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• Pairing Bluetooth device with PIN fails

  - by Pikaro

  I'm trying to pair my old BlackBerry 8310 to my Linux desktop (up-to-date Debian Sid, 3.15-10.dmz.1-liquorix-amd64) by using blueman and its associated tools. Scanning for the device works equally well for both sides; however, I am unable to pair the two once it comes to entering the PIN. If I scan from my PC, I have two options in blueman-manager regarding my phone: Directly selecting "pair", or selecting "setup". If I select "pair", nothing happens on my desktop, but the phone asks me to enter a PIN; if I do so, it reports that pairing has failed. During that, nothing is logged to the console. Selecting "setup" opens a configuration dialog that allows for entering or generating a PIN. Regardless, I get to a screen that tells me to enter the PIN on the phone, and at the same time, the phone pops up the equivalent dialog. This would be what one would expect to work; but whatever I enter (naturally, the same on both), both devices report that pairing has failed, and blueman-manager logs init_services (/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/blueman/main/Device.py:73) Loading services org.bluez.Error.AuthenticationFailed: Authentication Failed If I instead try to pair from the phone, I cannot see any kind of reaction from my desktop - all I get is the equivalent "pairing failed" message from the BlackBerry after I entered a PIN in the dialog that pops up there. hcitool scan and hciconfig -a work without complaints, but I cannot find a way to try the pairing as a whole on the console since bluez-simple-agent seems to have been discontinued and this recommendation is everywhere on Google. hcitool cc as root opens the PIN dialog on the phone, then fails with "Input/Output error" once I enter it. The user is not permitted to execute this command. I also tried creating /usr/lib/bluetooth/<MAC>/pincodes to manually define a persistent PIN, which seems to have had no effect. The same goes for running the different commands as root, though I'm really confused about the internal structure of the Bluetooth subsystem now: They usually and inconsistently failed with Python or DBUS errors or just showed the same results. The only other Bluetooth device I have around are a pair of Creative speakers. Trying "setup" asks me to enter a key on them, which is impossible. If I try "pair", I'm asked for a PIN as I should, but no pairing takes place, and no errors appear on the console. (It just repeats their name a few times.) Interestingly, I tried that before writing my question, and nothing happened in terms of PIN questions, just like with the BlackBerry, which still shows no change. I don't think I actively changed anything since then. The BlackBerry can pair with and connect to the speakers, and everything goes as one would expect, so the problem is definitely with my desktop. So thus my questions: What is that PIN window generated by, and why does it seem to appear randomly? How can I find out what, exactly, fails after trying to add the speakers, as this may give me a clue? Is there any kind of complete log that concerns itself with Bluetooth? What data can I provide to make this more solvable?

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• Setting up home DNS with Ubuntu Server

  - by Zeophlite

  I have a webserver (with static IP 192.168.1.5), and I want to have my machines on my local network to be able to access it without modifying /etc/hosts (or equivalent for Windows/OSX). My router has Primary DNS server 192.168.1.5 Secondary DNS server 8.8.8.8 (Google's public DNS). Nginx is set up to server websites externally as *.example.com Internally, I want *.example.local to point to the server. My webserver has BIND9 installed, but I'm unsure of the settings. I've been through various contradicting tutorials, and so most of my settings have been clobbered. I've stripped out the lines which I'm confused about. The tutorials I looked at are http://tech.surveypoint.com/blog/installing-a-local-dns-server-behind-a-hardware-router/ and http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=236093 . They mostly differ on what should be put in /etc/bind/zones/db.example.local and /etc/bind/zones/db.192, so I've left the conflicting lines out below. Can someone suggest what the correct lines are to give my above behaviour (namely *.example.local pointing to 192.168.1.5)? /etc/network/interfaces auto lo iface lo inet loopback auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 192.168.1.5 netmask 255.255.255.0 broadcast 192.168.1.255 gateway 192.168.1.254 /etc/hostname avalon /etc/resolv.conf # Dynamic resolv.conf(5) file for glibc resolver(3) generated by resolvconf(8) # DO NOT EDIT THIS FILE BY HAND -- YOUR CHANGES WILL BE OVERWRITTEN /etc/bind/named.conf.options options { directory "/var/cache/bind"; forwarders { 8.8.8.8; 8.8.4.4; }; dnssec-validation auto; auth-nxdomain no; # conform to RFC1035 listen-on-v6 { any; }; }; /etc/bind/named.conf.local zone "example.local" { type master; file "/etc/bind/zones/db.example.local"; }; zone "1.168.192.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/zones/db.192"; }; /etc/bind/zones/db.example.local $TTL 604800 @ IN SOA avalon.example.local. webadmin.example.local. ( 5 ; Serial, increment each edit 604800 ; Refresh 86400 ; Retry 2419200 ; Expire 604800 ) ; Negative Cache TTL /etc/bind/zones/db.192 $TTL 604800 @ IN SOA avalon.example.local. webadmin.example.local. ( 4 ; Serial, increment each edit 604800 ; Refresh 86400 ; Retry 2419200 ; Expire 604800 ) ; Negative Cache TTL ; What do I need to add to the above files so that on a laptop on the internal network, I can type in webapp.example.local, and be served by my webserver? EDIT I made several changes to the above files on the webserver. /etc/network/interfaces (end of file) dns-nameservers 127.0.0.1 dns-search example.local /etc/bind/zones/db.example.local (end of file) @ IN NS avalon.example.local. @ IN A 192.168.1.5 avalon IN A 192.168.1.5 webapp IN A 192.168.1.5 www IN CNAME 192.168.1.5 /etc/bind/zones/db.192 (end of file) IN NS avalon.example.local. 73 IN PTR avalon.example.local. As a side note, my spare Win7 machine was able to connect directly to webapp.example.local, but for a Ubuntu 13.10 machine, I had to make the following changes as well (not on the webserver, but on a separate machine): /etc/nsswitch.conf before hosts: files mdns4_minimal [NOTFOUND=return] dns mdns4 after hosts: files dns /etc/NetworkManager/NetworkManager.conf before dns=dnsmasq after #dns=dnsmasq The issue remains that its not wildcard DNS, and so I have to add entries to /etc/bind/zones/db.example.local for webapp1, webapp2, ...

