router in bridged mode (i.e. wireless access point). Ideally, this would make my laptop the DHCP server and internet gateway with the WAP giving everyone wireless coverage. I can browse internet on the host laptop fine. However, when clients try to connect, they get a DHCP-assigned IP from the laptop and are able to use the Internet for a few minutes before completely dying. After that happens, they are able to re-associate with the WAP and get IP addresses, but are unable to use Internet or resolve IP addresses until the laptop and router are restarted. If they do get access, it's very, very slow. After running Wireshark on the host machine, it turns out that this is because every TCP connection keeps getting RST. DNS seems to work. I would normally think the firewall is the culprit here, but when it drops packets, it drops them completely. The fact that TCP connections are being ACK'ed by the destination rules that out. Of course, none of the event Log isn't saying anything about what's going on. I also tried disabling power management on the NIC, since that's caused problems in the past; that didn't help either. I finally disabled receive-side scaling as per a Microsoft KB (that applied to Windows Server 2003, SP2) to no avail. I'm thinking of trying it with a different NIC (will be tough; don't have a spare Ethernet NIC around for the laptop), but I'm getting the impression that this simply doesn't work. Can anyone please advise? I apologise for the length of this post; all contributions are much appreciated! -Carlos.

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• Accessing guests on virtual network when connected to host via PPTP

  - by Viktor Elofsson

  I'm setting up a development machine which runs Ubuntu 12.04 and KVM for virtualization. I have a guest running Ubuntu 12.04 which can be accessed from the host via its IP address which is assigned by libvirt. The guest can also access the internet, no problem there. However, now I want to setup PPTP so I can connect to the host (from my workstation running Windows 7) and directly access guests without relying on SSH port forwarding. I can connect from my W7-machine to the host (PPTP), but I cannot access any virtual machines (which are accessable from the host directly). Relevant configuration files cat /etc/network/interfaces auto lo iface lo inet loopback # device: eth0 auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address x.x.x.x broadcast x.x.x.x netmask x.x.x.x gateway x.x.x.x # default route to access subnet up route add -net x.x.x.x netmask x.x.x.x gw x.x.x.x eth0 virsh net-edit default <network> <name>default</name> <uuid>xxxxxxxx-72ce-3c20-af0f-d3a010f1bef0</uuid> <forward mode='nat'/> <bridge name='virbr0' stp='on' delay='0' /> <mac address='52:54:00:xx:xx:xx'/> <ip address='192.168.122.1' netmask='255.255.255.0'> <dhcp> <range start='192.168.122.2' end='192.168.122.254' /> <host mac='52:54:00:yy:yy:yy' name='web1' ip='192.168.122.11' /> </dhcp> </ip> </network> cat /etc/pptpd.conf (commented lines removed) # TAG: option # Specifies the location of the PPP options file. # By default PPP looks in '/etc/ppp/options' # option /etc/ppp/pptpd-options # TAG: logwtmp # Use wtmp(5) to record client connections and disconnections. # logwtmp #(Recommended) localip 192.168.122.1 remoteip 192.168.122.234-238,192.168.122.245 cat /etc/ppp/chap-secrets* # Secrets for authentication using CHAP # client server secret IP addresses xxxxx * yyyyyyyyyy 192.168.122.100 I get the correct IP address when connecting my W7-machine, but when I try to ping the virtual machine at 192.168.122.11 I get Reply from 192.168.122.1: Destination port unreachable. It's probably something trivial I'm missing but I can't for the life of me figure out what it is. So I'm turning to you, serverfault.

