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  • How to link to an Excel pivot table that will expand over time in Word 2007?

    - by Daljit Dhadwal
    I have a pivot table in Excel 2007 which I’ve pasted it into Word 2007 using Paste Special (Paste link) - Microsoft Office Excel Worksheet Object. The pivot table appears in Word and the link to Excel is working. The problem is that if the pivot table expands (for example, due to showing 12 months of data rather than six months) the link to the pivot table in Word will only show the range cells that were originally copied over with the pivot table. I understand why this happens. When I paste as a link to Word the underling field codes look like this: {LINK Excel.Sheet.8 "C:\Users\myAccount\Documents\testexcel.xlsx" "Sheet2!R1C1:R8C2" \a \p} The codes refer to a fixed area (e.g., Sheet2!R1C1:R8C2 ) of the Excel spreadsheet, and so when the pivot table expands, the expanded cells fall outside the area that is defined in the field codes. Is there some way to have the link refer to the pivot table itself rather than the cell range that happened to be originally copied over from Excel?

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  • Create new table with Wordpress API

    - by Fire G
    I'm trying to create a new plugin to track popular posts based on views and I have everything done and ready to go, but I can't seem to create a new table using the Wordpress API (I can do it with standard PHP or with phpMyAdmin, but I want this plugin to be self-sufficient). I've tried several ways ($wpdb-query, $wpdb-get_results, dbDelta) but none of them will create the new table. function create_table(){ global $wpdb; $tablename = $wpdb->prefix.'popular_by_views'; $ppbv_table = $wpdb->get_results("SHOW TABLES LIKE '".$tablename."'" , ARRAY_N); if(is_null($ppbv_table)){ $create_table_sql = "CREATE TABLE '".$tablename."' ( 'id' BIGINT(50) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, 'url' VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, 'views' BIGINT(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ('id'), UNIQUE ('id') );"; $wpdb->show_errors(); $wpdb->flush(); if(is_null($wpdb->get_results("SHOW TABLES LIKE '".$tablename."'" , ARRAY_N))) echo 'crap, the SQL failed.'; } else echo 'table already exists, nothing left to do.';}

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  • Inserting Row in Table inside Form tag autosubmitting in firefox/chrome

    - by user1861489
    I have a form that will have dynamic elements inserted with javascript and am experiencing some strange behavior. When I click the button to add another element to the table in the form, it adds the element but seems to to a form post immediately (without intending to submit the form yet) I have created a simplified example of the page that has the same behavior. the first table element is created on page load and subsequent elements are added when clicking on the button. this form works successfully in IE. does anyone have an idea of how to prevent this behavior? here is the code sample. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Test Creating Form</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <style type="text/css"> td{font-family:verdana;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var counter = 0; function makeTitle(title){ if(counter){ title += " " + counter; } counter++; var tbl = document.getElementById('tbl'); var tr = tbl.insertRow(-1) var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.innerHTML = title; } function load1(){ makeTitle('Primary Specimen'); } </script> </head> <body onload="load1();"> <form action="formtest.htm" method="post" name="testForm" id="testForm"> <table id="tbl" border="1"></table> <button onclick="makeTitle('Alternate Specimen')" id="clone" >Add Another Specimen</button> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Make sure base method gets called in C#

    - by Fnatte
    Can I somehow force a derived class to always call the overridden methods base? public class BaseClass { public virtual void Update() { if(condition) { throw new Exception("..."); // Prevent derived method to be called } } } And then in a derived class : public override void Update() { base.Update(); // Forced call // Do any work } I've searched and found a suggestion to use a non-virtual Update() but also a protected virtual UpdateEx(). It just doesn't feel very neat, isn't there any better way? I hope you get the question and I am sorry for any bad English.

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  • C++ Problem: Class Promotion using derived class

    - by Michael Fitzpatrick
    I have a class for Float32 that is derived from Float32_base class Float32_base { public: // Constructors Float32_base(float x) : value(x) {}; Float32_base(void) : value(0) {}; operator float32(void) {return value;}; Float32_base operator =(float x) {value = x; return *this;}; Float32_base operator +(float x) const { return value + x;}; protected: float value; } class Float32 : public Float32_base { public: float Tad() { return value + .01; } } int main() { Float32 x, y, z; x = 1; y = 2; // WILL NOT COMPILE! z = (x + y).Tad(); // COMPILES OK z = ((Float32)(x + y)).Tad(); } The issue is that the + operator returns a Float32_base and Tad() is not in that class. But 'x' and 'y' are Float32's. Is there a way that I can get the code in the first line to compile without having to resort to a typecast like I did on the next line?