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• Can spliting an access database cause printer and reporting issues?

  - by leeand00

  We have a setup in which our users log into an access database using MS Access 2003 over an RDP connection. The user's login to their own machines first using a roaming profile. They then click an rdp connection file on the desktop and login to the remote server, via RDP, where they use MS Access as the shell; they don't have any access to any of explorer.exe features such as the start menu. The database they are logging into is more of an application, and provides functionality for entering data, querying data, and running reports via form based menus. It all worked pretty well until we split the database as it was nearing 2GBs in size. We moved out the payroll data into a separate partition, a database with the same name in a different folder, both of them on the server. Only two tables were moved into this new database partition, and they were re-linked as external tables in the new partition. Now while everything appears to be working fine data-wise after the split, there's a new issue when our users login via RDP and attempt to run reports: often the report will not display and instead the user sees an error about the click event of the form. At first I didn't even know it was printer-related, as we didn't really change anything related to the printers as far as I knew. Confused about the error, I talked to the guy who previously worked here and who was in charge of splitting the database, and he told me to tell the users to set their default printers (on their local machines, not on the server) to the "printer" Microsoft XPS Document Writer which isn't a physical printer at all. This allowed the user's to display their reports, but if they want to print out reports, they are required to go to the File menu and select Print, clicking the print icon on the toolbar takes them to a Save As... dialog as would be expected when using the Microsoft XPS Document Writer as your default printer. It's easy to tell if the user is having a problem because a quick mouseover of the printer icon will yield a tooltip of (none) when they cannot access their reports, and a tooltip of Microsoft XPS Document Writer when they can view the reports. If the user's printer is set to anything other than Microsoft XPS Document Writer as the default on their local machine, then (none) is always displayed when they rdp to the database. The RDP settings are setup to transfer the local printer to the server. Telling the users to do this to print has been more of a band-aid on the whole situation until we find a better solution and an explanation as to why splitting a database would prevent users from printing or even viewing access database reports. Which is why I'm here asking this question. Also of note all the printers on the network now show up on the server so that when the users do click File->Print to print their reports on a physical printer, they have to look through a huge list of printers to find theirs in the dropdown. So the little band-aid fix we have is not ideal. Previously, only the printers on the user's local machine displayed here, and not all the printers on the network. My co-worker seems to think this has something to do with permissions, I personally think it has to do with roaming profiles, and Group Policies which is what I've been reading up on. I really don't know how to fix this or how it is related to splitting the database.

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• Hosed Windows 7 permissons

  - by Anthony

  Here is the most interesting thing I've noticed since the problems started: If I go into a control panel/system module (in this case the Resource Monitor) that has a "Check Online" type option, Firefox (my default browser) opens right up without a problem. But if I just start Firefox from any shortcuts (start menu, desktop, etc), the Firefox process starts up (and the start menu icon starts glowing) only to end without notice a few seconds later. Possibly related: If I start up in Safe-Mode (w/o Networking, but haven't tried with yet), I can start up FF or Chrome just fine, but if I attempt to open Chrome normally, I get a permissions error. Opera and Safari seem to be okay (mostly). Safari crashes when I try to download any files. All of the above leads me to believe that some (but clearly not all) core files have messed up permissions. Or rather, that I no longer have permission. System still does, based on Firefox opening without fail when the system initiates it. I've run MS Forefront once in normal mode, Malwarebytes twice in normal mode and once in safe-mode. One trojan found and deleted, but the problem persists. Two other things worth mentioning: I accidentally duplicated my library... I thought I'd try to add the "Internet" folder to my start menu, next to music and downloads. The first advanced thing I tried was "create new library". I clearly misunderstood what this means. I thought it was a way to add virtual folders to the library (which I thought, in turn, would allow me to choose it as a link on the start menu), but instead it recreated my already existing user folder, AppData and all. I didn't notice this until today. Then I tried setting permissions for my User folder to full control, recursively... Confused but not giving up,I thought I could maybe create a shortcut to the NetHood folder manually, but instead got hit with an access denied error. So I tried to change the permission levels for all sub-folders to my user folder so that I had full control. I got several access denied errors along the way. At this point I gave up, went out, ended up caught in the rain and stuck on a friend's couch and showing up late for work the next day. Thanks for nothing, Microsoft. When I finally got home today (20 hours later), I noticed that Firefox was acting really strange. I tried opening Chrome to see if the problem was client side or server side, and instead got the above-mentioned "you don't have permission to open this program" alert. And I think that's the whole story. Oh, I also did a system restore, but not chose a point from this morning (an auto update), and it worked but the problem wasn't fixed. And then all the earlier restore points were gone. So the questions are: a) is there a way to set the admin and user privs back to "default"? b) would this, in anyone's expert opinion, fix the problems I'm having? c) how come being logged in as an admin isn't the same as being logged in with admin privs? It seems that half the time I have to do run as admin for fairy standard things because i'm being treated as me-theuser and not me-theadmin. Thanks for reading.

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• Cablemodem (SBG6580) firewall denying some outbound traffic? Why? Not configured [migrated]