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• Routing RFC1918 addresses through dd-wrt via a switch

  - by espenfjo

  I am a bit stuck with an experiment of mine. I have a network looking somewhat like this. | Internet | | ---- |Switch| ---- | | Server w/pub IP | DD-WRT router 192.168.1.1 | | RFC1918 clients 192.168.1.0/24 What I want is for the RFC1918 clients to speak directly with each others. On the server with the public IP I have this route: 192.168.1.0/24 dev eth0 scope link and can see that packets are infact reaching the dd-wrt router for 192.168.1.1, even though if I get no answer. Trying to reach one of the RFC1918 clients from the public IP server will get no result, as the dd-wrt router is not announcing that network on to its external interface (arp who-has 192.168.1.107 tell xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, but no answer). The router being an WLAN dd-wrt router has of course a load of routes, VLANs and interfaces: xxx.xxx.xxx.1 dev vlan2 scope link 192.168.1.0/24 dev br0 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.0/24 dev eth1 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.1.244 84.215.64.0/18 dev vlan2 proto kernel scope link src xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx 169.254.0.0/16 dev br0 proto kernel scope link src 169.254.255.1 127.0.0.0/8 dev lo scope link 0.0.0.0 via xxx.xxx.xxx.1 dev vlan2 xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx being the public IP, and xxx.xxx.xxx.1 being the default route for the public IP. I am not sure where to continue with this. I would recon that I both need routing on the dd-wrt router, as well as some iptables magic? Why do something this complex? Why not ;) Also, do not mind that "Internet" can get RFC1918 traffic, it wont go outside of the walls. EDIT 1: Following the tip from stew I do indeed get the correct ARP flowing. And adding an iptables rule for allowing traffic from that specific public IPd machine I get traffic between the systems! Oddly enough though, the speed I get from Server w/pub IP - RFC1918 clients are the same as if the traffic were routed out onto the Internet and back. Edit 2: Ok, disconnecting the external Internet connection will still give the same, crappy transfer speed. So it has to be something else. Edit 3: Ok, I guess there are other reasons for this crappy speed. Case closed. :)

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• Deploying website content via Subversion

  - by Johann

  we have recently set up a new development infrastructure and process for one of our clients. This involves the strict use of subversion as a central source code repository. The svn repositories contains a seperate branch for code on the live system (/branches/live/). The repositories are use for PHP content (mainly Wordpress Blogs), but in future they may hold other asp code as well. Bonus points for a solutions which more or less in the same way with ASP code on Windows Server 2008 R2. We have two servers: one staging system and one live system. The staging system is updated regularly with the code of the trunk. The live system is update manually. Each webroot on the servers are working copy of either the trunk (staging system) or the live branch (live system). The current workflow is: Developing on the dev's box - commit into the trunk - auto-deploy on staging system - testing on the staging system - merging into /branches/live/ - manual deployment on live system. This works for one-way changes very well, however we have some troubles on every wordpress (or plugin) update: The WP update process removes the directories and unpack the archive of the new version. This removes the svn admin area as well, which produces a lot of errors. We could switch to SVN 1.7 with a single, global admin area, but this would only solve on part of the problem. Finally, we have done the update via the WP Gui, restored the svn admin area, added/removed the files and committed the changes to the trunk. After testing, we had to do basically the same thing on the live server (except the commit, we just reverted the changes and merged the new files from the staging system to the live system). I'm currently thinking of the following: The htdocs of each website is a svn export Each website has a svn working copy beside the htdocs directory a script which "replays" the changes in the wc from htdocs after an update in WP (rsync'ing the changed files to the working copy, rsync'ing new files and svn add them and finally svn delete the deleted files). The script would have to exclude some files (like wp-config.php, uploads/temp directories, etc.). Are there better ways to do this? Unfortunaly, a complete CI server is out of scope due to time and budget limitations.

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• Loss of wireless network connectivity when playing video via HDMI cable

  - by Jeff Fohl

  Hi Folks - New to Super User, so I hope this question fits in with the guidelines. Very strange problem I am having, and I am at a loss as to how to continue troubleshooting this one. The basic problem is that when I attempt to watch streamed video on a particular display device (an Optoma HD180 projector), my network connectivity drops like a stone to barely measurable levels. This is my setup: I have a Dell H2C 730x running Windows 7 64bit. This particular computer has two ATI Radeon HD 4800 video cards. I have two Samsung 22" monitors connected to one card, and an Optoma HD180 digital projector connected to the other card via an HDMI cable. My internet connection is normally a reliable 6Mbps. The problem I am having occurs when I stream video (or even just browse the web) on the Optoma Projector. When I do this, my internet connection drops to practically zero (just a few kilobits per second). When I move the browser away from the projector, and over to one of my Samsung monitors, the internet connection comes right back. Note that the Optoma projector is on and enabled as a third monitor all this time. I can move the mouse around on the projector without triggering the problem. I tried pinging my router when I was playing a movie on one of the monitors, and I get a 1 millisecond response. However, when I have the movie playing on the Optoma projecter, pinging the router gives me response times in the hundreds of milliseconds, or times out completely. So, it clearly is something local to my machine - and not some sort of throttling occurring down the line. I would think that it is possibly something to do with the HDMI driver conflicting somehow with my network driver (which is a USB-based wireless connection). This one has me really stumped. Anyone have any ideas? EDIT: I am now leaning towards the possibility that the HDMI cable is somehow interfering with the wireless network, when large amounts of data are being pushed through the cable. Is this possible?