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  • Reading a Text file in xcode

    - by Nicolaj Zefting
    First off, I'm a complete beginner. This might be a stupid question, but here it goes: I'm currently working on an App than contains Latin texts that the users can view and read. I'm using Xcode 4 with the storybord function. Theway the app is built: user selects author - then the book - then app shows the text. I am kind of confused because i need to have various text files, depending on the users choice.

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  • How can one enforce calling a base class function after derived class constructor?

    - by Mike Elkins
    I'm looking for a clean C++ idiom for the following situation: class SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeLibraryClass() { /* start initialization */ } void addFoo() { /* we are a collection of foos */ } void funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() { /* Making sure this is called is the issue */ } }; class SomeUserClass : public SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeUserClass() { addFoo(); addFoo(); addFoo(); // SomeUserClass has three foos. } }; class SomeUserDerrivedClass : public SomeUserClass { public: SomeUserDerrivedClass() { addFoo(); // This one has four foos. } }; So, what I really want is for SomeLibraryClass to enforce the calling of funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos at the end of the construction process. The user can't put it at the end of SomeUserClass::SomeUserClass(), that would mess up SomeUserDerrivedClass. If he puts it at the end of SomeUserDerrivedClass, then it never gets called for SomeUserClass. To further clarify what I need, imagine that /* start initialization */ acquires a lock, and funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() releases a lock. The compiler knows when all the initializations for an object are done, but can I get at that information by some nice trick?

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  • Generics in a bidirectional association

    - by Verhoevenv
    Let's say I have two classes A and B, with B a subtype of A. This is only part of a richer type hierarchy, obviously, but I don't think that's relevant. Assume A is the root of the hierarchy. There is a collection class C that keeps track of a list of A's. However, I want to make C generic, so that it is possible to make an instance that only keeps B's and won't accept A's. class A(val c: C[A]) { c.addEntry(this) } class B(c: C[A]) extends A(c) class C[T <: A]{ val entries = new ArrayBuffer[T]() def addEntry(e: T) { entries += e } } object Generic { def main(args : Array[String]) { val c = new C[B]() new B(c) } } The code above obviously give the error 'type mismatch: found C[B], required C[A]' on the new B(c) line. I'm not sure how this can be fixed. It's not possible to make C covariant in T (like C[+T <: A]) because the ArrayBuffer is non-variantly typed in T. It's not possible to make the constructor of B require a C[B] because C can't be covariant. Am I barking up the wrong tree here? I'm a complete Scala newbie, so any ideas and tips might be helpful. Thank you! EDIT: Basically, what I'd like to have is that the compiler accepts both val c = new C[B]() new B(c) and val c = new C[A]() new B(c) but would reject val c = new C[B]() new A(c) It's probably possible to relax the typing of the ArrayBuffer in C to be A instead of T, and thus in the addEntry method as well, if that helps.

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  • Pivot table from multiple spreadsheets

    - by vrao
    I am using excel 2010. I am trying to create pivot table between two worksheets 'Summary' and 'Summary2'. I have identical row of data ranging from cells B5 to F5 in row 5 in both worksheets. Data in the two worksheets looks like this: Summary worksheet: Issues,20,3,4,5 Summary2 worksheet: Issues,10,0,3,9 Worksheet referes to issues from location 1 and worksheet referes to issues from location 2. Col B has title 'issues', Col C refers to issues of customer 1, Col D refers to issues of customer 2, Col E refers to issues of customer 3, Col F refers to issues of customer 4 I go to a third worksheet and start pivot table and in the table range I give this: 'Summary:Summary2'!$B$5:$F$5. Then I Say OK. Gives error "data reference source is not valid". Can someone tell me how to select the row from two different worksheet in pivot table? Also I want to be able to add issues of customers between two locations and get % completion for each locaiton. Can someone please help?