  - by lairdb

  I finally got around to turning the syslog on for my cablemodem (Motorola Surfboard SBG6580) and I'm seeing about the expected amount of inbound attackage being blocked... 2014-05-30 21:59:02 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 31 04:58:56 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] UDP 12.230.209.198,4500 --> 66.27.xx.xx,61459 DENY:Firewall interface [IP Fragmented Packet] attack 2014-05-30 21:59:02 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 31 04:58:56 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] TCP 17.172.232.109,5223 --> 66.27.xx.xx,53814 DENY:Firewall interface access request 2014-05-30 21:59:02 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 31 04:58:57 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] UDP 12.230.209.198,443 --> 66.27.xx.xx,53385 DENY: Firewall interface [IP Fragmented Packet] attack 2014-05-30 21:59:02 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 31 04:58:57 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] UDP 12.230.209.198,4500 --> 66.27.xx.xx,61459 DENY:Firewall interface [IP Fragmented Packet] attack 2014-05-30 21:59:10 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 31 04:59:04 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] UDP 12.230.209.198,443 --> 66.27.xx.xx,59960 DENY: Firewall interface [IP Fragmented Packet] attack 2014-05-30 21:59:10 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 31 04:59:04 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] UDP 12.230.209.198,4500 --> 66.27.xx.xx,61459 DENY:Firewall interface [IP Fragmented Packet] attack ...and that's great. (Sad, but great.) But I'm also seeing a HUGE amount of what appears to be denied outbound connectivity: 2014-05-30 16:30:10 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 30 23:30:04 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] TCP 192.168.111.100,58969 --> 38.81.66.127,443 DENY: Inbound or outbound access request 2014-05-30 16:30:10 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 30 23:30:04 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] TCP 192.168.111.100,58969 --> 38.81.66.127,443 DENY: Inbound or outbound access request 2014-05-30 16:30:10 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 30 23:30:04 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] TCP 192.168.111.100,58965 --> 162.222.41.13,443 DENY: Inbound or outbound access request 2014-05-30 16:30:10 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 30 23:30:04 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] TCP 192.168.111.100,58965 --> 162.222.41.13,443 DENY: Inbound or outbound access request 2014-05-30 16:30:10 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 30 23:30:04 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] TCP 192.168.111.100,58964 --> 38.81.66.179,443 DENY: Inbound or outbound access request 2014-05-30 16:30:10 Local0.Alert 192.168.111.1 May 30 23:30:04 2014 SYSLOG[0]: [Host 192.168.111.1] TCP 192.168.111.100,58964 --> 38.81.66.179,443 DENY: Inbound or outbound access request ...and Spot checking suggests that it's all legitimate traffic (Opening connections to CrashPlan, etc.), I have no restrictions configured in the modem; I don't see why it should be blocking anything. Am I misreading the log entry, and it's not actually being denied? (Seems unlikely.) Is the ISP (TWC) pushing deny tables that are not exposed in the UI? (Tinfoil hat too tight.) I'm confused. (The good news, such as it is, is that AFAIK I'm not experiencing any actual issues... but maybe I am; tough to tell.) Thanks.

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• How does the Cloud compare to Colocation? And development too

  - by David

  Currently I/we run a SaaS web application where each subscriber has their own physical instance of the application in addition to their own database. The setup has each web application instance deployed on two different IIS boxes both for load-balancing and redundancy (the machines have their Windows Update install times 12 hours apart, for example). Databases are mirrored on two different SQL Server 2012 machines with AlwaysOn for uptime. I don't make use of SQL Server clustering (as it doesn't provide storage-level failover: we don't have a shared storage box). Because it's a Windows setup it means there are two Domain Controllers (we cheat: they're both Mac Minis, 17W each, which keeps our colo power costs low). Finally there's also an Exchange server (Mailbox, Hub Transport and Client Access). One of the SQL Servers also doubles-up as an Exchange Hub Transport. Running costs are about $700 a month for our quarter-rack colocation (which includes power and peering/transfer), then there's about $150 a month for SPLA licensing, so $850 a month in total. Then there's the hard-to-quantify cost of administration, but I reckon I spend a couple of hours a week checking-in on the servers: reviewing event logs, etc. I keep getting bombarded by ads and manufactured news stories about how great "the cloud" is. Back in 2008 when the cloud was taking off I was reading up about the proper "cloud" services like Google AppEngine, where you write in Python against Google's API and that's how they scale your application across servers and also use their database provider for scaling storage. Simple enough to understand. Then came along Amazon, and I understand how Amazon Storage works, but I'm not sure how Amazon Compute works: web application pages don't take much CPU time to compute, how do you even quantify usage anyway? Finally, RackSpace gets in the act and now I'm really confused. RackSpace advertise "Cloud" SQL Server 2012 available for about "$0.70 per hour", going by how they advertise it I thought the "hour" meant the sum of CPU time, IO blocking time, maybe time spent transferring data, so for a low-intensity application that works out pretty cheap then? Nope. I went on to a Sales Chat window and spoke to one of their advisors. They told me the $0.70/hour was actually for every hour the SQL Server is running... but who wants a SQL Server for only a few hours? You're going to need it available 24 hours a day for months on end. $0.70 * 24 * 31 works out at $520 a month, which is rediculously expensive for SQL Server. An SPLA license for SQL Server is only $50 a month or so. That $520 a month does not include "fanatical support", and you also need to stack on top the costs of the host Windows server instance too. From what I can tell, Rackspace's "Cloud" products seem like like an cynical rebranding of an overpriced VPS service, but priced by the hour. I have the same confusion about Windows Azure which uses similar terms to describe the products available, but I think that's because Azure offers both traditional shared webhosting in addition to their own APIs you can target for scalable applications.

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• Why is Git telling me "Your branch is ahead of 'origin/master' by 11 commits." and how do I get it t

  - by spilth

  I'm a Git newbie. I recently moved a Rails project from Subversion to Git. I followed the tutorial here: http://www.simplisticcomplexity.com/2008/03/05/cleanly-migrate-your-subversion-repository-to-a-git-repository/ I am also using unfuddle.com to store my code. I make changes on my Mac laptop on the train to/from work and then push them to unfuddle when I have a network connection using the following command: git push unfuddle master I use Capistrano for deployments and pull code from the unfuddle repository using the master branch. Lately I've noticed the following message when I run "git status" on my laptop: # On branch master # Your branch is ahead of 'origin/master' by 11 commits. # nothing to commit (working directory clean) And I'm confused as to why. I thought my laptop was the origin... but don't know if either the fact that I originally pulled from Subversion or push to Unfuddle is what's causing the message to show up. How can I: Find out where Git thinks 'origin/master' is? If it's somewhere else, how do I turn my laptop into the 'origin/master'? Get this message to go away. It makes me think Git is unhappy about something. My mac is running Git version 1.6.0.1. When I run git remote show origin as suggested by dbr, I get the following: ~/Projects/GeekFor/geekfor 10:47 AM $ git remote show origin fatal: '/Users/brian/Projects/GeekFor/gf/.git': unable to chdir or not a git archive fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly When I run git remote -v as suggested by Aristotle Pagaltzis, I get the following: ~/Projects/GeekFor/geekfor 10:33 AM $ git remote -v origin /Users/brian/Projects/GeekFor/gf/.git unfuddle [email protected]:spilth/geekfor.git Now, interestingly, I'm working on my project in the geekfor directory but it says my origin is my local machine in the gf directory. I believe gf was the temporary directory I used when converting my project from Subversion to Git and probably where I pushed to unfuddle from. Then I believe I checked out a fresh copy from unfuddle to the geekfor directory. So it looks like I should follow dbr's advice and do: git remote rm origin git remote add origin [email protected]:spilth/geekfor.git