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• http request via iptables --to-destination ip redirect results in no response

  - by Wouter Vegter

  I have two Ubuntu servers with each having their own ip addresses. Let's call them server1 and server2, having respectively ip 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2 I have a nginx running on server2. The sole purpose I want server1 to have is to redirect all incoming http (so port 80) requests to server2 without clients noticing that their request is being redirected. I tried the following command on server1: iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dport 80 -j DNAT --to-destination 2.2.2.2 But when I enter 1.1.1.1 in my browser I get no respond: the page keeps trying to load without giving any message or error message (I get a time-out after 2-3 mins). But when I do remove the above iptables rule I immediately do get a "page not found error" when I enter 1.1.1.1 in my browser; so something is working but not as it should: when I enter 1.1.1.1 I want the html page to load that is hosted on 2.2.2.2 Because when i enter 2.2.2.2 in my browser I do see the webpage loaded. Could anyone please help me with this? I am searching quite some time (on severfault & Google) on this now so that's why I ask. Many thanks for reading my question! Update: Thank you all for you information. Unfortunately I still get no response I have the following iptables configuration: root@ip-10-48-238-216:/home/ubuntu# sudo iptables -L Chain INPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination Chain FORWARD (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination root@ip-10-48-238-216:/home/ubuntu# sudo iptables -t nat -L Chain PREROUTING (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination DNAT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:www to:2.2.2.2 Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination When i run tcpdump and do request via chrome to 1.1.1.1 i get the following root@ip-10-48-238-216:/home/ubuntu# sudo tcpdump -i eth0 port 80 -vv tcpdump: listening on eth0, link-type EN10MB (Ethernet), capture size 65535 bytes 13:56:18.346625 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 52, id 12055, offset 0, flags [DF], proto TCP (6), length 60) 212-123-161-112.ip.telfort.nl.16386 ip-10-48-238-216.eu-west-1.compute.internal.www: Flags [S], cksum 0xb398 (correct), seq 2639758575, win 5840, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1223672 ecr 0,nop,wscale 6], length 0 13:56:18.346662 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 51, id 12055, offset 0, flags [DF], proto TCP (6), length 60) 212-123-161-112.ip.telfort.nl.16386 ww1dc1.shopreme.com.www: Flags [S], cksum 0x9ee0 (correct), seq 2639758575, win 5840, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1223672 ecr 0,nop,wscale 6], length 0 13:56:18.598747 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 52, id 10138, offset 0, flags [DF], proto TCP (6), length 60) 212-123-161-112.ip.telfort.nl.16387 ip-10-48-238-216.eu-west-1.compute.internal.www: Flags [S], cksum 0xac40 (correct), seq 2645658541, win 5840, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1223735 ecr 0,nop,wscale 6], length 0 13:56:18.598777 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 51, id 10138, offset 0, flags [DF], proto TCP (6), length 60) 212-123-161-112.ip.telfort.nl.16387 ww1dc1.shopreme.com.www: Flags [S], cksum 0x9788 (correct), seq 2645658541, win 5840, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1223735 ecr 0,nop,wscale 6], length 0 ^C 4 packets captured 4 packets received by filter 0 packets dropped by kernel the mentioned address relate to the following 212-123-161-112.ip.telfort.nl.16386 : my personal computer ww1dc1.shopreme.com.www : dns of server2 (2.2.2.2) ip-10-48-238-216.eu-west-1.compute.internal.www : amazon web services ec2 internal address of server1 (1.1.1.1) However, the tcpdump log on server2 (2.2.2.2) stays empty and I get no response back in my browser. I am able to ping from server1 to server2. And net.ipv4.ip_forward is set to 1 and so is /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward Could there be anything else that is missing?