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  • Does string inherits from Object in Javascript?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    Is Object the base class of all objects in Javascript, just like other language such as Java & C#? I tried below code in Firefox with Firebug installed. var t = new Object(); var s1 = new String('str'); var s2 = 'str'; console.log(typeof t); console.log(typeof s1); console.log(typeof s2); The console output is object object string So, s1 and s2 are of diffeent type?

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  • Calling base class constructor

    - by The Void
    In the program below, is the line Derived(double y): Base(), y_(y) correct/allowed? That is, does it follow ANSI rules? #include <iostream> class Base { public: Base(): x_(0) { std::cout << "Base default constructor called" << std::endl; } Base(int x): x_(x) { std::cout << "Base constructor called with x = " << x << std::endl; } void display() const { std::cout << x_ << std::endl; } protected: int x_; }; class Derived: public Base { public: Derived(): Base(1), y_(1.2) { std::cout << "Derived default constructor called" << std::endl; } Derived(double y): Base(), y_(y) { std::cout << "Derived constructor called with y = " << y << std::endl; } void display() const { std::cout << Base::x_ << ", " << y_ << std::endl; } private: double y_; }; int main() { Base b1; b1.display(); Derived d1; d1.display(); std::cout << std::endl; Base b2(-9); b2.display(); Derived d2(-8.7); d2.display(); return 0; }

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  • Dynamic Object Not Creating for Privately Inherited Class.

    - by mahesh
    Hi, What is the reason for the following code that does not let me to create object. class base { public: void foo() { cout << "base::foo()"; } }; class derived : private base { public: void foo() { cout << "deived::foo()"; } }; void main() { base *d = new derived(); d->foo(); } It Gives me error : " 'type cast' : conversion from 'derived *' to 'base *' exists, but is inaccessible" Thanks in advance :)

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  • Determine an object's class returned by a factory method (Error: function does not take 1 arguments

    - by tzippy
    I have a factorymethod that either returns an object of baseclass or one that is of derivedclass (a derived class of baseclass). The derived class has a method virtual void foo(int x) that takes one argument. baseclass however has virtual void foo() without an argument. In my code, a factory method returns a pointer of type bar that definetly points to an object of class derivedclass. However since this is only known at runtime I get a compiler error saying that foo() does not take an argument. Can I cast this pointer to a pointer of type derivedclass? std::auto_ptr<baseclass> bar = classfactory::CreateBar(); //returns object of class derivedclass bar->foo(5); class baseclass { public: virtual void foo(); } class derivedclass : public baseclass { public: virtual void foo(int x); }

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  • What's an elegant solution to get the property values from two classes (that have the same property

    - by SlipToFall
    Essentially I have to deal with a poorly implemented web service. They have two classes that don't derive from a parent class, but have the same properties (Ughh...). So it looks like this in my web service proxy class file: public partial class Product1 { public int Quantity; public int Price; } public partial class Product2 { public int Quantity; public int Price; } So what's the best way to grab the values from known properties without duplicating the code and casting to their respective classes? I know I probably could use reflection, but that can get ugly. If there is an easier less crazier way to do it (maybe in the new c# features?) please let me know.

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  • Base form controls not visible in child form

    - by Kildareflare
    Hello I'm using C#.Net and have a base form that is inherited by several forms. Until yesterday, when the child (derived) form was opened in the designer the base forms controls would be displayed and shown as locked. Now, however the form is simply blank. None of the base forms controls are visible in the designer. Everything compiles, builds and runs OK. Has anyone else seen this? I've tried placing a call to the base forms InitializeComponent method in the derived forms OnLoad method but to no avail.

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  • PHP inheriting/extending a particular instance of an Object

    - by delta9
    Is there any way to force PHP to extend an existing/particular (and for that matter, already instantiated) instance of an object? This imaginary code should explain what I am wondering: class Base { public $var; function __construct($var){ $this->var = $name; } } class Extender extends Base { function __construct($parent) { parent = $parent; } } $base = new Base('yay!'); $extender = new Extender($base); echo 'Extended base var value: '.$extender->var.'<br/>'; Output (would be): Extended base var value: yay! To be clear, I am wanting to instantiate an object that extends a PARTICULAR INSTANCE of another object, one that has already been instantiated. I am aware that I can pass a reference to an object to another object (via it's constructor function) and then add it as a property of the receiving object, I'm wondering if there is a real way to do this?

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  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

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  • "Overriding" instance variables in subtype: Possible risks?