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• iPhone App IDs and Provisioning... Does App ID get used instead of provisioning ID if I decide to us

  - by Jann

  This is a question that has been bugging me for a while. I started my app (now submitted -- not yet approved) not wishing to get into the mess that is APNS (Push). I did the following: iPhone Developer Center: Provisioning Portal-Provisioning: Then I created a Development and a Distribution Provisioning Profile. I installed both in XCode. Everything hunky dory. The Development profile scares me a bit by expiring so soon (90 days) but I can remove it from the iPhone(s) and sign it with a new one later. I tested using the Development profile, and later to submitted it by signing it with the Distribution profile. I then uploaded the Distribution profile-signed app to iTunesConnect (app store). Okay, I understand that much. Now, what I don't understand is this: Now that I understand the theories and methods behind how Push works, I am wishing to add it to my app. I already went under: iPhone Developer Center: Provisioning Portal-App IDs: and created a Development Provisioning Profile and Distribution Provisioning Profile there (push & in-app purchase enabled). Here is where it gets confusing to me. All the books and docs I have read say that I have to sign the app with this "App ID" provisioning profile (push-enabled) from now on. Does that mean I no longer ever use the previously created provisioning profiles? If I were to import these "App ID" provisioning profiles into Xcode they will exist alongside my previously generated "non-push" profiles. ~/Library/Mobile Devices/Provisioning Profiles now has 2 files. One Devel and one Distrib. It will now have 4 even though for this app I will not use the "non-push" anymore right? (actually, since they are locked by using bundle-codes and app ids i will never use it again if all of my further versions of this app use Push?) Confused. Can anyone enlighten me? Why not use the "App ID" profiles in the first place for everyone -- even if you are not gonna use push? Would keep it simpler. Should I only generate "Push Enabled" profiles from now on -- even if i am not sure I am gonna use push (or for that matter in-app purchase)? Please give me some insight. I do not wanna do this wrong. Thanks! Jann

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• Qt static build with static mysql plugin confusion

  - by bdiloreto

  I have built a Qt application which uses the MySQL library, but I am confused by the documentation on static versus shared builds. From the Qt documentation at http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.7/deployment-windows.html it says: To deploy plugin-based applications we should use the shared library approach. And on http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.7/deployment.html, it says: Static linking results in a stand-alone executable. The advantage is that you will only have a few files to deploy. The disadvantages are that the executables are large and with no flexibility and that you cannot deploy plugins. To deploy plugin-based applications, you can use the shared library approach. But on http://doc.qt.nokia.com/latest/plugins-howto.html, it seems to say the opposite, giving directions on how to use static plugins: Plugins can be linked statically against your application. If you build the static version of Qt, this is the only option for including Qt's predefined plugins. Using static plugins makes the deployment less error-prone, but has the disadvantage that no functionality from plugins can be added without a complete rebuild and redistribution of the application. ... To link statically against those plugins, you need to use the Q_IMPORT_PLUGIN() macro in your application and you need to add the required plugins to your build using QTPLUGIN. I want to build the Qt libraries statically (for easy deployment) and then use the static MySQL plugin. To do this, I did NOT use the binary distrubtion for Windows. Instead, I've started with the source qt-everywhere-opensource-src-4.7.4 Is the following the correct way to do a static build so that i can use the static MySql plugin? configure -static -debug-and-release -opensource -platform win32-msvc2010 -no-qt3support -no-webkit -no-script -plugin-sql-mysql -I C:\MySQL\include -L C:\MySQL\lib This should build the Qt libraries statically AND the static plugin to be linked at run-time, correct? I would NOT need to build the Mysql Plugin from source separately, correct? If I was to subtitute "-qt-sql-mysql" for "-plugin-sql-mysql" in above, it would include the MySQL driver directly in the QT static libraries, in which case I would NOT need to use the plugin at all, correct? Thanks for making me unconfused!

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• Log4r : logger inheritance, yaml configuration, alternatives ?

  - by devlearn

  Hello, I'm pretty new to ruby environments and I was looking for a nice logging framework to use it my ruby and rails applications. In my previous experiences I have successfully used log4j and log4p (the perl port) and was expecting the same level of usability (and maturity) with log4r. However I must say that there are a number of things that are not clear at all in the log4r framework. 1 Logger Inheritance The logger inheritance does not seem to be managed at all ! If I declare a logger named 'myapp' and then try to get a logger name 'myapp::engine', the lookup will end with a NameError. I would expect that the framework returns the root logger according to the naming scheme and to use the 'myapp' logger. Q1 : Of course I can work around this and manage the names by myself with a lookup method, however is there a cleaner way to do this without any extra coding ? 2 YAML configuration Second thing that confuses me is the yaml configuration. On the log4r site there are literally no information about this system, the doc links forward to missing pages, so all the info I can find about is contained in the examples directory of the gem. I was pretty confused with the fact that the yaml configuration must contain the pre_config section, and that I need to define my own levels. If I remove the pre_config secion, or replace all the “custom” levels by the standard ones ( debug, info, warn, fatal ) , the example will throw the following error : log4r/yamlconfigurator.rb:68:in `decode_yaml': Log level must be in 0..7 (ArgumentError) So there seems to be no way of using a simple file where we only declare the loggers and appenders for the framework. Q2 : I realy think that I missed something and that must be a way of providing a simple yaml conf file. Do you have any examples of such an usage ? 3 Variables substitution in XML file Q3 : The Yaml configuration system seems to provide such a feature however I was unable to find a similar feature with XML files. Any ideas ? 4 Alternatives ? I must say that I'm very disappointed by the feature level and the maturity of log4r compared to the log4j and other log4j ports. I run into this framework with a solid background of logging APIs in other languages and find myself working around in all kinds just to make 'basic things' running in a “real world application”. By that I mean a complex application composed of several gems, console/scripting apps, and a rails web front end where the configuration must be mutualized and where we make intensive usage of namespaces and inheritance. I've run several searches in order to find something more suitable or mature, but did not find anything similar. Q4 : Do you guys know any (serious) alternatives to log4r framework that could be used in a enterprise class app ? Thanks reading all of this ! I'd really appreciate any pointers, Kind Regards,