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• Permission denied for cvs server via ssh

  - by NovumCoder

  I cant create a new project by importing a java project via eclipse onto my cvs server via internet. I created a directory as root called /priv/cvs/. Then i called "cvs -d /priv/cvs/ init". I created a user named cvs and a groups called cvs. The repository is owned by cvs and in group cvs. Then i created a user "ben" and his only group is cvs. I "chrooted" the user "ben" accessing only the cvs functionality by not allowing to access the server via ssh with password, only by using a public key which is added in his home directory on the server in file authorized_keys2. the contect of authorized_keys2 is as follows: no-port-forwarding,no-X11-forwarding,command="/usr/bin/cvs server" ssh-rsa [public_key_content] rsa-key Connecting to the server works pretty fine. Eclipse asks for the passphrase for the private key to connect to the server. Authentication works and eclipse is able to run cvs commands. But when importing my project by using Team-Share Project. I get the error: The server reported an error: Permission denied projectname: cvs server: cannot open /priv/cvs/CVSROOT/config: Permission denied projectname: Cannot access /priv/cvs/CVSROOT The access right for the cvs root (/priv/cvs/) is set to 770. Which means that the owner, which is cvs and the group participants of the group cvs are allowed to read and write. Why do i get Permission denied? When i set the folder to 777, which means read/write to ALL, then it works. But i dont want that. I only want cvs users read/write to this folder? Is there something i misunderstood about access rules?

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• Merge\Combine two datatables

  - by madlan

  I'm trying to merge\combine two datatables. I've looked at various examples and answers but they seem to create duplicate rows or require indexes (merge on datatable etc) I can't do this via SQL as one source is from a linked Oracle server accessed via MSSQL and the other from a different MSSQL Server that does not have linked access. The data is currently very simple: Name, Email, Phone DataTable1: "John Clark", "", "01522 55231" "Alex King", "[email protected]", "01522 55266" "Marcus Jones", "[email protected]", "01522 55461" DataTable2: "John Clark", "[email protected]", "01522 55231" "Alex King", "[email protected]", "" "Marcus Jones", "[email protected]", "01522 55461" "Warren bean", "[email protected]", "01522 522311" Giving a datatable with the following: "John Clark", "[email protected]", "01522 55231" "Alex King", "[email protected]", "01522 55266" "Marcus Jones", "[email protected]", "01522 55461" "Warren bean", "[email protected]", "01522 522311" Name is the field to match records on, with the first datatable taking priority.

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• Find Users E-Mail via SID using VBScript and Active Directory

  - by er4z0r

  Hi, I am parsing log messages about changes to user accounts on a windows system. I want to notify the user about the changes so I need to retrieve their personal information (First,Last, E-Mail) from Active Directory. I already found a way to retrieve the username but that is only via WMI and not ADSI: Function FindUser(Message) Dim objWMIService Dim strAccountRegex Dim objRegex Dim objMatch Dim strComputer Dim objUser Dim objShell strAccountRegex = "(\%\{[A-Z,0-9,\-]*\})" strComputer = "." Wscript.StdOut.writeLine "Querying WMI to retrieve user-data" Set objWMIService = GetObject("winmgmts:\\" & strComputer & "\root\cimv2") Set objShell = WScript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") Set objRegex = new RegExp objRegex.Pattern= strAccountRegex for each objMatch in objRegex.Execute(Message) REM Wscript.StdOut.writeLine "Found an Account ID: " & objMatch.value Dim strSID strSID=NormalizeSID(objMatch.value) REM Wscript.Echo "SID after escaping: " & strSID Set objUser = objWMIService.Get _ ("Win32_SID.SID='" & strSID & "'") next FindUser=objUser.ReferencedDomainName & "\" & objUser.AccountName End Function It works fine, but I would like to do it via Active Directory instead of going via WMI. Can you help me?