    - by sebastiangeiger
    Say I had a class SuperClass and two subclasses SubClassA and SubClassB that inherit from SuperClass. abstract class SuperClass{ ... List someList; ... } class SubClassA extends SuperClass{ ... List<String> someList; ... } class SubClassB extends SuperClass{ ... List<Integer> someList; ... } That way it is convenient because I can get someList.size() in Superclass and have Typesafety in the Subclasses. The problem is that it does not "feel" right, can you think of potential hazards this apporach has that I am not aware of?

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  • C++ - Where to code a member function for an inherited object.

    - by Francisco P.
    Hello! I have a few classes (heat, gas, contact, pressure) inheriting from a main one (sensor). I have a need to store them in a vector<Sensor *> (part of the specification). At some point in time, I need to call a function that indiscriminately stores those Sensor *. (also part of the specification, not open for discussion) Something like this: for(size_t i = 0; i < Sensors.size(); ++i) Sensors[i]->storeSensor(os) //os is an ofstream kind of object, passed onwards by reference Where and how shall storeSensor be defined? Is there any simple way to do this or will I need to disregard the specification? Mind you, I'm a beginner! Thanks for your time!

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  • Updating table row by given id with jQuery

    - by fabrik
    Hello all! I need to update a specific table row (via tr id="unique_key") after a successful AJAX call. HTML fragment: <a name=\"p{$product_id}\" class=\"tr{$product_id}\"></a> <tr id="p{product_id}" class="item-row"> <td><h3>{product_id}</h3><a rel="facebox" href="ajax_url">{product_name}</a></td> <td>{image_information}</td> <td>{image_sortiment}</td> <td>{product_status}</td> </tr> Javascript: // AJAX Call success: function(msg){ $('#p' + prod_id).remove(); $('.tr' + prod_id).after(msg); $('#p' + prod_id + ' a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); } ... What happens: The table row removed Anchors grouped into one single row (not before their <tr>'s) so my 'hook' disappears AJAX result inserted over the whole table (after my 'hook' but still a wrong place) What's wrong with my idea? How can i force jQuery to 'overwrite' the required table row?

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  • Why doesn't C++ allow you to request a pointer to the most derived class?

    - by Matthew Lowe
    (This question should probably be answered with a reference to Stroustrup.) It seems extremely useful to be able to request a pointer to the most derived class, as in the following: class Base { ... }; class DerivedA { ... }; class DerivedB { ... }; class Processor { public: void Do(Base* b) {...} void Do(DerivedA* d) {...} void Do(DerivedB* d) {...} }; list<Base*> things; Processor p; for(list<Base*>::iterator i=things.begin(), e=things.end(); i!=e; ++i) { p.Do(CAST_TO_MOST_DERIVED_CLASS(*i)); } But this mechanism isn't provided in c++. Why?

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  • List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

    - by Sid
    I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

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  • what would be the output?

    - by Abhishek Jain
    Please explain me below situation What would be the output? interface A{} class B implements A{} class C extends B{} Class D extends C{} class E extends D{ public static void main(String args[]){ C c = new C(); B b = c; A a = (E)c; A a = (B)c; C c = (C)(B)c; } }

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  • Is it possible to have a mysql table accept a null value for a primary_key column referencing a diff

    - by Dr.Dredel
    I have a table that has a column which holds the id of a row in another table. However, when table A is being populated, table B may or may not have a row ready for table A. My question is, is it possible to have mysql prevent an invalid value from being entered but be ok with a NULL? or does a foreign key necessitate a valid related value? So... what I'm looking for (in pseudo code) is this: Table "person" id | name Table "people" id | group_name | person_id (foreign key id from table person) insert into person (1, 'joe'); insert into people (1, 'foo', 1)//kosher insert into people (1, 'foo', NULL)//also kosher insert into people(1, 'foo', 7)// should fail since there is no id 7 in the person table. The reason I need this is that I'm having a chicken and egg issue where it makes perfect sense for the rows in the people table to be created before hand (in this example, I'm creating the groups and would like them to pre-exist the people who join them). And I realize that THIS example is silly and I would just put the group id in the person table rather than vice-versa, but in my real-world problem that is not workable. Just curious if I need to allow any and all values in order to make this work, or if there's some way to allow for null.

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