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• Apache Commons FileUpload Does not behave like expected

  - by Harry Pham

  I just want to assure you guys that before I post this, I have read couple of similar post but none solved my problem. So here it is. I use Ajax taglib for my form since it wont refresh my screen <%@ taglib uri="WEB-INF/taglib.tld" prefix="a" %> <a:AjaxUpload action="UploadServlet"> <input type="file"> <input type="submit" value="Upload"> </a:AjaxUpload> If this is in any confused you guys, then you can think of the above code will create these form, but send request asynchronously. <form action="UploadServlet" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post"> <input type="file"> <input type="submit"> </form> My first question is, if I add name="file" inside the <input> to make it become like this, <input type="file" name="file">, my servlet will throw an exception. It wont if I take it out. Here is the exception: SEVERE: Servlet.service() for servlet UploadServlet threw exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Servlet execution threw an exception at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:313) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:637) My second question is: On the server side, I check the request to see if it is isMultipartContent, and it is. But then when I parseRequest() and store into List<FileItem> items, the items.size() is 0. Here is my Servlet code FileItemFactory factory = new DiskFileItemFactory(); ServletFileUpload upload = new ServletFileUpload(factory); List<FileItem> items = null; if(request.getContentType() != null && request.getContentType().toLowerCase().indexOf("multipart/form-data") > -1){ if(upload.isMultipartContent(request)){ items = upload.parseRequest(request); //It got to here, but items.size is 0. why????????????? } }

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• Synchronization requirements for FileStream.(Begin/End)(Read/Write)

  - by Doug McClean

  Is the following pattern of multi-threaded calls acceptable to a .Net FileStream? Several threads calling a method like this: ulong offset = whatever; // different for each thread byte[] buffer = new byte[8192]; object state = someState; // unique for each call, hence also for each thread lock(theFile) { theFile.Seek(whatever, SeekOrigin.Begin); IAsyncResult result = theFile.BeginRead(buffer, 0, 8192, AcceptResults, state); } if(result.CompletedSynchronously) { // is it required for us to call AcceptResults ourselves in this case? // or did BeginRead already call it for us, on this thread or another? } Where AcceptResults is: void AcceptResults(IAsyncResult result) { lock(theFile) { int bytesRead = theFile.EndRead(result); // if we guarantee that the offset of the original call was at least 8192 bytes from // the end of the file, and thus all 8192 bytes exist, can the FileStream read still // actually read fewer bytes than that? // either: if(bytesRead != 8192) { Panic("Page read borked"); } // or: // issue a new call to begin read, moving the offsets into the FileStream and // the buffer, and decreasing the requested size of the read to whatever remains of the buffer } } I'm confused because the documentation seems unclear to me. For example, the FileStream class says: Any public static members of this type are thread safe. Any instance members are not guaranteed to be thread safe. But the documentation for BeginRead seems to contemplate having multiple read requests in flight: Multiple simultaneous asynchronous requests render the request completion order uncertain. Are multiple reads permitted to be in flight or not? Writes? Is this the appropriate way to secure the location of the Position of the stream between the call to Seek and the call to BeginRead? Or does that lock need to be held all the way to EndRead, hence only one read or write in flight at a time? I understand that the callback will occur on a different thread, and my handling of state, buffer handle that in a way that would permit multiple in flight reads. Further, does anyone know where in the documentation to find the answers to these questions? Or an article written by someone in the know? I've been searching and can't find anything. Relevant documentation: FileStream class Seek method BeginRead method EndRead IAsyncResult interface

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• tinymce not working with chrome when i dynamically setcontent

  - by oo

  I have a site that i put: <body onload="ajaxLoad()" > I have a javascript function that then shove data from my db into the text editor by using the setContent method in javascript of the textarea. seems fine in firefox and IE but in chrome sometimes nothing shows up. no error, just blank editor in the body section: <textarea id="elm1" name="elm1" rows="40" cols="60" style="width: 100%"> </textarea> in the head section: function ajaxLoad() { var ed = tinyMCE.get('elm1'); ed.setProgressState(1); // Show progress window.setTimeout(function() { ed.setProgressState(0); // Hide progress ed.setContent('<p style="text-align: center;"><strong><br /><span style="font-size: small;">General Manager&#39;s Corner</span></strong></p><p style="text-align: center;">August&nbsp;2009</p><p>It&rsquo;s been 15^th and so have a Steak Night (Saturday, 15^th) and a shore Dinner planned (Saturday, 22^nd) this month. urday, September 5^th. e a can&rsquo;t missed evening, shas extended it one additional week. The last clinic will be the week of August 11^th. </p><p>&nbsp;Alt (Tuesday through Thursday) </p><p>&nbsp;I wouClub.</p><p>&nbsp;</p><p>&nbsp;</p><p>&nbsp;</p><p>&nbsp;<strong></strong></p>'); }, 1); } i am not sure if its some of the formatting that chrome is reject but it seems like if tinymce can parse it in one browser it can do it in any browser so i am confused. any suggestions?

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• Android Marketplace Error: "The server could not process your apk. Try again."

  - by jdandrea

  I have an updated apk - tested successfully on various devices and simulator instances - with the following manifest: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.myCompany.appName" android:versionCode="2" android:versionName="1.0.1"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="3" android:targetSdkVersion="5" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <supports-screens android:largeScreens="true" android:normalScreens="true" android:smallScreens="true" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/icon_name" android:debuggable="false"> <activity android:name=".myActivity" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> </manifest> When I post to Android Marketplace as an upgrade to my existing 1.0 app, I get the aforementioned ambiguous message: "The server could not process your apk. Try again." I've searched elsewhere for this message in hopes of finding out what might be happening, to no avail. (A popular suggestion is to move the uses-sdk element to the top of the manifest, but as you can see it's already at the top.) Clues welcome/appreciated. Update: I just tried to upload the same file again. Now I get a new message: The new apk's versionCode (2) in AndroidManifest.xml must be higher than the old apk's versionCode (2). The server could not process your apk. Try again. Soooo Marketplace did get my upgraded apk after all? (The very first accepted apk's versionCode was 1, so this update was of course bumped to 2.) Confused … Bumping it up to 3 and trying again. Surprise surprise, I get the original "could not process" error all over again. Going in circles. Hmm ... :( Nuther Update: If I exit and re-enter the Marketplace page, now it shows that the app has been uploaded! Except there's no app icon. Curiouser and curiouser ... and this is all happening with a cache-cleared (standards-friendly) browser to boot. So - do I trust the upload? Or start over ... with versionCode="4"? All I want is to get a solid "Upload successful, here's the icon, ready to publish" type of response.