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• Inconsistency in passing objects from VBA to .NET via COM

  - by Akash

  I have the following interface defined to expose a .NET class to COM: [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsDual)] [Guid("6A983BCC-5C83-4b30-8400-690763939659")] [ComVisible(true)] public interface IComClass { object Value { get; set; } object GetValue(); void SetValue(object value); } The implementation of this interface is trivial: [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] [Guid("66D0490F-718A-4722-8425-606A6C999B82")] [ComVisible(true)] public class ComClass : IComClass { private object _value = 123.456; public object Value { get { return this._value; } set { this._value = value; } } public object GetValue() { return this._value; } public void SetValue(object value) { this._value = value; } } I have then registered this using RegAsm, and tried to call it from Excel via the following code: Public Sub ComInterop() Dim cc As ComClass Set cc = New ComClass cc.SetValue (555.555) valueByGetter = cc.GetValue valueByProperty = cc.Value cc.Value = 555.555 End Sub When I step throught this code, valueByGetter = 555.5555 and valueByProperty = 555.555 as expected. However, I get an "Object required" runtime error on the final line. Why does setting the value via the setter method work but setting via the property fail? What do I have to change to get the property to work as expected?

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• Find Users E-Mail via SID using VBScript and ADSI

  - by er4z0r

  Hi, I am parsing log messages about changes to user accounts on a windows system. I want to notify the user about the changes so I need to retrieve their personal information (First,Last, E-Mail) from Active Directory. I already found a way to retrieve the username but that is only via WMI and not ADSI: Function FindUser(Message) Dim objWMIService Dim strAccountRegex Dim objRegex Dim objMatch Dim strComputer Dim objUser Dim objShell strAccountRegex = "(\%\{[A-Z,0-9,\-]*\})" strComputer = "." Wscript.StdOut.writeLine "Querying WMI to retrieve user-data" Set objWMIService = GetObject("winmgmts:\\" & strComputer & "\root\cimv2") Set objShell = WScript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") Set objRegex = new RegExp objRegex.Pattern= strAccountRegex for each objMatch in objRegex.Execute(Message) REM Wscript.StdOut.writeLine "Found an Account ID: " & objMatch.value Dim strSID strSID=NormalizeSID(objMatch.value) REM Wscript.Echo "SID after escaping: " & strSID Set objUser = objWMIService.Get _ ("Win32_SID.SID='" & strSID & "'") next FindUser=objUser.ReferencedDomainName & "\" & objUser.AccountName End Function It works fine, but I would like to do it via Active Directory instead of going via WMI. Can you help me?

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• How can I open VLC via browser with PHP (Mac OS X)

  - by Damiqib

  I'm trying to open VLC via browser and make it instantly play the given video file on Mac OS X. This runs on my local server and is only meant to run locally - therefore I already run apache (MAMP) with my username and with group "staff" (defined in httpd.conf). YES - I do know that VLC has http interface - however that is not what I need, so do not suggest that... My current system works without any problems when I run it via Terminal: php /var/www/Movies/index.php - This leads to VLC opening and video starts playing fullscreen like intented. Problems start when I run the same PHP-page with browser. Then the VLC-process starts, but there's no GUI for it, video file won't start playing and the VLC-process takes nearly 100% of CPU. Both; terminal and browser started VLC-processes run with the same user (mine) Both have "Parent process" bash VLC-process begun with Terminal has empty "Process group" (only process id-number) and browser started has "httpd" + (id-number) VLC-process started via browser makes 1000-times more "Mach System Calls" than it's Terminal-started counterpart. Could anyone give me any pointers on how to get this thing working? index.php # $j is a file path to the videofile and is defined before exec('/var/www/Movies/vlc.sh "' . $j . '" > /dev/null 2>&1 & echo $!;'); # If I do this in the given PHP-page it tells me that apache is running # with my username and with the group "staff" like it should be... exec('whoamI'); vlc.sh #!/bin/bash # Activate VLC in 5 seconds to make it the front-most window (sleep 5; open -a VLC) & # Open video file /Applications/VLC.app/Contents/MacOS/VLC --quiet --fullscreen "$1"

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