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• Android stream to Wowza

  - by Curtis Kiu

  I feel very confused about Android streaming to wowza. I am doing a video conference using rtmp cross-platform, but Android doesn't eat RTMP. Therefore I need to find another way to do it. Upstreaming I found a new open-source app called spydroid-ipcamera. It is using rtp, sending udp packets to computer, and opens it in vlc using the following sdp v=0 s=Unnamed m=video 5006 RTP/AVP 96 a=rtpmap:96 H264/90000 a=fmtp:96 packetization-mode=1;profile-level-id=420016;sprop-parameter-sets=Z0IAFukBQHsg,aM4BDyA=; But it can't work. Then I follow wowza tutorial and stream to it and then play again in VLC. That works! I wrote it in http://code.google.com/p/spydroid-ipcamera/issues/detail?id=2 However when I want to add audio in the packet, it fails to work. I change to code in http://code.google.com/p/spydroid-ipcamera/source/browse/trunk/src/net/mkp/spydroid/CameraStreamer.java mr.setAudioSource(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC); mr.setVideoSource(MediaRecorder.VideoSource.CAMERA); mr.setOutputFormat(MediaRecorder.OutputFormat.MPEG_4); mr.setVideoFrameRate(20); mr.setVideoSize(640, 480); mr.setAudioEncoder(MediaRecorder.AudioEncoder.AAC); mr.setVideoEncoder(MediaRecorder.VideoEncoder.H264); mr.setPreviewDisplay(holder.getSurface()); Then I thought that the problem should be in sdp, but I don't know how to due with sdp. I am streaming H.264/AAC with Mp4 Second I don't understand sdp. So how can I make video conference upstreaming part using this apps. Android ----(UDP Port:5006)----> PC (SDP file) and then Wowza read the SDP file ------> VLC I think in this way the system cannot handle more than 1 client. sdp can only hold 1 port, any idea or actually it wont' work? Also Wowza need to set the stream before we stream it, so does it mean that I should not follow this way to do it? Sorry my English is poor, I hope you guys understand.

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• angular-ui maps javascript error

  - by Will Lopez

  I'm having an issue with angularui. This error came from angular-google-maps.js: Error: [$compile:ctreq] Controller 'googleMap', required by directive 'rectangle', can't be found! http://errors.angularjs.org/1.2.16/$compile/ctreq?p0=googleMap&p1=rectangle at http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:78:12 at getControllers (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6409:19) at nodeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6580:35) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5986:15) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5989:13) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5989:13) at nodeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6573:24) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5986:15) at Scope.publicLinkFn [as $transcludeFn] (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5891:30) at link (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/ui-bootstrap-tpls-0.12.0.min.js:9:8037) <div class="rectangle grid-style ng-scope ng-isolate-scope" data-ng-grid="pipelineGrid"> I'm a little confused because the controller isn't trying to inject the angular-ui map directive: appRoot.controller('PipelineController', ["$scope", "$location", "$resource", function ($scope, $location, $resource) { ... Here's the html: <div class="container"> <tabset> <tab heading="Upload File"> <p>Tab 1 content</p> </tab> <tab heading="Data Maintenance"> Tab 2 content <div ng-controller="PipelineController"> <div id="mapFilter" class="panel panel-default"> <div class="panel-heading text-right"> <div class="input-group"> <input type="text" class="form-control" ng- model="pipelineGrid.filterOptions.filterText" placeholder="enter filter" /> <span class="input-group-addon"><span class="glyphicon glyphicon- filter"></span></span> </div> </div> <div class="panel-body"> <div class="rectangle grid-style" data-ng-grid="pipelineGrid"> </div> </div> </div> </div> </tab> </tabset> </div> Thank you!

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• OnExit is not entering via PostSharp in asp.net project.

  - by mark smith

  Hi there, I have setup PostSharp and it appears to be working but i don't get it entering OnExit (i have logged setup to ensure it is working) ... Its a bit tricky to configure with asp.net - or is it just me ... I am using the 1.5 new version I basically have the following in my web.config and i had to add the SearchPath otherwise it can't find my assemblies <postsharp directory="C:\Program Files\PostSharp 1.5" trace="true"> <parameters> <!--<add name="parameter-name" value="parameter-value"/>--> </parameters> <searchPath> <!-- Always add the binary folder to the search path. --> <add name="bin" value="~\bin"/> </searchPath> </postsharp> I have set tracing on but what is strange to me is that it appears to build to the temp directory, maybe this is my issue, i am unsure .. hence i do F5 ... Is it possible to name the Output directory and output file?? As you can see it is editing a DLL in the temp dir so IIS is no longer in control so it doesn't execute it ??? Confused! :-) C:\Program Files\PostSharp 1.5\postsharp.exe "/P:Output=C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.dll" "/P:IntermediateDirectory=C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp " /P:CleanIntermediate=False /P:ReferenceDirectory=. /P:SignAssembly=False /P:PrivateKeyLocation= /P:ResolvedReferences= "/P:SearchPath=C:\Source Code\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\mysitemvc\mysitemvc\bin," /V /SkipAutoUpdate "C:\Program Files\PostSharp 1.5\Default.psproj" "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\before-postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.dll" PostSharp 1.5 [1.5.6.627] - Copyright (c) Gael Fraiteur, 2005-2009. info PS0035: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\ilasm.exe "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.il" /QUIET /DLL /PDB "/RESOURCE=C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.res" "/OUTPUT=C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\mysitemvc-1.2\c2087140\8ac2dc93\postsharp\App_Web_04ae3ewy.dll" /SUBSYSTEM=3 /FLAGS=1 /BASE=18481152 /STACK=1048576 /ALIGNMENT=512 /MDV=v2.0.50727

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• How to override PHP configuration when running in CGI mode

  - by Fitrah M

  There are some tutorials out there telling me how to override PHP configuration when it is running in CGI mode. But I'm still confused because lots of them assume that the server is running on Linux. While I need to do that also in Windows. My hosting is indeed using Linux but my local development computer is using Windows XP with Xampp 1.7.3. So I need to do that in my local computer first, then I want to change the configuration on hosting server. The PHP in my hosting server is already run as CGI while in my local computer still run as Apache module. At this point, the processes that I understand are: Change PHP to work in CGI mode. I did this by commenting these two line in "httpd-xampp.conf": # LoadFile "C:/xampp/php/php5ts.dll" # LoadModule php5_module modules/php5apache2_2.dll Create "cgi-bin" directory in DocumentRoot. My DocumentRoot is in "D:\www\" (I'm using apache with virtual host). So it is now "D:\www\cgi-bin". Change the default "cgi-bin" directory settings from "C:/xampp/cgi-bin/" to "D:\www\cgi-bin": ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ "D:/www/cgi-bin/" <Directory "D:\www\cgi-bin"> Options MultiViews Indexes SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Includes ExecCGI AllowOverride All Allow from All </Directory> At this point, my PHP is now running as CGI. I checked this with phpinfo(). It tells me that Server API is now CGI/FastCGI. Now I want to override php configuration. I copied 'php.ini' file to "D:\www\cgi-bin" and modify upload_max_filesize setting from 128M to 10M. Create 'php.cgi' file in "D:\www\cgi-bin" and put these code inside the file: #!/bin/sh /usr/local/cpanel/cgi-sys/php5 -c /home/user/public_html/cgi-bin/ That's it. I'm stuck at this point. All of tutorials tell me to create 'php.cgi' file and put shell code inside the file. How to do the 6th step on Windows? I know the next step is to create handler in .htaccess file to load that 'php.cgi'. And also, because I will also need to change PHP configuration on my hosting server (Linux), is the 6th step above right? Some tutorial tells to insert these line instead of above: #!/bin/sh export PHPRC=/site/ini/1 exec /cgi-bin/php5.cgi I'm sorry if my question is not clear. I'm a new member and this is my first question in this site. Thank you.

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• Tridion Installation

  - by Kevin Brydon

  I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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• Filter chain halted as [:login_required] rendered_or_redirected

  - by Magicked

  Hopefully I can explain this well enough, but please let me know if more information is needed! I'm building a form where a user can create an "incident". This incident has the following relationships: belongs_to: customer (customer has_many incidents) belongs_to: user (user has_many incidents) has_one: incident_status (incident_status belongs to incident) The form allows the user to assign the incident to a user (select form) and then select an incident status. The incident is nested in customer. However, I'm getting the following in the server logs: Processing IncidentsController#create (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-26 10:41:33) [POST] Parameters: {"commit"=>"Create", "action"=>"create", "authenticity_token"=>"YhW++vd/dnLoNV/DSl1DULcaWq/RwP7jvLOVx9jQblA=", "customer_id"=>"4", "controller"=>"incidents", "incident"=>{"title"=>"Some Bad Incident", "incident_status_id"=>"1", "user_id"=>"2", "other_name"=>"SS01-042310-001"}} User Load (0.3ms) SELECT * FROM "users" WHERE ("users"."id" = 2) LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://localhost:3000/session/new Filter chain halted as [:login_required] rendered_or_redirected. Completed in 55ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://localhost/customers/4/incidents] It looks to me like it's trying to gather information about the user, even though it already has the id (which is all it needs to create the incident), and the user may not have permission to do a select statement like that? I'm rather confused. Here is the relevant (I think) information in the Incident controller. before_filter :login_required, :get_customer def new @incident = @customer.incidents.build @users = @customer.users @statuses = IncidentStatus.find(:all) respond_to do |format| format.html # new.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @incident } end end def create @incident = @customer.incidents.build(params[:incident]) respond_to do |format| if @incident.save flash[:notice] = 'Incident was successfully created.' format.html { redirect_to(@incident) } format.xml { render :xml => @incident, :status => :created, :location => @incident } else format.html { render :action => "new" } format.xml { render :xml => @incident.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end Just as an FYI, I am using the restful_authentication plugin. So in summary, when I submit the incident creation form, it does not save the incident because it halts. I'm still very new to rails, so my skill at diagnosing problems like this is still very bad. I'm going in circles. :) Thanks in advance for any help. Please let me know if more information is needed and I'll edit it in!

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• Rails AtomFeedBuilder Entry :Url option appears in url tag but not in link tag

  - by Nick

  Hello, I'm using the AtomFeedHelper and everything is working fine except for one feed where I need to link each entry to a URL which is not the default polymorphic_url for the record. Per the documentation I've specified an :url option for the entry. This correctly renders a <url> tag in the atom node but the <link rel="alternate" still points to the default polymorphic_url. Looking at the source and the documentation I don't understand why this is happening. Here's an example builder: atom_feed do |feed| feed.title("Reports") feed.updated(@reports.first.created_at) for report in @reports content = report.notes feed.entry(report) do |entry| entry.title(report.title) entry.content(content, :type => 'html') entry.url("http://myhost/page/") entry.updated(report.updated_at.strftime("%Y-%m-%dT%H:%M:%SZ")) entry.author do |author| author.name(report.user.username) end end end end Here's an example of a problem node: <entry> <id>tag:molly.recargo.com,2005:SiteReport/2</id> <published>2010-03-30T13:11:07-07:00</published> <updated>2010-03-30T13:11:07-07:00</updated> <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://myhost/site_reports/2"/> <title>Test Title</title> <content type="html">Test Content</content> <url>http://myhost/page/</url> <updated>2010-03-30T13:11:07Z</updated> <author> <name>Author</name> </author> </entry> I wan the href value in the link tag to match the value in the url tag but it does not. When I look at the source listed for entry here http://api.rubyonrails.org/classes/ActionView/Helpers/AtomFeedHelper/AtomFeedBuilder.html I'd assume that this line would work correctly: @xml.link(:rel => 'alternate', :type => 'text/html', :href => options[:url] || @view.polymorphic_url(record)) Confused. Has anyone encountered this before? Thanks all!

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• Asynchronous sockets in C#

  - by IVlad

  I'm confused about the correct way of using asynchronous socket methods in C#. I will refer to these two articles to explain things and ask my questions: MSDN article on asynchronous client sockets and devarticles.com article on socket programming. My question is about the BeginReceive() method. The MSDN article uses these two functions to handle receiving data: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } While the devarticles.com tutorial passes null for the last parameter of the BeginReceive method, and goes on to explain that the last parameter is useful when we're dealing with multiple sockets. Now my questions are: What is the point of passing a state to the BeginReceive method if we're only working with a single socket? Is it to avoid using a class field? It seems like there's little point in doing it, but maybe I'm missing something. How can the state parameter help when dealing with multiple sockets? If I'm calling client.BeginReceive(...), won't all the data be read from the client socket? The devarticles.com tutorial makes it sound like in this call: m_asynResult = m_socClient.BeginReceive (theSocPkt.dataBuffer,0,theSocPkt.dataBuffer.Length, SocketFlags.None,pfnCallBack,theSocPkt); Data will be read from the theSocPkt.thisSocket socket, instead of from the m_socClient socket. In their example the two are one and the same, but what happens if that is not the case? I just don't really see where that last argument is useful or at least how it helps with multiple sockets. If I have multiple sockets, I still need to call BeginReceive on each of them, right?

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• Why does this CSS example use "height: 1%" with "overflow: auto"?

  - by Lawrence Lau

  I am reading a HTML and CSS book. It has a sample code of two-column layout. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <style> #main {height: 1%; overflow: auto;} #main, #header, #footer {width: 768px; margin: auto;} #bodycopy { float: right; width: 598px; } #sidebar {margin-right: 608px; } #footer {clear: both; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="header" style='background-color: #AAAAAA'>This is the header.</div> <div id="main" style='background-color: #EEEEEE'> <div id="bodycopy" style='background-color: #BBBBBB'> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> This is the principal content.<br /> </div> <div id="sidebar" style='background-color: #CCCCCC'> This is the sidebar. </div> </div> <div id="footer" style='background-color: #DDDDDD'>This is the footer.</div> </body> </html> The author mentions that the use of overflow auto and 1% height will make the main area expand to encompass the computed height of content. I try to remove the 1% height and tried in different browsers but they don't show a difference. I am quite confused of its use. Any idea?

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• iPhone SDK 3/4 App will not run on a iPhone 2.x device even with deployment target set to 2.0!

  - by MarqueIV

  Ok... I know about the difference between the base/active SDKs and the deployment target. I have my base SDK set at 4.0 and the deployment target set at 2.0. I am not using any APIs post 2.x, conditional or otherwise. Since I can't debug on a 2.x device, after building it, I use the iPhone Configuration Utility to install the app on the device, which it does just fine. Problem is, it doesn't run! I just get a blank screen. The main window never comes up! Now before you ask... I had this same problem with the iPhone SDK 3.x. I upgraded to the 4.x hoping it would be solved. It wasn't. Yes the provisioning profile is installed. (Couldn't install the app if it wasn't.) This same compiled app works fine on 3.x devices. Same with 4.x devices. Just not 2.x devices. Again, no I am not using any post-2.x SDKs. To prove this I created a brand-new, window-based app from the 'New Project' dialog and the only changes I made was the background color of the window (to prove the XIB loaded) and I set the deployment target to 2.0 (It's still compiled against the 4.x SDK though.) Again, it runs fine on 3.x or 4.x devices, but just a black, blank screen on 2.x devices. I've tried this on three separate 2.x devices included one freshly restored. I've used three separate dev machines (MacBook Pro with the 3.x SDK, MacBook Pro with the 4.x SDK and a Mac Pro with the 3.x SDK.) Same result every time. I am stumped. The fact that even an unmodified project doesn't run really has me confused. Could it be the XIB file? Did they change the format from 2.x to something newer in the 3.x SDK? If so, how do I set it back to 2.x. (Again, this is just a complete guess.) But I'm really stumped! Mark

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• Vector math, finding coördinates on a planar between 2 vectors

  - by Will Kru

  I am trying to generate a 3d tube along a spline. I have the coördinates of the spline (x1,y1,z1 - x2,y2,z2 - etc) which you can see in the illustration in yellow. At those points I need to generate circles, whose vertices are to be connected at a later stadium. The circles need to be perpendicular to the 'corners' of two line segments of the spline to form a correct tube. Note that the segments are kept low for illustration purpose. [apparently I'm not allowed to post images so please view the image at this link] http://img191.imageshack.us/img191/6863/18720019.jpg I am as far as being able to calculate the vertices of each ring at each point of the spline, but they are all on the same planar ie same angled. I need them to be rotated according to their 'legs' (which A & B are to C for instance). I've been thinking this over and thought of the following: two line segments can be seen as 2 vectors (in illustration A & B) the corner (in illustraton C) is where a ring of vertices need to be calculated I need to find the planar on which all of the vertices will reside I then can use this planar (=vector?) to calculate new vectors from the center point, which is C and find their x,y,z using radius * sin and cos However, I'm really confused on the math part of this. I read about the dot product but that returns a scalar which I don't know how to apply in this case. Can someone point me into the right direction? [edit] To give a bit more info on the situation: I need to construct a buffer of floats, which -in groups of 3- describe vertex positions and will be connected by OpenGL ES, given another buffer with indices to form polygons. To give shape to the tube, I first created an array of floats, which -in groups of 3- describe control points in 3d space. Then along with a variable for segment density, I pass these control points to a function that uses these control points to create a CatmullRom spline and returns this in the form of another array of floats which -again in groups of 3- describe vertices of the catmull rom spline. On each of these vertices, I want to create a ring of vertices which also can differ in density (amount of smoothness / vertices per ring). All former vertices (control points and those that describe the catmull rom spline) are discarded. Only the vertices that form the tube rings will be passed to OpenGL, which in turn will connect those to form the final tube. I am as far as being able to create the catmullrom spline, and create rings at the position of its vertices, however, they are all on a planars that are in the same angle, instead of following the splines path. [/edit] Thanks!

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